Questions from CPaT, EMB 145 Systems Flashcards
Smoke 100 question systems written Test at ground school
[Aircraft General]
The elevator is ___________ operated.
Mechanically
[Aircraft General]
____ hydraulic systems are installed on the aircraft.
Two
[Aircraft General]
The stering handle alone can rotate the nosewheel up to ____ degrees.
71
[Aircraft General]
What is the overall length of the ERJ-145?
98’ 0’’
[Aircraft General]
The electrical system is primarily a _____ system.
DC
[Aircraft General]
What situation will cause the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs in the cabin to automatically illuminate?
Deployment of the cabin oxygen masks.
[Aircraft General]
Can the F/A bypass the cockpit EMER LTS switch and select the emergency lights on?
Yes
[Aircraft General]
Where is the Landing Gear “Freefall Lever” located?
Under a cover in the cockpit floor on the F/O side.
[Aircraft General]
Where are the Display Control Panels (DCPs) located?
Just outboard of the FGC.
[Aircraft General]
Where is the ISIS?
Just left of the EICAS.
[Aircraft General]
Where is the adjustment control for the Rudder Pedals?
It is below the instruments on each pilot’s panel.
[Aircraft General]
What area is just aft of the Overhead Panel?
Circuit Breaker Panel.
[Aircraft General]
How do the pilots know when the main door is closed?
The pilots view the door status on the MFD Takeoff Page and the EICAS.
[Aircraft General]
Can the Overwing Emergency Exit Hatches be removed from the Exterior?
Yes
[Air Management Systems]
How many Enviromental Control Units are installed?
Two
[Air Management Systems]
The temperature control knob is in the AUTO position when it is ___________.
Pressed In
To allow the attendant to control the passenger temperature, the passenger temperature knob should be ____________.
Turned to ATTD
[Air Management Systems]
To control the passenger temperature manually, the passenger temperature knob should be _________.
Pulled Out
[Air Management Systems]
What is the purpose of the Dual Temperature Control Valve?
The Dual Temperature Control Valve determines how much bleed air is allowed to bypass the cooling process.
[Air Management Systems]
Through which of the Heat Exchanges does the bleed air flow through first?
Primary Heat Exchanger
[Air Management Systems]
The air that flows out of the ACM turbine is ___________.
Very Cold
[Air Management Systems]
The Recirculation Fan operates to recirculate air ________________.
From the Cabin
[Air Management Systems]
The conditioned air to the cockpit is mainly provided by the ______ pack.
Left
[Air Management Systems]
What provides the air conditioning to the individual air outlets?
Gasper System
[Air Management Systems]
Which system provides increased airflow throught the air conditioning lines by recirculating the cabin air?
Recirculation Fans
[Air Management Systems]
Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the __________.
EICAS
[Air Management Systems]
What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?
15,000
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?
Both valves; the MANUAL (pneumatic) valve is slaved to the AUTO (electro-pneumatic) valve.
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?
MANUAL (pneumatic) valve only.
[Air Management Systems]
Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the ________.
EICAS
[Air Management Systems]
What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?
15,000
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?
Both valves; the MANUAL valve is slaved to the AUTO valve.
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?
MANUAL valve only.
[Auto Flight System]
Which IC-600 provides the signals for Autopilot operations?
1
[Auto Flight System]
What happens if the TCS button is pressed during autopilot operations?
Autopilot operations are temporarily inhibited.
[Auto Flight System]
Where is the AP engage annunciator?
FMA area.
[Auto Flight System]
How does the pilot know to which Flight Director the AP is coupled?
Arrow in the FMA area.
[Auto Flight System]
What are the basic engagement modes of the Autoflight/Flight Director system?
ROL and PIT
[Auto Flight System]
Which of these two modes provides airspeed protection?
Speed Hold
[Auto Flight System]
What happens if the Heading knob is pressed?
The Heading bug is synchronized to the current heading.
[Auto Flight System]
When a mode is armed, the mode displays on the FMA in ________ color.
White
[Communications Systems]
How many Transmit buttons can be selected ON at the same time?
One
[Communications Systems]
Pressing a Microphone Selector button enables transmission AND reception of radio signals through the respective COM unit.
