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Pediatric Board Review > Quick Review ID > Flashcards

Quick Review ID Flashcards

1
Q

Trt: Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Doxycycline x 21 days
(Chlamydia trachomatis)
Or erythromycin

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2
Q

Trt: Primary Syphilis

A

1 dose IM benzathine penicillin G

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3
Q

Trt: Chancroid (H. ducreyi)

A

IM ceftriaxone
Azithromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin

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4
Q

Trt: PFAPA

A

Steroids

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5
Q

Time frame for transmission of lyme disease

A

Tick must be attached for >36 hours

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6
Q

Trt: lyme disease in kids under age 8

A

Amoxillin for 14-21 days

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7
Q

Trt: Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

A

reactivation of VZV along facial nerve (geniculate ganglion), vesicles ear
Steroids and Acyclovir

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8
Q

Trt: Listeria infection

A

Ampicillin or Penicillin or Bactrim

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9
Q

Chronic draining lesions that don’t grow anything– think:

A

mycobacterium.

e.g. M. marinum (swimming pool, fish tank)

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10
Q

What is the most common organism implicated in infective endocarditis in people without congenital heart disease?

A

Staph aureus most common in a normal heart…then viridans strep (more likely with abnormal valve)

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11
Q

Most common organisms in endocarditis in general

A

Staph aureus and viridans strep
Followed by AACEK organisms – gram negatives (Aggregatibacter, Actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)

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12
Q

Dry spasmodic cough with perioral cyanosis

A

Pertussis

(catarrhal stage 5-7 days, paroxysmal stage 7-10 days,

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13
Q

How is pertussis diagnosed?

A

PCR assay

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14
Q

Treatment for pertussis

A

Azithromycin; after pt in paroxysmal stage, this does not shorten symptoms but prevents transmission. 5 day course for pt and close contacts

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15
Q

Kids with eosinophilia coming from foreign countries should be tested for:

A
  • strongyloides (all countries)
  • schistosoma (SS Africa, SE Asia, Latin America)
  • filariasis
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16
Q

Trt: Strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

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17
Q

Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by

A

Adenovirus

Exudative pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, cervical LAD…

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18
Q

Most specific test for Coccidioides infection

A

complement fixation testing
(SW united states)
Can also use serology or histopatholy showing spherules in tissues

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19
Q

How do you decrease duration of illness in campylobacter infection?

A

3 days of azithromycin (not necessary in most cases)

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20
Q

Treatment for meningococcemia

A

Ceftriaxone

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21
Q

Guttate psoriasis is usually caused by

A

pharyngeal or perianal S. pyogenes infeciton

Treat with topical steroids

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22
Q

Where do pinworm eggs hatch in the body?

A

Small intestine, and mature worms migrate to colon and deposit eggs in gluteal cleft at night. Transmission is fecal-oral via contact with fomites

Trt– albendazole/mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate. Usually repeat dose in 2 weeks

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23
Q

What is the expected course of hep C after maternal-fetal transmission?

A

Slow progressive liver fibrosis

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24
Q

When is antibiotic treatment indicated in uncomplicated nontyphoidal Salmonella gastro?

A 
Infants <3 months
Immunosuppressed
Hemoglobinopathies (Sickle Cell)
Malignancy
Chronic GI disease

TMP/SMX, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone

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25
Q

Most common causes of retropharyngeal abscess

A
  1. S pyogenes (group A strep)
  2. S. aureus
  3. Respiratory anaerobe
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26
Q

Most common causes of acute otitis media

A

S. pneumo
nontypeable H. flu
Moraxella catarrhalis

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27
Q

Treatment of salmonella diarrhea prolongs…

A

Shedding of the bacterium in the stool. Don’t treat in a normal host.

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28
Q

In what time frame should postexposure varicella immunization be given?

A

Within 3-5 days. Give to unimmunized kids >12 months who have never had varicella before

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29
Q

In whom is VZIG indicated?

A

immunocompromised kids with no history of vaccination or varicella infection. Within 10 days of exposure.

  • also to neonates whose mom gets varicella 5 days before or 2 days after delivery.
  • nonimmune pregnant women exposed to varicella
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30
Q

What is the most common bacteria implicated in brain abscess in infants?

A

Citrobacter

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31
Q

What is an “id” reaction?

