Questions From Mock Flashcards

1
Q

For CD drug, is use of PO Box as address acceptable?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Reasons contribute to low calcium

A
  • CKD (failing kidney less able to convert vitamin D to its active form —> less calcium absorbed)
  • Alendronic acid
  • Osteoporosis
  • Decreased absorption to sunlight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can insulin needles be reused?

A

No. Insulin needles should not be reused as they become blunt after single use. Reusing same needle increases risk of lipodystrophy, especially if used at the same site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can you offer aspirin/clopidogrel monotherapy solely for stroke prevention to people with AF?

A

No. Offer anticoagulation with DOAC/warfarin to people with AF and CHA2DS2VASc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does it mean when a medicine is labelled with black triangle

A

It is being monitored even more intensively than other medicines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When to complete Yellow card?

A

For all suspected ADRs that are serious or result in patient harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adverse effects of HRT

A
  • Breast cancer (combined has higher risk than oestrogen only, excess risk disappears within 5 years of stopping)
  • Endometrial cancer (increased with oestrogen only HRT, addition of progestogen for at least 10 days in one cycle reduce this risk)
  • Stroke
  • VTE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to recommend LTOT (long term oxygen therapy)

A

FEV1 <30%, cyanotic appearance and peripheral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many drops in 1mL eye drop?

A

1mL = 20 drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Abiraterone

A

Anti-androgen that stops body making testosterone hence slow cancer growth (prostate cancer)

Common side effects: abiraterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is sulfasalazine an immunosuppressant?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can aluminium antacid and magnesium antacid cause respectively?

A

Aluminium: Constipation
Magnesium: Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A
  • causes CAP and upper respiratory infection
  • occurs mainly in children and young adults (often seen in close community settings like boarding schools or uni)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Atypical bacteria pneumonia

A
  • chlamydophilia/clamydia pneumoniae
  • legionella pneoumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aspergillus Candida

A
  • cause Aspergillosis
  • mostly affect I’m muñido promised patients and rare in inmunocompetent hosts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A
  • caused pneumocystic pneumonia
  • seen in severely immunocompromised patients (eg: patients with haematological malignancies, long term corticosteroids)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Commonly in HAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Domperidone

A
  • suitable as antiemetic for Parkinson’s patients
  • should only be a short course due to risk of serious cardiac side effects (should not normally exceed 1 week)
  • minimum age: 12 y/o
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Co-amoxiclav/Flucloxacillin

A
  • causes cholestatic jaundice
  • can occur during or shortly after a course
  • more common in men/those >65
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cohort study

A
  • look at particular outcome from certain participants (patients not randomly picked)
  • consume some time to obtain information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Expert opinion

A

Judgement or belief provided by someone who is expert in that subject, information can be biased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Systematic reviews

A

Literature review that collected and critically analyses multiple research studies and papers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Trimethoprim treatment dose

A

200mg BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Trimethoprim prophylactic dose

A

200mg OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bendroflumethiazide vs Indapamide

A

Thiazide diuretics vs Thiazide-like diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DOAC dose

A
  • apixaban 10mg BD for 7 days then 5mg BD
  • rivaroxaban 15mg BD for 21 days then 20mg OD
  • edoxaban 60mg OD
  • dabigatran (18-74) 150mg BD, (75-79) 110-150mg BD, (>80) 110mg BD
  • Aspirin and clopidogrel only recommended if anticoagulant monotherapy contraindicated or not tolerated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dopamine receptor agonists

A
  • impulsive disorder (eating, gambling, hyper sexuality)
  • sudden onset of sleep (treatment modafinil)
  • hypotension

If these happens, the drug should be withdrawn or reduced until symptoms resolved

28
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A
  • smells fishy
  • greyish white
  • watery discharge
29
Q

Thrush

A
  • thick and white
  • like cottage cheese
30
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

Green, yellow or frothy discharge

31
Q

Chlamydia or gonorrhea

A

With pelvic pain or bleeding

32
Q

Genital herpes

A

With blisters or sores

33
Q

Gestational hypertension

A
  • first line: labetalol
  • second line: nifedipine
  • third line: methyldooa
34
Q

Beta blocker licensed for heart failure

A

Nebivolol
Bisoprolol
Carvedilol

35
Q

Codeine

A
  • can be sold OTC >12 y/o
  • contraindicated in: colitis, children that had tonsillectomy or adenoids removed, ultra rapid metabolisers
36
Q