True. The transmit and reception modes are selected by a microphone button.
[Communications Systems]
When the DAP is in the Emergency mode, the Captain is connected to COM1 and to Nav ____.
NAV1
[Communications Systems]
Where does the pilot tune the desired VHF Comm. frequency?
On the RMU Radio Page.
[Communications Systems]
What is the purpose of the HOT position of the communication switch on the pilot control wheel?
To allow the crew members to cmmunicate without selecting a mic.
[Communications Systems]
Does the RMU have a memory feature for storage of communication frequencies?
Yes
[Communications Systems]
The DFDR records aircraft system and flight parameters for the last ______ hours.
25
[Communications Systems]
The DFDR is powered when the ________ switch is turned ON or the aircraft is in flight.
Red Beacon
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder is powered by Essential DC Bus ___>
2
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder can be erased when the aircraft is on the ground and ________________.
the Parking Brake is Set.
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder is equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon.
Ture.
[Communications Systems]
In order to make a passenger address, the ___________ button on the DAP needs to be pressed.
PAX
What is the difference between pressing CABIN versus CABIN EMER on the ICU?
Nothing. Just a different light that illuminates above the F/A phone.
[Communications Systems]
Where does the pilot enter the assigned Transponder code?
On the RMU Radio page.
[Communications Systems]
What is the Transponder mode you will use for normal operations?
TA/RA
[Electrical System]
The left network of the electrical system includes generators __________.
1 and 3.
[Electrical System]
Normally, the APU generator is connected in parallel with the generators that supply DC BUS ___.
2
[Electrical System]
When operating normally, the APU generator will automatically replace any failed generator.
True
[Electrical System]
The APU Starter Generator button connects (pressed) or disconnects (released) the APU starter generator when the APU RPM is above _______.
95%
[Electrical System]
The SHED BUSES OVRD knob will only function on the ground with at least __________ operating.
One Generator
[Electrical System]
On the MFD, a DC Bus will indicate green when the bus is energized and ______ when the bus is off.
Amber
[Electrical System]
The Ground Service Bus is energized when the ground power unit is plugged in and the GPU AVAIL button has been pressed.
False
[Electrical System]
Ground Power will take priority over _______________.
All other power sources.
[Electrical System]
External Power voltage will be displayed on the ____________.
MFD
[Electrical System]
If External power is connected, but the GPU button is not selected ON, the Ground Service bus is ___________.
Powered
[Electrical System]
Above ________ RPM, the APU starter generator is available to supply electricalpower to the system.
95%
[Electrical System]
During normal operation, the APU generator button should be selected off.
False
[Electrical System]
APU Generator voltage and amperage may be monitored on the ________ Electrical page.
MFD
[Electrical System]
Generator current and voltage may be displayed on the _____.
MFD
[Electrical System]
If a generator fails, a reset of the generator may be attempted twice with a 30 second cooling off period.
False
[Electrical System]
How many engine-driven generators are installed?
Four
[Electrical System]
What type of power is made by the generators?
DC
[Electrical System]
If DC BUS __ is lost, the inverter will become inoperative.
1
[Electrical System]
The AC Power button should remain pressed in at all times.
True
[Electrical System]
When the AC Button is pressed in, a striped bar will illuminate to indicate it is turned on.
False
[Electrical System]
Which power source has the highest priority?
GPU
[Electrical System]
The normal in flight position of the SHED BUSES Selector Knob is ________.
AUTO
[Electrical System]
When on the ground, with at least one generator running, the SHED BUSES may be powered by using the ___________ in the OVRD position.
SHED BUS Selector Knob.
[Fire Protection]
The lavatory is equipped with a smoke detection system only.
False
[Fire Protection]
How many extinguishing bottles are available to fight an engine fire?
Two
[Fire Protection]
The pilots will be provided with an EICAS indication in case the lavatory extinguisher has activated.
False
[Fire Protection]
In case of lavatory smoke detection, a warning message will be displayed on the EICAS.
True
[Fire Protection]
Where is the lavatory smoke detector panel located?
Near the forward galley.
[Fire Protection]
During the Fire System Test, does the APU FIRE message appear on the EICAS?
