Questions with Answers Flashcards
To the secondary lymphoid tissues and organs does not belong:
a) appendix
b) MALT
c) thymus
d) Peyer´s plaques
C
The differentiation of immune cells from pluripotent stem cells is:
a) prenatally in the liver
b) prenatally in the spleen
c) in the late gestation and postnatally in the bone marrow
d) in the thymus
A,B,C
Antigen-specific mechanisms:
a) are activated in defense response as the first
b) are adaptive
c) have immunological memory
d) are congenital
B,C
The cellular component of antigen-nonspecific mechanisms are:
a) NK cells
b) NK-T cells
c) mast cells
d) monocytes
A, D
All of the following characteristics of the antigenic epitopes are correct except:
a) on the antigen molecule can occur the same epitope several
times
b) epitopes determine the antigenic specifity of molecules
c) the size of each epitope corresponding to about 50 kDa
d) antigen epitope reacts specifically with antibodies paratope
C
IgM function is
a) neutralization of antigen
b) opsonization
c) complement activation
d) ADCC
A,C
The lowest serum IgG levels in children we find:
a) shortly after birth
b) about 6 weeks after birth
c) between 3 and 6 months after birth
d) between 1 and 2 year after birth
C
The human immunoglobulin heavy chains are encoded:
a) on chromosome 2
b) on chromosome 6
c) on chromosome 14
d) on chromosome 22
C
The human immunoglobulin kappa light chain is coded:
a) on chromosome 2
b) on chromosome 6
c) on chromosome 14
d) on chromosome 22
A
Antagonist
a) is antigenic peptide, which generates a full response of T cells
b) is a peptide that induce a qualitatively different response than
the agonist
c) is a peptide that induce quantitatively different response than
the agonist
d) competes with the agonist
B,D
The proinflammatory cytokines include:
a) IL-8
b) TNF-alpha
c) TGF-beta
d) IFN-alpha
A,B
Important role in regulation of isotype switching plays:
a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) IL-8
d) IL-10
B
For development of Th precursor to Th2 are necessary signals via:
a) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-4
b) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-12
c) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-4
d) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-12
A
Tumor associated antigen (TAA) is:
a) carcinoembryonic antigen
b) antigen HER2/neu
c) clonotyping BCR
d) complexes of MHC gp with fragments from oncogenic viruses
proteins
A,B
True statement:
a) tumor-associated antigens (TAA) are used as an auxiliary
diagnostic markers for cancer
b) tumor specific antigens (TSA) are used as an auxiliary
diagnostic markers for cancer
c) TAA are also presented in healthy individuals
d) TSA are also presented in healthy individuals
A,C
Interferon-alpha:
a) has an antiviral effect
b) is produced by cells infected with a virus
c) is used in treatment of certain hepatitis
d) is used in treatment of some cancers
A,B,C,D
Specific immunosuppression:
a) is used in the treatment of certain tumors
b) is induced by allergen immunotherapy
c) is induced by administration of antibodies against antigen
d) is used in treatment of certain autoimmune diseases
B,D
Tolerance of the fetus by mother is ensured by these mechanisms:
a) classical MHC gp class I are expressed on trophoblast
b) nonclassical MHC gp class I are expressed on trophoblast
c) clasical MHC gp class II are expressed on trophoblast
d) nonclassical MHC gp class II are expressed on trophoblast
B
Graft transferred between different individuals of the same species is known as:
a) syngeneic
b) allogeneic
c) autologous
d) heterogeneous
B
For the HLA typing of the patient’s is used:
a) the patient’s serum
b) the patient’s leukocytes
c) patient monocytes
d) a sample of patient skin
B
Graft-versus-host (GvH) disease:
a) means that the recipient lymphocytes react against donor tissue
b) means that the donor lymphocytes react against the recipient
tissues
c) may occur after bone marrow transplantation
d) may have fatal outcome
B,C,D
Severe primary humoral immunodeficiency most often manifest:
a) in newborn
b) between 6 month and 2 year of life
c) between 15 and 20 year of life
d) in old-age
B
In the treatment of autoimmune diseases using:
a) nonspecific immunostimulation
b) thymic hormones
c) a bone marrow transplant
d) immunosuppressive therapy
D
Patients with antibody immunodeficiency often suffer from:
a) otitis
b) cancer
c) sinusitis
d) abscesses
A,C
For Bruton agammaglobuliemia is typical:
a) is linked to chromosome X
b) normal numbers of B cells, completely absent IgG and IgA
c) very low numbers of B lymphocytes, the deficit of all classes of immunoglobulins
d) occurs more frequently in boys
A,C,D
Skin prick tests are not performed in:
a) food allergy
b) contact allergy
c) patients who cannot discontinue the treatment with
antihistamines
d) in patients with bronchial asthma
C
Provocation test:
a) is always performed in patients with suspected allergy
b) is performed repeatedly to monitor the status of allergy
c) is performed by the administration of specific IgE to patient
d) is a diagnostic possibility in food allergies
A
Drug of the first choice in the developed anaphylactic shock is:
a) inhaled corticosteroid
b) epinephrine (adrenaline)
c) theophylline