Miosis

A

Constricted pupil

37
Q

Mydriasis

A

Dilated pupil

38
Q

Vancomycin monitoring

A
  • trough level (peak not routinely required)
  • FBC
  • renal function
  • auditory function
  • urinalysis
39
Q

Antibiotics associated colitis

A
  • ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
  • clindamycin
  • penicillin
  • cephalosporins
40
Q

Plasma theophylline monitoring

A
  • measured 5 days after starting oral treatment
  • at least 3 days after any dose adjustment
  • blood sample taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose of MR preparation
41
Q

Otitis externa

A
  • ear pain
  • itching
  • redness and swelling outer ear and ear canal
  • irritation in and around ear canal
  • feeling of pressure and fullness inside ear
42
Q

Otitis media

A
  • ear pain
  • fever
43
Q

Is aqueous cream suitable as an emollient for eczema?

A

No, it contains sodium lauryl sulfate which can cause thinning of skin and irritation if left on skin

44
Q

Steroids withdrawal

A
  • more than 40mg or equivalent OD steroid for at least 1 week
  • repeated evening doses
  • more than 3 weeks of treatment
  • recently received repeated courses
  • taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long term therapy
  • other possible causes of adrenal suppression
45
Q

Medicines causes weight gain

A
  • sulphonylurea
  • insulin
  • steroid
  • mirtazapine
46
Q

Type 1 Diabetes symptoms

A
  • abdominal pain
  • raised temperature
  • thirst
  • tiredness
  • frequent urination
  • weight loss
47
Q

Medicines should not go into MDS

A
  • MTX: cytotoxic
  • warfarin: variable dose
  • alendronic acid: complex administration regime
  • nicorandil: moisture sensitive but can be dispensed out of original packaging for 30 days
  • effervescent tablets
  • sodium valproate
  • GTN: light sensitive
  • chlorpromazine: light-sensitive + skin reactions with prolonged contact
  • finasteride: affect fertility
48
Q

Alpha blockers for BPH

A

Tamsulosin
Alfuzosin
Indoramin

49
Q

Antimuscarinic for BPH

A

Oxybutynin
Solifenacin
Tolterodine

50
Q

Medicines causing blood dyscrasia

A

Carbimaze
Clozapine
Chlorpromazine
Chloroquine

51
Q

Can you give double dose of EllaOne for patient taking enzyme induced (eg Carbamazepine)

A

No, only double dose of levonorgestrel is permitted OTC

Levonorgestrel licensed OTC 16 years and above

52
Q

Does carbamazepine interacts with anticoagulant?

A

Yes, with DOAC (severe interactions) and warfarin

But it is fine to take warfarin as the anticoagulation effect can be monitored by INR

53
Q

NSAIDS and CVS side effects

A

Severe heart failure:
- do not use NSAIDS

Mild, moderate or severe:
- do not use coxib, diclofenac, high dose ibuprofen (2400mg or more)

Mild to moderate:
- standard NSAIDS, ibuprofen up to 1200mg per day or naproxen up to 1000mg per day

54
Q

Expires Jan 2025

A

Expires 31/1/2025

55
Q

Best before Jan 2024

A

Discard 31/12/2023

56
Q

Use before end Jan 2024

A

Discard 31/01/2024

57
Q

Use by Jan 2024

A

Discard 31/12/2023

58
Q

Discard after Jan 2024

A

Discard 31/01/2024

59
Q

Number of chest compression per minute

A

100-120 times

Press straight down by 5-6 cm (2-2.5 inches)

60
Q

Gynaecomastia

A

Spironolactone can cause this

61
Q

Tramadol

A
  • fewer typical opioid side effects
  • needs the CD handwriting requirement
  • MR preparation
  • psychiatric reactions reported
  • increase risk of serotonin syndrome if give with serotonergic drugs
  • reduce seizure threshold
62
Q

Anticoagulation Parenteral Bridging

A
  • Apixaban is the only DOAC which needs no parenteral overlap
  • Dabigatran and Edoxaban only licensed for treatment of DVT after initial use if parenteral anticoagulation for at least 5 days
  • Warfarin and acenocoumarol needs parenteral anticoagulation until INR stable
63
Q

What is mesna used for?

A

Chemoprotective agent used to reduce e risk of bladder toxicity associated to chemotherapy eg: cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide

64
Q

What to investigate if patient taking MTX for RA has developed a fever and sore throat

A

FBC

65
Q

Colestyramine (bile acid sequestrants)

A
  • should be administered one hour before or 4-6 hours after this medication
  • can interfere with absorption of fat soluble vitamins
66
Q

Docusate

A

Has stimulant and stool softening properties