A

Autoeczematization seen after treatment for tinea capitis. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to a dermatophyte

Diffuse dermatitis. Treat symptomatically (can use steroid taper)

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32
Q

Potential side effects of minocycline

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

Pseudotumor cerebri

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33
Q

Treatment for Shigella

A

Ceftriaxone or Azithromycin(other macrolides)
Trt recommended in severe cases and can limit spread.
Bloody diarrhea, daycare centers, RECTAL PROLAPSE, bandemia, thrombocytopniea.

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34
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities side effect of Amphotericin B

A

low potassium
low magnesium
*Need to monitor these
also - fever, renal failure, phlebitis, acidosis

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35
Q

Bell’s palsy can be a symptom of early…

A

Lyme disease

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36
Q

Systemic lyme disease

A 
fever, fatigue
COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
facial nerve (VII) palsy
meningitis
Arthritis of large joints
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37
Q

gallbladder hydrops is seen in

A

Kawasaki disease (acalculous gallbladder distension)

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38
Q

Peripheral eosinophilia is seen in pneumonia caused by:____

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Infant 4-12 weeks: staccato cough, nasal stuffiness, rales, no wheezing, afebrile

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39
Q

Treatment of chlamydia conjunctivitis or pneumonia in infant

A

Erythromycin x14 days

Could also do azithro x3-5 days

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40
Q

Elevated cold antibody titers are seen in infections caused by ____

A 
Mycoplasma
EBV, CMV
HIV
Hep C
Malaria
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41
Q

Empiric treatment for PID

A
  1. cefotetan + doxy
  2. Cefoxitin + doxy
  3. Clinda + gent

IV for 24-48 hrs then PO

Outpatient trt:

1) ceftriaxone + doxy
2) cefoxitin + probenecid + doxy

Add metronidazole for trich or h./o recent uterine instrumentation

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42
Q

Asymptomatic person with positive PPD and negative CXR. Treat or no?

A

Describes Latent TB.
Isoniazid x9 months.
Get PPD on household family members.
No reason to separate people.

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43
Q

Scrofula

A

cervical tuberculous lymphadenitis
most common form of extrapulmonary TB
M. bovis (unpasteurized milk), M. tuberculosis due to extension of primary lesion in lung.

Dx: FNA

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44
Q

When is varicella contagious?

A

Contagious 1-2 days prior to appearance of the rash and then until all lesions have crusted over

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45
Q

if live vaccines not administered on same day what is the required time interval between them?

A

4 weeks

one will interfere with immune response of the other

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46
Q

How does lymphogranuloma venereum present?

A

initial stage is papules then buboes develop (inguinal nodes)

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47
Q

Treatment for hydradenitis suppurativa

A

Topical/systemic antibiotics

Spironolactone (2nd line)

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48
Q

Treatment for otitis externa

A 
ciprodex
OR cortisporin (neomycin/polymixin/hydrocortisone)
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49
Q

Kids with cyclic neutropenia at risk for sepsis due to which organisms

A

Clostridium perfringens

CLostridium septicum

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50
Q

When does shedding of Hep A stop?

A

7 days of symptom onset. Keep fhome from school.

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51
Q

Increased risk of febrile seizures with this vaccine

A

MMRV - first dose

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52
Q

Rare adverse events associated with DTAP

A

swelling of entire limb

hypotonic-hyporesponsive episode

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53
Q

Complications of campylobacter infection

A

diarrhea/abd pain/fever/sometimes lboody stool

mimics appendicitis, intuss

Guillain-Barre, reactive arthritis, erythema nodoum

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54
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

herpes zoster of geniculate ganglion. Vesicles in dermatomal distribution - ant 2/3 of tongue, ear pinna, EAC, unilateral ear pain.

BELLS PALSY (facial nerve palsy) within 1 week

Trt - systemic steroids and po acyclovir

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55
Q

Blistering distal dactylitis is caused by …

A

group A beta hemolytic strep (less likely S. aureus). Purulent fluid. Drain and culture

one large bulla on tips of fingers (volar fat pad) Contrast with herpetic whitlow which is several pustular blisters

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56
Q

Botulism symptoms may worsen with administration of this type of antimicrobial:

A

Aminoglycoside.
Increases effect of toxin at NMJ

Risk factor for botulism- higher in infancydue to lack of gastric acid, decreased gut flora and lack of secretory IgA.
Constipation, hypotonia, CN palsies, flaccid paralysis, poor feeding, weak suck and cry

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57
Q

BV associated with vaginal pH ___

A

> 4.5

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58
Q

ampicillin in neonatal sepsis is effective against…

A

Group B strep
Listeria
enterococcus

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59
Q

Cefotaxime in neonatal sepsis is effective against

A

gram negatives

e COLI

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60
Q

Puncture wound through tennis shoe - at risk for….

