Questions from Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

The Blood Brain barrier is most permeable to what kind of molecule?

A

The correct choice is: small, lipid-soluble.

The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to small, lipid-soluble molecules. These molecules can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the endothelial cells that form the BBB. Large lipid-soluble molecules and small water-soluble molecules typically have more difficulty crossing the BBB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Central Nervous System (CNS) is comprised of:

A

the brain and spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the “reward circuit”? Choices: Ventral tegmental area (VTA), frontal lobe, nucleus accumbens, tectum

A

tectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which division of the nervous system controls bodily organs, glands, ducts, and pupils?

A

autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What division of the nervous system controls the gut?

A

enteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what ionic movement begins an action potential?

A

entrance of sodium (Na+) ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An oin channel that contains a receptor site is called…?

A

an ionotropic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a monoamine? Choices: serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine, glutamate

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which neurotransmitter is particularly important for mood, appetite and sleep?

A

Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drugs administered “sublingually” (under the tongue) and drugs administered orally are absorbed mostly in the ____________ and ____________, respectively.

A

mouth; small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which route of administration is characterized as “enteral”?

A

oral and rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following drug attributes decrease the likelihood of drug absorption EXCEPT:

high water-solubility
small size
large size
low lipid-soulubility

A

Small size = INCREASED LIKELIHOOD OF DRUG ABSORPTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two main difference between capillaries in the periphery and capillaries in the brain?

A

Capillaries in the brain have tighter junctions and are surrounded by membranes of astrocyte cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Of the following, which is the most dangerous mode of drug administration?

A

intravenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The degradation of drugs by enzymes present in the gastrointestinal tract and liver is known as:

A

first-pass metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most drugs are excreted via the…

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the time for the plasma level of a drug to fall by 50% is called the

A

elimination half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The “steady-state” concentration of a drug (the stable level achieved in blood with repeated, regular dosing) is

A

achieved when the amount of drug administered per until time equals the amount eliminated per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ability of liver enzymes to degrade a drug more efficiently in the continued presence of the drug is termed

A

metabolic tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a positive symptom of schizoprenia?

Choices:
delusions
flat affect
hallucinations
disordered thinking

A

flat affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cariprazine should not be used by

A

elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The percentage of the world’s population suffering from schizophrenia is

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Choices
lack of movement
poverty of speech
disorganized behavior
social withdrawal

A

disorganized behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary indication of haloperidol?

