Questions 2 Flashcards
Thymus:
a) is one of the primary lymphoid organs
b) is the place of T lymphocytes maturation
c) is the place where T cells comes in contact with antigen,
proliferate and differentiate to the effector cells
d) in old age involute
A,B,D
T independent antigens:
a) the majority of protein antigens
b) are mostly polysaccharides
c) for the production of antibodies against these antigens is not necessary direct contact with T lymphocytes, but are essential some cytokines that T lymphocytes produce
d) for the production of antibodies against these antigens is always necessary cooperation with T lymphocytes
B, C
HLA typing is performed
a) by cross-match test
b) by typing serums
c) as the examination before transplantation
d) to determine paternity
A, B, C, D
ADCC - antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity - dependent on antibody isotope
a) IgM
b) IgM and IgG
c) IgG
d) IgA
C
NK cells inhibitory receptors
a) recognize MHC gp class I
b) recognize MHC gp class II
c) are CD 16
d) are KIR
D
Thymus is essential for development of:
a) alpha, beta T lymphocytes
b) gamma, delta T cells
c) gamma, beta T cells
d) NK cells
A, B,
C does not exist
NK cells also mature in Bone marrow and secondary lymphoid organs
The proinflammatory cytokines include:
a) IL-1
b) IL-4
c) IL-6
d) IL-10
A, C
Primary immune response
a) occurs without the participation of antigen
b) arises after the first exposure to the antigen
c) results in production of large quantities of IgG antibodies
d) results in production of IgM antibodies
B, D
Secondary immune response
a) arises after repeated exposure to the antigen
b) results especially in production of IgM antibodies
c) uses the memory cells
d) results especially in production of IgG antibodies
A, C, D
Cyclosporin A:
a) belongs to immunosuppressants affecting DNA metabolism
b) belongs to the immuno-suppressive antibiotics inhibiting T cells
c) is used to prevent rejection of transplant organ
d) selectively inhibits NK cell
B, C
The immunosuppressant that selectively inhibits T-lymphocytes include:
a) rapamycin
b) monoclonal antibody anti-CD3
c) monoclonal antibody against TNF
d) cyclosporin A
A, B, D for sure
Active immunization:
a) is ensured by administration of specific antibodies
b) is ensured by administration of immunogen
c) provides only temporary specific humoral immunity
d) is also placental transfer of maternal antibodies
B
Tolerance of the fetus by mother is ensured by these mechanisms:
a) the relative isolation of the fetus from maternal immune system
b) expression of MHC gp class II on trophoblast, which are
recognized by inhibitory receptors of NK cells
c) supression of Th1 response and preference of Th2 response
d) preference of Th1 response and supression of Th2 response
A, C,
B glaub nicht
Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus:
a) is a risk if the mother is RhD + and fetus RhD-
b) is the risk for second or subsequent pregnancy
c) Rh factor investigates for every pregnant woman in II. and III. trimester
d) in the case of Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus, the mother immunizes by fetal erythrocytes during childbirth or abortion (after 8 weeks of gestation)
B, C, D
Hyperacute rejection is caused by:
a) cellular immunity
b) specific antibodies
c) complement
d) CD8 + T lymphocytes
B
Types of post-transplantation rejections are:
a) acute rejection caused by antibodies
b) chronic rejection caused by humoral and cellular mechanisms
c) hyperacute rejection caused by antibodies
d) acute rejection caused by reactions of cellular immunity
C, D
Human immunodeficiency virus affects:
a) Th cells
b) Tc cells
c) NK cells
d) macrophages
A
Multiple sclerosis:
a) is a systemic autoimmune disease
b) belong to the organ-localized autoimmune diseases
c) in MS are present autoreactive T cells
d) in MS are antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor
C
Damage of organs in autoimmune diseases may be caused by:
a) immune complexes
b) autoantibodies, which activate complement
c) autoreactive T lymphocytes
d) eosinophil granulocytes
A, B, C
IgE antibodies play a role:
a) in defense against intracellular parasites
b) in defense against metazoan parasites
c) in defense against bacterial infections
d) during anaphylactic reaction
B, D
Symptoms of anaphylaxis include:
a) urticaria
b) joint pain
c) vomiting
d) hypotension
A, C, D
Which type of immunopathological reaction may be involved in drug allergy?