A

pseudomonas

also tetanus

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61
Q

what is the most common complication of a viral URI

A

otitis media

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62
Q

Treatment of Impetigo

A

Staph or strep

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63
Q

cutaneous larva migrans

A 
Ancylostoma infection (hookworm)
bullous tracks/red-brown-- intensely pruritic
Albendazole or ivermectin
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64
Q

WHen is zoster not contagious?

A

Contagious by contact until all lesions have crusted over. (but can go out in public if lesions are covered)

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65
Q

Papular purpuric gloves and socks syndrome

A

Parvovirus B19
acute onset of progressive swelling of hands/feet with petechial purpura. Well-demarcated erythema stopping at wrists and ankles.

arthralgia, malaise, GI, resp symptoms

Still contagious

66
Q

When is measles contagious?

A

4 days before to 4 days after onset of rash

67
Q

How do you treat individuals exposed to measles virus?

A
    • infants give IMIG within 6 days. Can give MMR within 72 hours of exposure
    • IVIG for pregnant women without immunity and severely immunocompromised regardless of immunization status
68
Q

Test for DEFINITIVE diagnosis of syphilis

A

dark-field microscopy demonstrating spirochetes from the ulcer
Not really used

69
Q

What are nontreponemal tests?

A

RPR and VDRL used for screening and monitoring for treatment. Can have false positives

70
Q

Treatment for RPA

A

Grp A strep, S. aureus, resp anaerobes

CLINDAMYCIN or UNASYN

Lateral neck XR - thickened prevertebral space

71
Q

When can kids with strep throat go back to school?

A

24 hours after antibiotics started

72
Q

Should kids with lice stay home from school?

A

Can finish out school day and return once 1st treatment completed

73
Q

What is the difference between pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and the polysaccharide vaccine?

A

Conjugate is PCV-13 (for everyone, 4-dose series)
Polysaccharide is PPSV23 ( 1 dose after age 2 yrs for people at risk of invasive pneumococcal disease- heart, lung, DM, CSF fluid leak, cochlear implant))

74
Q

Who gets 2 doses of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)?

A

people with asplenia, sickle cell, or immunocompromised. Give after age 2.

2 doses 5 years apart (or in HbSS disease, 3 years apart)

75
Q

What are the major Jones criteria for ARF?

A
  1. Joints (polyarthritis)
  2. Carditis
  3. Nodules (subcutaneous)
  4. Erythema marginatum
  5. Sydenham chorea

Req: 2 major OR 1 major, 2 minor with evidence of prior strep infection

76
Q

What are the minor Jones criteria for ARF?

A

fever
arthralgia
elevated ESR/CRP
prolonged PR interval

Req: 2 major OR 1 major, 2 minor with evidence of prior strep infection

77
Q

Treatment for tinea pedis

A

topical clotrimazole BID x2-4 weeks

if nail is involved, require terbinafine or itraconazole PO

78
Q

Dx of acute EBV infection

A

Serology – heterophile antibody test detect IgM in first 2 weeks (kids <4 years dont have these)
CBC with >10% atypical lymphs in 2nd week of illness

***use antibody titers in younger kids. IgM to VCA without NA (nuclear antigen) antibodies = recent acute EBV infection

79
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in kids with HbSS

A

S. aureus

Salmonella

80
Q

How do you treat first recurrence of C diff?

A

metronidazole (same as first)

Do not use for the next recurrences. Use oral vancomycin after

81
Q

Treatment for syphilis primary

A

PCN G benzathine IM 2.4 million units for 1 dose

For syphilis with no chancre and you don’t know how long its been there, dose 1 shot per week x3

82
Q

Stages of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Chlamydia L1-3

  1. Small painless papule/pustule, maybe a painless ulcer
  2. Painful inguinal/femoral LAD (2-6 weeks after the above heals)
83
Q

WHen is zoster not contagious?