Yes
[Fire Protection]
During the Fire System Test, the light in the Baggage Fire Extinguishing button illuminates.
True
[Fire Protection]
Where is the button that is used to discharge the Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishers?
Overhead Panel
[Fire Protection]
Which fire bottle instantly fills the baggage compartment with extinguishing agent?
High Discharge Bottle
[Fire Protection]
If the fire system test button is pressed for more than ____ seconds while on the ground, the APU will shut down.
10
[Fire Protection]
If the fire test needs to be repeated, wait ___ seconds before repeating the test.
6
[Fire Protection]
How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the APU?
One
[Fire Protection]
How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the Engines?
Two
[Fire Protection]
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown.
True
[Fire Protection]
What indication will be presented to the pilot in case of a loss of pressure in a fire sensor tube?
FIREDET FAIL
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Ailerons is provided _______________.
by hydraulic pressure.
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Elevators is provided _______________.
by mechannical operation (cable).
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Rudder is provided _______________.
by hydraulic pressure.
[Flight Controls]
Is a Gust Lock system required for the Ailerons or Rudder?
No. Hydraulic damping is available to these systems.
[Flight Controls]
Which of the Spoilers can be opened in flight?
Outboard.
[Flight Controls]
The Flaps are operated _____________.
electrically.
[Flight Controls]
The autopilot servo is connected to the __________ side of the aileron torque tube.
Captain’s
[Flight Controls]
What is the purpose of the Artificial Feel Unit?
To provide the pilot with a simulated feedback of roll forces.
[Flight Controls]
How long can Trim be continuously applied?
3 seconds
[Flight Controls]
What is the purpose of the Quick Disconnect button on the control wheel?
It temporarily inhibits all trim operations.
[Flight Controls]
If only the SYS 1 Aileron Shutoff button is released, will the ailerons still receive hydralic pressure?
Yes, through hydraulic system 2.
[Flight Controls]
The Elevators are operated _______________.
mechanically.
[Flight Controls]
The Auto Servo (pitch) and Stick Pusher are connected to the _________ side of the elevator system.
left
[Flight Controls]
The _______ tab is moved as a result of the pilot forces on the elevator control column, and only operates at high airspeeds.
Spring
[Flight Controls]
Which of the gust lock systems provide locking pins in the elevators?
The new electro-mechanical system.
[Flight Controls]
The trim system will operate at a faster rate at 170 kts. than it will at 240 kts.
True
[Flight Controls]
Where are the trim switches that operate the Backup channel?
On the pedestal.
[Flight Controls]
The autopilot trim input is also subject to the 3 second time limit.
False
[Flight Controls]
The rudder is normally operated ____________.
Hydraulically
[Flight Controls]
Rudder System ___ is normally shut down at airspeeds over 135 KIAS.
1
[Flight Controls]
The rudder _____ operate when both Ruddder Hydraulic systems are off.
Can
[Flight Controls]
The pilot can apply continuous ruder trim for __________ with one application.
3 seconds
[Flight Controls]
The rudder hydraulic operation will automatically shutdown if a pilot is pushing over 130 lbs. of force in a direction opposite of the rudder deflection. Note: This will only occur if both engines are operating and the aircraft is not operating at high airspeeds.
True
[Flight Controls]
The _______ that operate the flaps are ________ operated.
motors; electrically
[Flight Controls]
The EICAS message FLAP LOW SPEED indicates ___________________.
One flap motor has failed.
[Flight Controls]
If the flap velocity sensors detect a difference in flap movement speed, what will happen?
The flaps will stop operating.
[Flight Controls]
What type of electrical power is provided to operate the flap motors?
Non-essential DC Bus.
[Flight Controls]
The EICAS message FLAP FAIL will appear for which of these conditions?
Both Flap Motors Failed.
[Flight Controls]
Flight Control buttons are installed to deselect hydraulic power to the ailerons and ____________.
Rudder
[Flight Controls]
What is the maximum continuous time for trim to operate when the pilot manually activates a trim system?
Three Seconds
[Flight Controls]
Where are the trim position indicators located?
EICAS.
[Flight Controls]
If the aircraft is outside the takeoff trim range and any thrust lever is __________, the trim indicator digits, box and pointer will turn red.