a) type I
b) type II
c) type III
d) type IV
A, B, C, D
In differential diagnosis of suspected allergic reaction to local anesthetics should be taken into account:
a) vasovagal syncope
b) reaction to other substances present in the administered drug
c) contact allergy to dental materials
d) reaction to food consumed before treatment
B, C?!, D
Pathophysiological mechanisms of bronchial asthma involve:
a) allergic inflammation in the bronchial wall
b) bronchoconstriction
c) increased mucus production in bronchi
d) bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy
A,B,C,D
Among the tests used to diagnose allergies do not belong:
a) skin tests
b) examination of specific IgE
c) provocation tests
d) elimination diets
D
Immunogen is:
a) high-molecular substance
b) able to induce an immune response
c) is recognized by specific receptors of immunocompetent cells
d) is a product of the immune response
A, B, C
The mucosal immune system includes:
a) o-MALT
b) BALT
c) NALT
d) GALT
A, B, C, D
Neutrophil granulocytes:
a) express MHC gp class II
b) fagocyte mainly extracellular bacteria
c) fagocyte predominantly own apoptotic cells
d) effector functions perform after the cytokine activation
A, B,
D?!
Anafylatoxins are:
a) C3a, C5a
b) C3b, C5b
c) C5a, C6
d) C3b, C4b
A
Histamine
a) is contained in mast cell’s granules
b) is synthesized de novo after activation of mast
c) affect the target structures through receptors
d) causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
A, C, D
MHC gp class I
a) are important in transplantation immunity
b) are presented on all nuclear cells
c) are absent on human erythrocytes
d) apply in antigen presentation
A, B, C, D
IgA
a) passes through the placenta
b) is contained in breast milk
c) is the cause of allergic reactions
d) applies primarily in defense against metazoan parasites
B
Cytotoxic T lymphocyte:
a) is CD3 + and CD4 +
b) is CD3 + and CD8 +
c) is able to perform efector functions immediately after
recognition of target cells without prior stimulation, proliferation and differentiation
d) before activation of efector functions must be stimulated by contact with APC
B, C
Affinity maturation of antibodies
a) occur in the primary stage of immune response
b) occur in the secondary phase of the immune response
c) is associated with mutations in the variable segments of genes for H and L chain
d) is associated with excision of V segments genes for H and L chain
B, C
Corticosteroids
a) suppress the expression of genes for IL-1, IL-2
b) increase the expression of MHC gp and adhesion molecules
c) reduce histamine release from basophils
d) have a pro-inflammatory effect
A, C
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are important:
a) for the elimination of extracellular bacteria
b) for the elimination of intracellular bacteria
c) in defense against viral infections
d) in defense against mycotic infections
B
C? HIV virus ?!
Importance of antibodies in antiviral defense:
a) neutralizing antibodies prevent viral entry into host cells
b) activate classical pathway of complement, which can lyse enveloped viruses
c) agglutination of viral particles and facilitation the phagocytosis
d) opsonization of viruses for phagocytosis
All?
Hyperacute rejection:
a) is caused by antibodies that don’t activate complement
b) is caused by preformed antibodies
c) is caused by autoantibodies
d) is caused by antibodies that bind to Fc receptors on phagocytes and NK cells
B
Accelerated rejection:
a) occurs from minutes to hours after transplantation
b) is caused by antibodies that activate complement
c) is caused by autoantibodies
d) is caused by IgA antibodies
B
Among the systemic autoimmune diseases does not belong:
a) rheumatoid arthritis
b) vasculitis
c) celiac disease
d) Addison’s disease
C, D
In the case of Graves-Basedow disease:
a) there are antibodies anti thyroglobulin
b) there are antibodies against TSH receptor
c) is reduced thyroid function
d) is one of manifestation exophthalmos
A, B, D
In drug allergy:
a) anaphylactic manifestations do not occur
b) anaphylactic manifestations are usually caused by immunopathological reaction type I
c) all types of immunopathological reactions may play a role
d) contact type of allergy is not observed
B
Release of mediators from mast cells is triggered by binding of:
a) IgE to high affinity Fc receptor
b) the allergen to IgG
c) the allergen to IgE
d) C3b to the complement receptor
A
Among the substances that may cause allergic reaction of the immediate type belong:
a) amalgam
b) polymers
c) fruits
d) vegetables
A, B, C, D
Phylogenetically unrelated species antigens are described as:
a) allogeneic
b) syngeneic
c) xenogeneic
d) isogenic
C
C3 convertase composition is identical:
a) in the classical and alternative pathway of complement activation