A

Contagious by contact until all lesions have crusted over. (but can go out in public if lesions are covered)

84
Q

Papular purpuric gloves and socks syndrome

A

Parvovirus B19
acute onset of progressive swelling of hands/feet with petechial purpura. Well-demarcated erythema stopping at wrists and ankles.

arthralgia, malaise, GI, resp symptoms

Still contagious

85
Q

When is measles contagious?

A

4 days before to 4 days after onset of rash

86
Q

How do you treat individuals exposed to measles virus?

A
    • infants give IMIG within 6 days. Can give MMR within 72 hours of exposure
    • IVIG for pregnant women without immunity and severely immunocompromised regardless of immunization status
87
Q

Test for DEFINITIVE diagnosis of syphilis

A

dark-field microscopy demonstrating spirochetes from the ulcer
Not really used

88
Q

What are nontreponemal tests?

A

RPR and VDRL used for screening and monitoring for treatment. Can have false positives

89
Q

Treatment for RPA

A

Grp A strep, S. aureus, resp anaerobes

CLINDAMYCIN or UNASYN

Lateral neck XR - thickened prevertebral space

90
Q

When can kids with strep throat go back to school?

A

24 hours after antibiotics started

91
Q

Should kids with lice stay home from school?

A

Can finish out school day and return once 1st treatment completed

92
Q

What is the difference between pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and the polysaccharide vaccine?

A

Conjucate is PCV-13 (for everyone, 4-dose series)
Polysaccharide is PPSV23 ( 1 dose after age 2 yrs for people at risk of invasive pneumococcal disease- heart, lung, DM, CSF fluid leak, cochlear implant))

93
Q

Who gets 2 doses of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine?

A

people with asplenia, sickle cell, or immunocompromised. Give after age 2.

2 doses 5 years apart (or in HbSS disease, 3 years apart)

94
Q

What are the major Jones criteria for ARF?

A
  1. Joints (polyarthritis)
  2. Carditis
  3. Nodules (subcutaneous)
  4. Erythema marginatum
  5. Sydenham chorea

Req: 2 major OR 1 major, 2 minor with evidence of prior strep infection

95
Q

What are the minor Jones criteria for ARF?

A

fever
arthralgia
elevated ESR/CRP
prolonged PR interval

Req: 2 major OR 1 major, 2 minor with evidence of prior strep infection

96
Q

Treatment for tinea pedis

A

topical clotrimazole BID x2-4 weeks

if nail is involved, require terbinafine or itraconazole PO

97
Q

Dx of acute EBV infection

A

Serology – heterophile antibody test detect IgM in first 2 weeks (kids <4 years dont have these)
CBC with >10% atypical lymphs in 2nd week of illness

***use antibody titers in younger kids. IgM to VCA without NA (nuclear antigen) antibodies = recent acute EBV infection

98
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in kids with HbSS

A

S. aureus

Salmonella

99
Q

How do you treat first recurrence of C diff?

A

metronidazole (same as first)

Do not use for the next recurrences. Use oral vancomycin after

100
Q

Treatment for syphilis primary

A

PCN G benzathine IM 2.4 million units for 1 dose

For syphilis with no chancre and you don’t know how long its been there, dose 1 shot per week x3

101
Q

Stages of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Chlamydia L1-3

  1. Small painless papule/pustule, maybe a painless ulcer
  2. Painful inguinal/femoral LAD (2-6 weeks after the above heals)
102
Q

Secondary infection of croup is most likely

A

Bacterial tracheitis:
toxic child who was treated for croup and now suddenly worsening. Thick purulent secretions, pseudomembrane, ulces.

S. aureus
Strep
Moraxella
H flu

3rd gen cephalosporin +/- vanc

103
Q

Serologic testing for lyme disease

A
  1. ELISA
  2. Western blot, if ELISA+

window period of about 2 weeks from infection to positive test results

104
Q

Treatment of early lyme disease in kids <8 years of age

A

Amoxicillin or cefuroxime for 14 days

105
Q

most common manifestation of nontuberculous mycobacterium infection in healthy kids

A

Cervicofacial lymphadenitis
70% are mycobacterium avium complex
Treat with surgical excision (95% effective) not necessarily with antibiotics

can have positive tb skin test (in about 50%)

106
Q

+IgG to HBs alone indicates:

A

immunized to hep B

107
Q

What antibodies do you have if you are immune due to hep B infection?