Above 60 degrees
[Flight Controls]
Where are the indications for the Spoilers displayed?
EICAS.
[Fuel System]
What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed valve?
Provides a means to deliver fuel from either tank to both engines and the APU
[Fuel System]
How many Fuel Pumps are installed in each wing tank?
Three
[Fuel System]
In addition to flap valves, which device maintains fuel in the collector bax?
Transfer Ejector Pump
In conjunction with the Vent Tank, the __________ allow air into the fuel tank.
Float Valves
[Fuel System]
With the XFEED knob in the LOW 1 position, the crossfeed valve opens and any selected pump in tank ___ is de-energized.
1
What happens when a selected fuel pump has failed?
The other pumps cycle on/off until the pilot selects an operable pump.
[Fuel System]
Where is the fuel quantity displayed?
Fuel Page of the MFD.
[Fuel System]
What color is the fuel quantity display when the tank quantity is at 800 lbs. (363 kgs)?
Amber
[Hydraulics]
The engine driven pump provides continuous fluid flow at _______ psi for operation of the various hydraulic powered systems.
3000
With the ELEC pump knobs in AUTO, an electric pump will operate if the associated engine _________________.
pump pressure is low.
[Hydraulics]
Which hydraulic system has a priority valve?
System 1
[Hydraulics]
With the SYS 1 ELEC pump switch in AUTO, if the associated engine driven pump pressure drops below 1600 psi or the associated engine N2 drops below ________, the electric driven pump will come online.
56.4%
[Hydraulics]
The status of the electric pumps is shown on the _____________.
MFD - Hydraulic Page
[Hydraulics]
The MFD hydraulic pressure displays boxed in amber for pressure less than ________ or more than 3300 psi.
1300 psi
[Hydraulics]
What is the normal configuration of the Hydraulic control panel for flight operations?
Engine pump buttons released (guarded) and Elec pump knobs in AUTO.
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The critical areas of the aircraft are heated by ____________.
engine bleed air
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The ice protection system is primarily automatic and operates after sensing icing conditions.
True
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The electrically heated areas must be activated manually.
False
[Ice and Rain Protection]
When the pilot selects the OVERRIDE knob to ALL while on the ground when less than 25 kts, only the engine anti-ice is selected ON
True
[Ice and Rain Protection]
In order to test the ice detection indications on the EICAS, the TEST knob should be ________________.
pressed
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The sensor heating buttons are normally left in the ON position.
True
[Ice and Rain Protection]
With the sensor heating buttons in the ON position, heat is automatically applied if ________________.
Either engine is running and N2 is above 56.4%
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The windshield heating system modes of operation are _____ and _____.
Defog heat and anti-ice heat
[Ice and Rain Protection]
An overheat condition is present if the window temperature exceeds ________ degrees C.
65
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The windshield heat system must be turned on __________________________.
prior to beginning the descent phase
[Ice and Rain Protection]
Leading edge Wing Anti-ice is provided by _____________.
Hot air delivered through piccolo tubes.
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The anti-ice system is turned on automatically with the _________ knob in AUTO if any ice detector detects ice. The anti-ice system may be tuned on manually by using the ______________ knob.
OVERRIDE; OVERRIDE
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The LOW Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _________ strokes per minute.
80
[Ice and Rain Protection]
If the wiper knob is selected to the TIMER position, it will provide intermittent operation with 2 strokes of the wiper every 15 seconds.
False (2 strokes of the wiper every 8 seconds)
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The HIGH Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _____ strokes per minute.
140
[Flight Instruments]
The ISIS replaces which instruments?
Stby Horizon, stby Compass, Stby IAS, Stby Altimeter.
[Flight Instruments]
Which of the Standby Instruments is electrically powered and will continue to operate for a limited time after a complete loss of power.
Standby Attitude
[Flight Instruments]
The ISIS is presented in a display similar to the __________.
PFD
[Flight Instruments]
Which RMU button will cause the RMU System Menu to display?
PGE
[Flight Instruments]
What is displayed on the RMU Engine Backup Page?
Engine EICAS information
[Flight Instruments]
What is the purpose of the Turning Backup Control Head?
Provides a backup method to tune COM and NAV radios.