b) in the lectin and alternative pathway of complement activation
c) in the classical and lectin pathway of complement activation
d) in none of the pathways of complement activation
C
Parts of the antigen, which reacts with the antibody are called:
a) isotopes
b) epitopes
c) paratopes
d) antigenic determinants
B
Patients with antibody immunodeficiency often suffer from:
a) otitis
b) cancer
c) sinusitis
d) abscesses
A,C
The riskiest drugs for the emergence of anaphylaxis are:
a) antihistamines
b) corticosteroids
c) macrolide antibiotics
d) penicillin antibiotics
C,D
Breast milk contains:
a) predominantly sIgM
b) complement components
c) leukocytes
d) lysozyme
C
Macrophages:
a) process and present antigen
b) produce IL-2
c) regulate the immune response
d) kills absorbed bacteria
A,C,D
NK cells have
a) TCR alpha and beta
b) TCR gamma and delta
c) CD16
d) CD56
C,D
MHC gp class II present peptide fragments
a) of proteins that are produced by the cell
b) of proteins, which were engulfed by cell
c) to cytotoxic T lymphocytes
d) to auxiliary T lymphocytes
B, D
During the isotype switching
a) occurs D-J rearrangement
b) occurs no V-D rearrangement
c) there is excision of C segments
d) occurs somatic mutations
B, C
In which part of APC binds antigenic peptide to MHC gp class I molecule:
a) in Golgi apparatus
b) in proteasome
c) in endoplasmic reticulum
d) in endosomes
C
The anti-inflammatory cytokines include:
a) IL-1
b) IL-4
c) IL-6
d) IL-10
B,D
Typical cytokine for Th3 is:
a) IL-2
b) TGF-beta
c) IFN-gamma
d) IL-3
B
CD3 is:
a) co-receptor for binding of MHC gp II
b) complex of proteins associated with TCR
c) necessary for the signal transduction to the cell nucleus
d) complex of proteins associated with BCR
B,C
For development of Th precursor to Th2 are necessary signals
via:
a) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-4
b) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-12
c) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-4
d) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-12
A
Interferon-alpha:
a) has an antiviral effect
b) is produced by cells infected with a virus
c) is used in treatment of certain hepatitis
d) is used in treatment of some cancers
A, B, C, D
The role of antibodies in defense against infection is:
a) neutralization of bacterial toxins and viruses
b) phagocyte chemotaxis
c) direct killing of organisms by antibodies
d) preventing the adherence of bacteria to mucosal
A,D
Extracellular bacterial infections are typical for individuals with disorders of:
a) Tc cells
b) NK cells
c) phagocyte functions
d) antibody production
C, D
Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus:
a) in the case of Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus, the mother immunizes by fetal erythrocytes already during the first pregnancy - after 8 weeks of gestation
b) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother who is RhD- creates antibodies against the RhD factor, may arise hemolytic disease of the newborn
c) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother RhD-, the mother gets after the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin
d) ) if the fetus is RhD- and mother RhD+, the mother gets after the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin
B, C
Acute rejection:
a) is caused by antibodies that activate complement
b) is caused by alloreactiv Th1 cells
c) is caused by alloreactiv CD8 + T lymphocytes
d) is caused by NK cells
B
Hereditary angioedema:
a) is characterized by a deficiency of complement component C1
b) is characterized by deficiency of C1 inhibitor
c) is characterized by recurrent swelling
d) is most commonly caused by bacterial infection
B, C
Bruton agammaglobulinemia
a) is linked to chromosome X
b) affects more girls than boys
c) is a congenital immunodeficiency
d) belongs to the acquired immunodeficiency
A, C
In the treatment of AIDS is used:
a) transfer factor
b) thymic hormones
c) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
d) IL-2
C
In the treatment of autoimmune diseases using:
a) nonspecific immunostimulation
b) thymic hormones
c) a bone marrow transplant
d) immunosuppressive therapy
D
In drug allergy:
a) anaphylactic manifestations do not occur
b) anaphylactic manifestations are usually caused by immunopathological reaction type I
c) all types of immunopathological reactions may play a role
d) contact type of allergy is not observed
B, C
Release of mediators from mast cells is triggered by binding of:
a) IgE to high affinity Fc receptor
b) the allergen to IgG
c) the allergen to IgE
d) C3b to the complement receptor
A
In atopy balance Th1 / Th2:
a) is shifted in favor of Th1
b) is shifted in favor of Th2
c) is not changed
d) is not relevant
A ?