A

psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In general, antipsychotics have a _____ potential for dependence, and a ___ potential for tolerance. weak or strong for each blank.
weak, weak
26
The most problematic side effect caused by clozapine is:
agranulocytosis
27
What is the most common side effect of treatment with olanzapine?
weight gain
28
Chlorpromazine was originally develop to be a
sedative
29
The uncontrollable movements of muscles, commonly in the limbs, face, and tongue, produced by acute treatment with antipsychotics are called
dystonia
30
Which statement below best describes the pharmacodynamics of escitalopram?
It primarily affects 5-HT systems, with minimal effects on NE/DA/ACh systems.
31
What type of antidepressant is amitriptyline?
TCA
32
What is the pharmacodynamic mechanism of bupropion?
It blocks DA and NE reuptake
33
The tricyclic antidepressants differ from Prozac and Zoloft in that they also have major effects on ________________.
norepinphrine
34
An SNRI would be a good treatment choice for someone
with MDD and pain
35
Venlafaxine is a/an
SNRI
36
Which neurotransmitters are affected by amitriptyline?
NE, ACh, 5-HT
37
The neurogenic theory of depression stems from recent findings that in the mature brain
neurons are capable of being repaired and produced
38
OF the following classes of antidepressant drugs, the one associated with the highest incidence of sexual dysfunction is
SSRIs
39
First-generation tricyclic antidepressants are defined by a commonality in basic
molecular structure
40
One of the biggest problems with carbamazepine is that it can induce
agranulocytosis
41
Bipolar patients spend most of their lives in a ____________ state.
asymptomatic
42
Antiepileptics include all of the following drugs except
lithium
43
The rate of suicide for bipolar patients is approximately _____ times that of the general population.
10
44
What is the original primary indication for lamotrigine?
seizure disorder/epilepsy
45
Valproate appears to be more effective for patients who have ________________, compared to lithium.
mixed episodes
46
Oxcarbazepine is an improvement of the carbamazepine molecule, and has a better side-effect profile. Which of the following is NOT one of the improvements?
less weight gain
47
Atypical antipsychotics are often used as a first-line treatment for Bipolar Disorder because
they have a better safety profile than lithium
48
One of the most serious side effects associated with taking Lamictal is
rash
49
Similarly to anti-depressants, lithium appears to
increase neuroprotective factors
50
It is recommended that pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders begins with
SSRIs
51
propanolol is a
beta blocker
52
Compared to benzodiazepines, SSRIs seem to be particularly effective for treating
OCD
53
Barbiturates and benzodiazepines bind to what kind of receptor?
GABAA
54
Propanolol is most commonly used to treat
Situational/Performance anxiety
55
Of the following anxiety disorders, which one has equal gender ratios?
Social Anxiety
56
Which of the following is NOT a common obsessive behavior seen in patients with OCD? counting, checking, cleaning, or cartwheeling
cartwheeling
57
The cortical hyperactivity seen in patients with anxiety disorders is thought to be due to all of the below EXCEPT DA hypofunction 5-HT hypofunction NE hyperfunction GABA hypofunction
DA hypofunction
58
Alprazolam is contraindicated in patients who
smoke
59
The pharmacodynamic mechanism of St. John's wort is very similar to that of
TCAs
60
An important pharmacodynamic effect of Ginkgo biloba is
Anticoagulation
61
Valerian is best described as a/n
Sedative
62
Ma huang should not be combined with caffeine, as this can increase the risk of
Cardiac Arrest
63
Which of the following plants is NOT used as an anxiolytic?
Ma Huang
64
Valerian is commonly used to treat all of the following EXCEPT:
High Blood Pressure
65
Which of the following conditions is ma huang used for?
asthma
66
All of the following are active compounds found in kava EXCEPT
terpene trilactones
67
Toxicity can result from the consumption of ginkgo biloba
seeds
68
An important property of omega-3 fatty acids is that they have _____ effects
antiinflammatory
69
Which of the following drug names are capitalized?
Trade
70
"Pharmacodynamic" tolerance occurs in the _____; "metabolic" tolerance occurs in the _____.
Synapse/neuron ; liver
71
The study of the effects a drug has when it binds to it's target/receptor is termed
pharmacodynamics
72
A drug that is more efficious than another drug has
a large maximum effect
73
Most side effects are
predictable and mild
74
The observation that caffeine exert as much central nervous system stimulation as amphetamine indicated that caffeine....
is less efficious than amphetamine
75
During pregnancy how does intestinal motility react?
decreases
76
A drug that is more potent than another drug has ____ ED50?
a smaller ED50
77
According to the DEA, the most dangerous drugs are typically scheduled as ....
1
78
Affinity refers to .... ?
the strength of attraction between a molecule (ligand) and it's target (receptor)
79
The therapeutic index (TI) refers to
Relative safety of a drug
80
Compared to males, most females ...
have more fat
81
The dose of a drug that produces the desired effects in half of the subjects is called the drug's ...
ED50
82
The term placebo is best described as...
A pharmacologically inactive substance that elicits a significant therapeutic response
83
A drug that blocks the effect of the naturally occurring (endogenous) compound is called:
An antagonist
84
Phenothiazines are in the class of antipsychotics known as
First generation antipsychotics
85
The word tardive in tardive dyskinesia indicates that the symptoms
Appear later in treatment
86
Amisulpiride is a good choice of antipsychotic for patients who have a high risk for
Diabetes
87
The single best predictor of antipsychotic efficacy in a drug is an affinity for __________ receptors.
D2
88
An off-label use for risperidone is
OCD
89
Loxapine is the only antipsychotic that
Is administered via inhalation
90
The uncontrollable movements of muscles commonly in the limbs, face, and tongue produced by ACUTE treatment with antipsychotics are called
Dystonia
91
The major side effect of the first-generation antipsychotics is
motor impairment
92
Impairment of memory is a side effect clearly associated with the use of
TCAs
93
Compared to SSRIs, TCAs are:
Equally effective, but have different side effects
94
The tricyclic antidepressants differ from Prozac and Zoloft in that they also have major effects on ________________.
Norepinephrine
95
If an SSRI is taken in conjunction with an MAOI, the levels of 5-HT can become dangerously high leading to ___________________.
Serotonin syndrome
96
Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of
TCAs and MAOIs
97
Venalfaxine is a/an
SNRI
98
Topamax is used in the treatment of Bipolar Disorder to decrease
Weight gain
99
Electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) is sometimes used to treat Bipolar Disorder because
It has rapid effects
100
Atypical antipsychotics are often used as a first-line treatment for Bipolar Disorder because
They have a safer profile than lithium
101
The rate of suicide for bipolar patients is approximately _____ times that of the general population.
10
102
Which of the following is NOT a side-effect of lithium?
EPS
103
The classic drug for treating bipolar disorder is
Lithium
104
The therapeutic index for lithium is _______; the antidote for overdose is __________
Low; unavailable
105
Similarly to antidepressants lithium appears to
Increase neuroprotective factors
106
In addition to treating anxiety, Buspirone can be used to improve the ________________ side effects caused by SSRIs.
Sexual
107
Compared to barbiturates, benzodiazepines are
Safer
108
Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT thought to be important to the etiology of anxiety?
Dopamine
109
Barbiturates are in a class of drugs known as
Sedative-hypnotics
110
Venlafaxine is associated with a higher risk of ___________ in young (<24) patients.
suicide
111
The most common sub-type of anxiety disorder is
phobia
112
Stimulation of the GABAA1 receptor is thought to result in all the following effects EXCEPT
Anxiolysis
113
The most common cause of death when combining benzodiazepines with another CNS depressant (like alcohol) is
respiratory depression
114
The anticipatory anxiety experienced by people who have panic attacks can sometimes progress to
Agoraphobia
115
Drugs that reduce the activity of the _____________ seem to be particularly efficacious for treating Panic Disorder.
Locus coeruleus
116
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Buspirone?
It is immediately effective
117
Unlike other anxiolytics, beta-blockers primarily work:
Peripherally
118
The cortical hyperactivity seen in patients with anxiety disorders is thought to be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
DA hypofunction
119
Which of the following is NOT a concern regarding barbiturates?
Some have extremely long half-lives
120
In the past, use of kava has been linked to
Hepatotoxicity
121
Pharmacodynamically, valerian is classified as an
GABA agonist
122
Kava has pharmacodynamic effects very similar to
Alcohol
123
The active ingredient in St. John’s wort is thought to be
Hypericum perfortatum
124
Kava grows naturally in what part of the world?
South Pacific
125
Ginkgo biloba is mainly used to improve:
Cognition
126
Which of the following plants is NOT used as an anxiolytic?
ma huang
127
Valerian is commonly used to treat all of the following EXCEPT
High blood pressure
128
Ginkgo biloba should not be combined with
aspirin
129
What is the ideal ratio of omega-3 to omega-6 fatty acids?
1:1