[Flight Instruments]
Which type of radios can be tuned by use of the RMU Radio page?
Comm. and Nav. Radios
[Flight Instruments]
The clock has an internal battery. The purpose of the internal battery is ________________.
To keep the clock active but the display will be blank
[Flight Instruments]
What is the purpose of the FLT NR position of the Multiple Selector?
To display and enter the Flight Number data.
[Flight Instruments]
Can the ET be reset when the aircraft is in flight?
No
[Flight Instruments]
Which instrument provides all primary flight displays that are required for flight?
PFD
[Flight Instruments]
Which component is the heart of the avionics package?
IC 600 Computers
[Flight Instruments]
The _____ knob allows the pilot to select the PFD or EICAS for display on the multi-function display.
MFD
[Flight Instruments]
Regardless of the scrolling of the EICAS messages, which messages always remain displayed at the top of the list?
WARNINGS
[Flight Instruments]
Which of the APU parameters are displayed on the EICAS?
RPM and EGT
[Flight Instruments]
In addition to EICAS, which device also displays engine parameters?
RMU
[Flight Instruments]
The tip of the airspeed trend vector indicates the expected speed in ____ seconds at the current acceleration rate.
10
[Flight Instruments]
The Mach speed displays as the aircraft accelerates through _____ Mach and remains displayed until the Mach speed is reduced below .05 Mach.
.45
[Flight Instruments]
On the attitude display, red pitch chevrons appear at _____ degrees pitch up, and at ______ degrees pitch down.
45 ; 30
[Flight Instruments]
What is displayed if the NAV ARPT Button is pressed?
Airport and NAV Aid graphics.
[Flight Instruments]
Pressing the MAP/PLAN button _________________.
Causes the navigation display to toggle between the MAP and PLAN modes.
[Flight Instruments]
The DOORS display is on which of the System Pages?
Takeoff
[Landing Gear]
How many override procedures are available in case of failure of the normal gear extension?
Two
[Landing Gear]
The landing gear indications are shown on the _________.
EICAS
[Landing Gear]
Which hydraulic system provides the operating pressure for the landing gear?
System 1
[Landing Gear]
The rudder pedals allow the nosewheel to be turned up to ____ degrees.
5 degrees
[Landing Gear]
The steering handle allows for a nosewheel turning angle up to _____ degrees.
71 degrees
[Landing Gear]
Where is the freefall lever “unlock button” located?
On the end of the free fall lever.
[Landing Gear]
The landing gear and gear doors may be extended with an electrical override when the switch is placed in the ______________ position.
GEAR/DOORS
[Landing Gear]
How many proximity switches are installed on the landing gear?
Five
[Landing Gear]
How many methods are available to extend the landing gear?
Three
[Landing Gear]
Landing Gear indications (UP or DN or transit) are displayed on the ______.
EICAS
[Landing Gear]
For wheel speeds under ______ knots, anti-skid protection is deactivated.
10
[Landing Gear]
The brake shutoff valves remain energized after the landing gear is retracted.
False
[Landing Gear]
Brake actuation is permitted only after 3 seconds have elapsed since touchdown or after the wheels spin up to 50 knots.
True
[Landing Gear]
If all Main Gear Air/Ground sensors have failed in the “air” mode, the Normal brakes will operate until the wheel speed is reduced to ___ knots. At that time Normal braking will be lost, and use of the Emergency Brake is required to fully stop.
10
[Landing Gear]
Which hydraulic system provides the pressure for the brake operation on the Outboard wheels?
System 1
[Lighting]
Which of these lights will automatically go out when the landing gear lever is not in the down position?
Nose Gear Landing Lights and Nose Gear Taxi Lights.
[Lighting]
Where are the pilot insturment panel light controls located?
Left and Right side of the glareshield.
[Lighting]
True or False: The Emergency Light button at the Forward Attendant Station can turn on the Emergency Lights even if the Emergency Light switch in the cockpit is in the OFF position.
True
[Navigation Systems]
True or False: The pilot should always follow the commands from the GPWS and EGPWS
True
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these provide the ability to “look ahead” and alert the pilot of terrain problems ahead of the aircraft?
EGPWS
[Navigation Systems]
The GPWS warning “DON’T SINK” is delivered when _______________.