d) antihistamine
B
In anaphylactic shock:
a) immediate type of hypersensitivity plays a role
b) delayed type of hypersensitivity plays a role
c) vasoconstriction occurs
d) bronchodilation occurs
A
Immunogen lacks the ability to:
a) induce cellular immune responses
b) react with products of the immune response
c) induce antibody responses
d) opsonize particles for phagocytosis
D
The chemotactic active substance is not:
a) MIP-1
b) IL-7
c) IL-8
d) TNF-alpha
A,B
Phagocytes are attracted to the site of inflammation by:
a) CRP
b) C3b
c) bacterial products
d) TNF-alpha
C,D
Low-molecular substance that can react with antibody, but
could not induce its production is called:
a) immunogen
b) hapten
c) idiotyp
d) antigen
B
Hapten has all the features except:
a) is immunogenic
b) can bind to the antigen-specific receptors
c) is a low molecular substance
d) induces an immune response after the binding to high
molecular carrier
A
IgM function is
a) neutralization of antigen
b) opsonization
c) complement activation
d) ADCC
A,C
IgG function is not
a) neutralization of antigen
b) opsonization
c) complement activation
d) ADCC
A
B cell surface markers are
a) surface IgM and IgD
b) CD16
c) CD19
d) CD20
A,C,D
In which part of APC binds antigenic peptide to MHC gp class II molecule: a) in endoplasmic reticulum b) in Golgi apparatus c) in endosomes d) in the proteasome
C
Important role in regulation of isotype switching plays:
a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) IL-8
d) IL-10
B
CD3 is:
a) co-receptor for binding of MHC gp II
b) complex of proteins associated with TCR
c) necessary for the signal transduction to the cell nucleus
d) complex of proteins associated with BCR
B,C
For development of Th precursor to Th1 are necessary signals
via:
a) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-4
b) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-12
c) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-4
d) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-12
B
Bacterial lipopolysaccharide in humans:
a) can cause septic shock
b) can cause anaphylactic shock
c) induces the release of TNF
d) binds to monocytes via CD14
A,C,D
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are important:
a) for the elimination of extracellular bacteria
b) for the elimination of intracellular bacteria
c) in defense against viral infections
d) in defense against mycotic infections
B,C
Importance of antibodies in antiviral defense:
a) neutralizing antibodies prevent viral entry into host cells
b) activate classical pathway of complement, which can lyse
enveloped viruses
c) agglutination of viral particles and facilitation the phagocytosis
d) opsonization of viruses for phagocytosis
A,B;C;D
Viral infections are typical for individuals with disorders of:
a) Tc cells
b) Ts cells
c) phagocyte functions
d) NK cells
A
In examination before transplantation is performed:
a) Cross Match - lymphocytotoxic test
b) determination of T lymphocytes subpopulations
c) blast-cell transformation
d) mixed lymphocyte test
A,D
Graft versus host disease (GvH) may occur:
a) after a blood transfusion to immunodeficient recipient
b) after transplantation of hematopoietic stem cells
c) months or years after transplant
d) in the case of inappropriate choice of donor
A,B,C,D
Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus:
a) in the case of Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus, the
mother immunizes by fetal erythrocytes already during the first
pregnancy - after 8 weeks of gestation
b) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother who is RhD- creates
antibodies against the RhD factor, may arise hemolytic disease of
the newborn
c) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother RhD-, the mother gets after
the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin
d) ) if the fetus is RhD- and mother RhD+, the mother gets after
the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin
B,C
Immunopathological reaction type III occurs in:
a) haemolytic disease of the newborn
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) serum sickness
d) cryoglobulinemia
B;C;D
Primary immunodeficiency:
a) affects more girls
b) affects more boys
c) manifesting at an early age
d) manifesting at any time during the life
B,C
Receptor for HIV on T lymphocytes is:
a) TCR-CD3 complex
b) CD4
c) CD8
d) CD28
B
For common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is typical:
a) immeasurable numbers of T lymphocytes and very low levels of
immunoglobulins
b) is manifested only in adulthood
c) treated with bone marrow transplantation
d) manifests after birth
A,B
Allergens not relevant for immunopathological reaction type I are: a) nickel b) pollen c) mites d) chromium
A,D
After activation of mast cells and basophils:
a) reactive oxygen intermediates are produced
b) histamine is released
c) IFN-gamma is secreted
d) prostaglandin PGD2 is synthetized
B,D
In the allergic reaction significant role play:
a) IgE antibodies
b) IgM antibodies
c) mast cells
d) eosinophils
A,C,D
Antigen:
a) is usually greater than 5 kDa
b) is able to induce specific immune response only after binding to macromolecular carrier
c) to evoke an immune response must be greater than 40 kDa
d) is also known as a hapten
A,C