A

anti-HBc

anti-HBs

108
Q

chronic hep B infection: serology

A

+HBsAg

+anti-HBc

109
Q

serology of hep B infection with the highest infectivity

A

HBeAg = active infection, infectious

110
Q

Hep A postexposure prophylaxis…

A

Hep A vaccine if over 12 months.

Hep A immune globulin if <12 months

111
Q

Chronic suppurative otitis media usually caused by

A

S. aureus
Pseudomonas
(biofilm-producing organisms)

trt with fluoroquinolone drops first

112
Q

what color are gram positive bacteria on gram stain?

A

purple

113
Q

granuloma inguinale

A

Klebsiella - genital ulcers. pseudobubo in inguinal area

Donovan bodies on Wright stain (encapsulated GNRs)

114
Q

swimming pool related diarrhea typically caused by

A

Cryptosporidium
Can be resistant to chlorination
trt: NITAZOXANIDE

115
Q

What is the regimen for meningococcal chemoprophylaxis?

A

Rifampin 10 mg/kg BID (600 mg) x2 days
Ciprofloxacin 500 mg x1

Can also do 1 dose IM ceftriaxone

Close contacts within 7 days of symptom onset

116
Q

Erysipelas usually caused by

A

Strep

117
Q

Treatment for PID outpatient

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x1
Doxycycline 100 mg BID x14 days
+/- metronidazole 500 mg BID x 14 days if suspecting trich, abscess, or recent gyn instrumentation

118
Q

What organisms form ring abscesses?

A 
Bacillus cereus (penetrating eye injury)
Pseudomonas
Proteus
119
Q

Treatment for H. pylori infection

A 
clarithromycin + amoxicillin
OR
clarithromycin + metronidazole
\+
PPI
7-14 days
120
Q

What protein correlates with high rate of replication and infectivity in a pt with Hep B infection?

A

Hep B “e” antigen+

highly infecitous period, high rate of perinatal transmission

121
Q

How does hepatitis D virus replicate

A

Needs HBsAg to provider its outer coat

122
Q

What are the indications for SBE prophylaxis?

A
  1. Prosthetic valve
  2. Previous endocarditis
  3. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
  4. Completely repaired heart disease with prosthetic material within last 6 months
  5. transplant pts with valvopathy

Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg x1 dose 1 hour prior to procedure max 2g.
PCN-allergic azithromycin/clindamycin

123
Q

First line for Kingella kingae infection

A

Cephalosporins/PCN/beta lactams

124
Q

Who gets postexposure ppx when a child has invasive meningococcemia?

A

Household contacts, regardless of vaccination status. Or people in childcare center with contact within 7 days of symptom onset. Seated next to pt on airplane for flight >8 hours

125
Q

Treatment for coexistent diaper candidiasis and oral thrush

A

oral antifungal

126
Q

What bacteria is associated with stye/hordeolum?

A

S. aureus

Usually only warm compresses required.

127
Q

What is breakthrough varicella?

A

Varicella infection with wild-type virus in a fully immunized child.
Maculopapular rash, <50 lesions, less contagious, occurring >42 days after vaccination

128
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole 2g single dose

OR 500 BID x7 days

129
Q

What is the best screening test for HIV in kid older than 18 months?

A

4th generation HIV1/2 antibody/p24 antigen immunoassay (same screening test as for adults)

130
Q

What is the best HIV screening test in a child <18 months?

A

HIV DNA PCR

Or RNA assay

131
Q

How to treat dog bite in pcn allergic patient?

A

clindamycin + bactrim (to cover pasteurella)

132
Q

swimming pool related diarrhea typically caused by

A

Cryptosporidium

Can be resistant to chlorination

133
Q

What is the regimen for meningococcal chemoprophylaxis?

A

Rifampin 10 mg/kg BID x2 days

Can also do 1 dose IM ceftriaxone

Close contacts within 7 days of symptom onset

134
Q

How is Listeriosis treated in the neonate?

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin for synergistic effect then can use ampicillin alone

135
Q

Toxocara infection

A

Cutaneous larva migrans. Dogs.
Respiratory symptoms/peribronchial cuffing, recurrent wheezing, chronic nonproductive cough
Ocular symptoms
Hepatomegaly
LIVER EYES LUNGS
Kids at risk of pica- eat dirt containing oocysts

136
Q

Who gets menveo vaccine?