The aircraft descends after takeoff or go-around prior to reaching 1500ft.
[Navigation Systems]
The GPWS/EGPWS “Bank Angle” alert is provided ________________.
When the bank angle is excessive for the conditions.
[Navigation Systems]
The system provides a callout of “MINIMUMS” that is based upon __________________.
The selected Decision Height as displayed on the PFD.
[Navigation Systems]
Where is the normal position of the AH-800 mode selector?
SLVD
[Navigation Systems]
Why would the pilot select the DG mode?
When operatingin areas of unreliable magnetic heading or flux valve failure.
[Navigation Systems]
The bearing pointer for the #1 VOR and #2 ADF is _______ color.
Cyan
[Navigation Systems]
Where do the Marker Beacons display?
On the PFD.
[Navigation Systems]
If the VOR annunciator on the PFD is yellow, the source for the bearing pointer is _________.
From the cross-side
[Navigation Systems]
Which EHSI mode can display the weather radar?
ARC
[Navigation Systems]
What happens if the DH is selected to zero?
The RA display blanks.
[Navigation Systems]
Full TCAS operation requires an operating _________ transponder on all associated aircraft to send and receive the signals.
Mode S
[Navigation Systems]
A TA provided when the TAU of the intruder is less than ________ seconds.
35 to 45
[Navigation Systems]
A “corrective” RA requires ____________.
A vertical maneuver by the crew
[Navigation Systems]
True or False: Aircraft with a Mode C transponder are equipped with TCAS.
False
[Navigation Systems]
If the TA is delivered, the crew is authorized to ___________________________.
No maneuvering is authorized based upon a TCAS Traffic Advisory.
[Navigation Systems]
The pilot must respond with ______ intensity in response to a “reversal” RA.
More
[Navigation Systems]
Which aural message is provided to the crew when the TCAS RA is no longer a threat?
Clear of Conflict
[Navigation Systems]
A “corrective” RA requires ________________________.
A vertical maneuver by the crew.
[Navigation Systems]
During climb, RA’s are inhibited below __________ AGL.
600 ft.
[Navigation Systems]
What is the purpose of the Forced Standby Mode (FSBY)?
To shut off the transmitter on the ground for safety reasons.
[Navigation Systems]
What is required for the wather radar to detect anything?
Moisture must be in the atmoshpere.
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these colors presents the most extreme weather condition?
Magenta
[Navigation Systems]
If the Flaps are not set for takeoff and the Trim is not set in the green band, the takeoff Warning will __________________________.
Deliver a warning for both conditions.
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these items are not monitored a part of the Takeoff Warning system.
Autobrakes
[Oxygen]
Controls and indicators for the passenger oxygen system are located above the _______ mask stowage box.
Copilot’s
[Oxygen]
True or False: Three portable oxygen bottles are installed on the aircraft.
False
[Oxygen]
The passenger oxygen doors open automatically at _______ feet cabin altitude.
14,000
[Oxygen]
Oxygen will flow to the passenger masks for approximately _____ minutes.
12
[Oxygen]
The Passenger Oxygen panel is located above the ___________ oxygen mask stowage box.
First Officer’s
[Oxygen]
Each oxygen mask dispensing unit may be equipped with up to _____ oxygen masks.
Three
[Oxygen]
With the Passenger Oxygen Latches knob in the AUTO position, the passenger masks will automatically drop if the cabin altitude reaches ____________.
14,000 ft.
[Oxygen]
The aircraft is equipped with __________ PBE’s.
Three
[Oxygen]
With a mask in the diluter mode, the system automatically meters the percentage of oxygen up to _________ feet (cabin altitude) where 100% oxygen is discharged.
33,000
The flight crew oxygen is stored in a pressurized cylinder at _______ psi.
1850
[Pneumatic System]
Which systems are operated by pneumatic system pressure?
Ice Protection, Air Conditioning, Pressurization, Engine Starting
[Pneumatic System]
The APU provides pneumatic air to the ______ side of the pneumatic system.
Left
[Pneumatic System]
The MFD ________ displays information about the Bleed Temperatures.