Which complement components participate in the opsonization:
a) C3a
b) C3b
c) C5a
d) C5b
B
NK cells have
a) TCR alpha and beta
b) TCR gamma and delta
c) CD16
d) CD56
C, D
IgA
a) passes through the placenta
b) is contained in breast milk
c) is the cause of allergic reactions
d) applies primarily in defense against metazoan parasites
B
Elimination of autoreactive B cell clones
a) is at the stage of pre-B lymphocyte
b) is at the stage of immature B cells
c) is at the stage of mature B lymphocytes
d) is at the stage of memory cell
B
Mast cells degranulation is activated
a) after IgE binding to high affinity IgE receptor
b) after IgA binding to high affinity IgA receptor
c) after C5a binding to the complement receptor
d) after binding of multivalent antigen through IgE
A,C,D
In response to T-dependent antigens
a) form a memory cells
b) occur no somatic mutations in B lymphocytes
c) occurs isotype switching
d) occur affinity maturation of antibodies
A,C,D
To the T cell surface markers does not belong:
a) TCR
b) CD3
c) CD80
d) CTLA-4
C
Non-specific immunosuppression:
a) is used in patients with secondary immunodeficiecy
b) is used in patients after transplant
c) is used in patients with SLE
d) is used in patients with SCID
B,C
Extracellular bacterial infections are typical for individuals with disorders of: a) Tc cells b) NK cells c) phagocyte functions d) antibody production
C, D
During the immunopathological reaction type II:
a) is activated complement
b) are not activated phagocytes
c) are activated basophils and mast cells via IgE
d) are activated NK cells
A,D
Types of post-transplantation rejections are:
a) acute rejection caused by antibodies
b) chronic rejection caused by humoral and cellular mechanisms
c) hyperacute rejection caused by antibodies
d) acute rejection caused by reactions of cellular immunity
C,D
Hyperacute rejection:
a) is caused by antibodies that don’t activate complement
b) is caused by preformed antibodies
c) is caused by autoantibodies
d) is caused by antibodies that bind to Fc receptors on phagocytes
and NK cells
B
Among the external factors involved in the development of autoimmune diseases doesn't belong: a) UV b) association with HLA-B 27 c) infectious diseases d) cancer
B
These diagnoses are not autoimmune diseases:
a) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b) myasthenia gravis
c) rheumatoid arthritis
d) Di George syndrome
D
In the diagnosis of contact dermatitis is to perform:
a) determination of IgE antibodies in the serum
b) skin prick tests
c) patch tests
d) immunofluorescence examination of the skin
C
In the case of Graves-Basedow disease:
a) there are antibodies anti thyroglobulin
b) there are antibodies against TSH receptor
c) is reduced thyroid function !!hyperfunct
d) is one of manifestation exophthalmos
A, B, D
Systemic lupus erythematosus:
a) in SLE is affected only the skin and kidneys
b) in SLE produce immune complexes, which are stored in the tissues
c) in SLE is a typical butterfly rash on the face
d) in SLE occurs glomerulonephritis
B,C,D
Hereditary angioedema is treated by:
a) administration of antihistamines
b) administration of C1 inhibitor
c) administration of fresh plasma
d) administration of androgen hormones
A,B
Immunopathological reaction type II occurs in:
a) the antiphospholipid syndrome
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) autoimmune thrombocytopenia
d) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
C
Immunopathological reaction type II occurs in:
a) allergic rhinitis
b) serum sickness
c) myasthenia gravis
d) contact dermatitis
C
Incompatibility in the ABO system means in transplantation the risk of:
a) hyperacute rejection
b) accelerated rejection
c) acute rejection
d) chronic rejection
A,B
. The mechanisms of tumor resistance to the immune system include:
a) sialylation of tumor cell surface proteins
b) the increased expression of MHC gp class I
c) high variability of tumor cells
d) the expression of Fas L
A,C, D
IL-4 is mainly produced by:
a) Th1 lymphocytes
b) Th2 lymphocytes
c) B lymphocytes
d) macrophages
B
In which part of APC binds antigenic peptide to MHC gp class I molecule:
a) in Golgi apparatus
b) in proteasome
c) in endoplasmic reticulum
d) in endosomes
C
IgA function is
a) opsonization
b) complement activation
c) neutralization of antigen
d) protection of mucous membrane
A,C,D
MHC genes are not
a) autosomes
b) the X-linked
c) codominant
d) polymorphic
B
ADCC - antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity - depends on antibody isotope
a) IgM
b) IgM and IgG
c) IgG
d) IgA
C
Contact allergy:
a) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) can occur after contact with metals
c) can cause eczema
d) is diagnosed by patch tests
B,C,D
In defense against metazoan parasites are applied:
a) mainly IgA antibodies
b) mainly IgE antibodies
c) eosinophils
d) mast cells
B,C,D (?)
Carcinoembryonic antigen:
a) is typical for hepatom
b) occurs on metastases
c) occurs in ovarian cancer
d) is typical for colon carcinoma
D
Among complement inhibitors does not belong:
a) C1 inhibitor
b) C3 inhibitor
c) MIP-1
d) MCP
C,D
Synthesis of acute phase proteins is induced by:
a) IL-3, IL-4, IL-5
b) IFN-gamma
c) IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha
d) IL-10, TGF-beta
C