Macrophages:
a) process and present antigen
b) produce IL-2
c) regulate the immune response
d) kills absorbed bacteria
A, C, D
Among phagocytes receptors does not belong:
a) TLR
b) TCR
c) mannose receptor
d) CD14
B
Synthesis of acute phase proteins is induced by:
a) IL-3, IL-4, IL-5
b) IFN-gamma
c) IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha
d) IL-10, TGF-beta
C
The mast cell secretory product is not
a) histamine
b) serotonin
c) perforin
d) tryptase
C
Antagonist
a) is antigenic peptide, which generates a full response of T cells
b) is a peptide that induce a qualitatively different response than the agonist
c) is a peptide that induce quantitatively different response than the agonist
d) competes with the agonist
B, D
True statement:
a) tumor-associated antigens (TAA) are used as an auxiliary diagnostic markers for cancer
b) tumor specific antigens (TSA) are used as an auxiliary diagnostic markers for cancer
c) TAA are also presented in healthy individuals
d) TSA are also presented in healthy individuals
A, C
Interferon-alpha:
a) has an antiviral effect
b) is produced by cells infected with a virus
c) is used in treatment of certain hepatitis
d) is used in treatment of some cancers
A, B, C, D
Immunopatological reaction type III is:
a) based on IgE antibodies
b) based on the formation of immune complexes with IgG
c) based on antibodies, IgM and IgG
d) based on the formation of immune complexes with IgM
B
Graft transferred between different individuals of the same species is known as:
a) syngeneic
b) allogeneic
c) autologous
d) heterogeneous
B
For determination of MHC gp class I is used:
a) RIA
b) ELISA
c) microlymphocytotoxic test
d) mixed lymphocyte reaction
C, D
Types of post-transplantation rejections are:
a) acute rejection caused by antibodies
b) chronic rejection caused by humoral and cellular mechanisms
c) hyperacute rejection caused by antibodies
d) acute rejection caused by reactions of cellular immunity
C, D
Infection with HIV is transmitted by:
a) blood
b) semen
c) breast milk
d) droplet infection
A, B, C
Among the primary humoral immunodeficiency does not belong:
a) CVID
b) selective IgA deficiency
c) hyper-IgE syndrome
d) Di George syndrome
C, D
Contact allergy:
a) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) can occur after contact with metals
c) can cause eczema
d) is diagnosed by patch tests
B,C,D
Examination for allergy of the immediate type is performed by means of:
a) prick tests
b) patch tests
c) detection of specific IgE in the serum
d) immunofluorescence
A, B, C
Antigen-specific mechanisms:
a) are activated in defense response as the first
b) are adaptive
c) have immunological memory
d) are congenital
B, C
Among the professional antigen presenting cells belongs:
a) B lymphocytes
b) monocytes
c) fibroblasts
d) endothelial cells
A, B
The antigen presenting cells are not
a) B lymphocytes
b) macrophage
c) follicular dendritic cells
d) dendritic cells
C
IgG function is not
a) neutralization of antigen
b) opsonization
c) complement activation
d) ADCC
All of them are ?!
Fc fragments of immunoglobulin molecules are not participating in:
a) selective placental transport of IgG
b) the classical complement pathway activation
c) binding to macrophages
d) neutralization
D
Idiotyp is:
a) set of idiotops of one immunoglobulin molecule
b) designation for immunoglobulin classes
c) transcription factor applied in the development of immunoglobulins
d) an antigenic characterization of antibodies certain specificity
A
After mast cell degranulation occurs
a) vasoconstriction
b) vasodilation
c) bronchoconstriction
d) bronchodilation
B, C
The cytotoxic mechanisms of Tc cells are:
a) activation of membrane NADPH oxidase
b) NO production
c) granules containing perforin and granzyme
d) granules containing hydrolytic enzymes
C
In response to T-dependent antigens
a) form a memory cells
b) occur no somatic mutations in B lymphocytes
c) occurs isotype switching
d) occur affinity maturation of antibodies
A, and?
Secondary immune response
a) arises after repeated exposure to the antigen
b) results especially in production of IgM antibodies
c) uses the memory cells
d) results especially in production of IgG antibodies
A, C, D
In the immune response against the tumor may apply:
a) CD8 + T lymphocytes
b) antibodies
c) membranolytic complex of complement
d) NK cells
A, B, C, D
In non-specific immunostimulatory treatment is used:
a) transfer factor
b) cyclooxygenase
c) IL-2
d) IFN-alpha
.
Antibody immunodeficiencies manifest increased susceptibility to:
a) viral infections
b) bacterial infections
c) fungal infections
d) parasitic infections
B
For Sj”gren’s syndrome is typical:
a) autoantibody destroy endocrine glands
b) autoantibodies destroy exocrine glands
c) affect skin, kidneys and lungs
d) manifest the disorder of joint
B