A

Infants s/p Splenectomy.

2, 4, 6, 12 months of age

137
Q

What is the treatment fro campylobacter infection in chronically ill patients?

A

Azithromycin

138
Q

What is ppx given to neonate when mom has active gonorrhea infection?

A

IM ceftriaxone x1

139
Q

Treatment for RPA?

A

Unasyn or Clindamycin

140
Q

When do kids with sickle cell disease getmeningococal immunization?

A

age 2. Give booster dose 8 weeks later.
Vaccinate every 5 years.

Kids >age 10 also need MenB

141
Q

What are the indications for SBE prophylaxis?

A
  1. Prosthetic valve
  2. Previous endocarditis
  3. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
  4. Completely repaired heart disease with prosthetic material within last 6 months
  5. transplant pts with valvopathy

Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg x1 dose 1 hour prior to procedure.
PCN-allergic azithromycin/clindamycin

142
Q

Most common cause of ACUTE bacterial endocarditis

A

S. aureus

143
Q

Most common cause of SUBACUTE bacterial endocarditis

A

Viridans strep

144
Q

What meds should be avoided 6 weeks after varicella vaccine?

A

Salicylate meds which can cause Reye syndrome

aspirin, bismuth subsalicylate

145
Q

Which vaccine given in infancy is not indicated after 8 months of age?

A

Rotavirus

146
Q

What is breakthrough varicella?

A

Varicella infection with wild-type virus in a fully immunized child.
Maculopapular rash, <50 lesions, less contagious, occurs >42 days after vaccination

147
Q

Pertussis treatment for infant <6 months

A

azithromycin 10 mg/kg x5 days

older kids get 10 mg/kg + 5mg/kg for 4 days

148
Q

Periventricular calcifications on neonatal head US

A

CMV infection

149
Q

Diffuse cerebral calcifications on neonatal head US

A

Toxoplasma

hydrocephalus, microphthalmia, chorioretinitis, seizures, HSM

150
Q

Patients with selective IgA deficiency at risk of infections with

A

Giardia

These patients also have recurrent sinusitis and AOM

151
Q

HPV vaccine schedule

A

<15 years: 2nd dose 6-12 months after first. 2-dose series

>15 years: 3 dose series. 2nd dose 1-2 months after first, 3rd dose 6 months after first dose

152
Q

Most common infections in kids with Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)

A
    • cold abscesses (S.aureus), H. flu, S. pneumo
    • sinopulmonary infections
    • bad eczema

Bad lung infections –> bronchiectasis, fistulae, empyema, pneumatoceles LUNG CYSTS

Later infections can be pseudomonas, aspergillus, MAC

153
Q

What reaction is pt with IgA deficiency at risk for if given IVIG

A

Anaphylaxis.

But this is not a contraindication to giving. Can select product with low IgA levels.

154
Q

Toxocara infection

A

Cutaneous larva migrans
Respiratory symptoms/peribronchial cuffing, recurrent wheezing, chronic nonproductive cough
Ocular symptoms
LIVER EYES LUNGS

155
Q

When can children with HIV infection get the varicella vaccine?

A

At 12-15 months If CD4+ count is >=15%.

Booster dose at least 3 months later if CD4 count stays up

156
Q

Patients with hyper IgM syndrome are at particularly high risk for this type of infection

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

157
Q

What is the most sensitive test for acute phase of mononucleosis?

A

IgM to VCA

158
Q

Roseola

A

HHV6 or 7

3 days fever then rash. Periorbital edema. cervical LAD. URI symptoms

159
Q

Earliest age infant can receive rotavirus vaccine?

A

6 weeks. Even if preterm, as long as clinically stable.

Do not initiate immunization if older than 15 weeks. Must complete all doses by 8 months. 4 weeks between doses.

160
Q

What is the best test to identify recent strep impetigo infection?

A

anti-DNAse B

in setting of PSGN

161
Q

If MMR and varicella not given on same day, how much time needed between them?

A

4 weeks

162
Q

When is child with parvovirus no longer contagious?

A

When slapped cheek rash has appeared

Pediatric Board Review (3 decks)

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