ECS A/I Page
[Pneumatic System]
If the XBLEED knob is in the AUTO position, the Crossbleed Valve automatically opens _________________.
ONLY during engine start.
[Pneumatic System]
When is an engine High Stage Valve (HSV) open?
During low power settings.
[Pneumatic System]
What is the normal position of the Engine Bleed buttons?
On
[Water and Waste]
How is the potable water provided to the wash basin faucet?
It is gravity fed from an overhead potable water tank.
[Water and Waste]
How does the toilet flush?
An electric recirculating motor rinses the bowl with fluid.
[APU]
Inlet air for combustion is drawn into the APU through an opening in the ___________ area of the tailcone.
Upper Right
[APU]
What is the maximum in-flight altitude for use of the APU electric power?
FL370
[APU]
Where are the APU operating conditions displayed in the flight deck?
EICAS
[APU]
In order for the APU to start, the APU bleed valve should be ___________.
Closed
[APU]
____ power is then applied to the starter-generator which will provide rotation to the APU compressor to obtain airflow for combustion.
DC
[APU]
Before you attempt to start the APU, the APU bleed valve should be ________.
Closed
[APU]
What type of electrical power is applied to the APU starter-generator during APU start?
DC
[APU]
How long after APU start is APU Generator power available?
95% plus 7 seconds
[Powerplant]
Bleed air is tapped at the ____ and ____ stage.
9th ; 14th
[Powerplant]
Where are the controls for engine starting?
Overhead Panel
[Powerplant]
Where are the controls selecting engine thrust modes?
Control Stand (pedestal)
[Powerplant]
The Accessory Gearbox is connected to which spool?
N2
[Powerplant]
The Thrust Reversers are operated _______________.
with hydraulic pressure.
[Powerplant]
The engine starters are operated ______________________.
with pneumatic pressure.
[Powerplant]
An impending bypass indication is given on the _______ to alert the crew.
EICAS
[Powerplant]
Oil will first pass to the _______ after passing thru the oil filter.
ACOC
[Powerplant]
Oil leaving the ACOC will pass through the ________.
FCOC
[Powerplant]
Moving the thrust levers to the ____________ detent will allow the FADEC to control the N1 target speeds for the different phases of flight.
THRUST SET
[Powerplant]
A caution message will appear on the EICAS if either Thrust Lever Angle is above _____ degrees before the takeoff data has been entered.
45
[Powerplant]
The fuel flow is displayed on the _______________.
EICAS and Backup Page or RMU
[Powerplant]
What is the purpose of the CVG?
Prevent compressor stalls
[Powerplant]
An EICAS message will alert the flight crew of an impending filter bypass.
Ture
[Powerplant]
The Fuel Shutoff Valve is ___________ controlled.
Electrically
[Powerplant]
If the thrust reverser deploys during flight, the FADEC will automatically _________________.
Select IDLE thrust
[Powerplant]
The deployment of thrust reversers will be deisplayed on the ________.
EICAS
[Powerplant]
The thrust reverser operation is powered by __________________.
Hydraulic Pressure.
[Powerplant]
Can the pilot accidentally deploy the thrust reverser when in flight?
NO. The thrust levers are restricted from selecting Reverse Thrust inflight.
[Powerplant]
What normally powers the FADEC?
Normally the PMA when the engine is operating.
[Powerplant]
What is the only power source for ignition?
PMA
[Powerplant]
Will the FADEC cause the engine to automatically shutdown if hot start is detected?
NO
[Powerplant]
After engine start, the pilot will normally _______________________________________.
Reset the active FADEC and then switch the Alternate to become Active.
[Powerplant]
How many igniters operate for engine start with the Ignition Selector in the AUTO position?
One for Ground Start, Two for Auto-relight.
[Powerplant]
The engine indicators are displayed on the _______.
EICAS
[Powerplant]
When the thrust levers are in the __________ position, the N1 Target Speed will be automatically set.
THRUST SET
[Powerplant]
The FADEC in control will be indicated next to the ____ indication on the EICAS.
N1
[Powerplant]
Which engine parameter is not displayed on the RMU back up page?
Vibration Indicators
[Powerplant]
How does the pilot normally select thrust for Climb after takeoff?
Press the CLB thrust mode selector button.
