Questions from CPaT, EMB 145 Systems Flashcards
Smoke 100 question systems written Test at ground school
1
Q
[Aircraft General]
The elevator is ___________ operated.
A
Mechanically
2
Q
[Aircraft General]
____ hydraulic systems are installed on the aircraft.
A
Two
3
Q
[Aircraft General]
The stering handle alone can rotate the nosewheel up to ____ degrees.
A
71
4
Q
[Aircraft General]
What is the overall length of the ERJ-145?
A
98’ 0’’
5
Q
[Aircraft General]
The electrical system is primarily a _____ system.
A
DC
6
Q
[Aircraft General]
What situation will cause the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs in the cabin to automatically illuminate?
A
Deployment of the cabin oxygen masks.
7
Q
[Aircraft General]
Can the F/A bypass the cockpit EMER LTS switch and select the emergency lights on?
A
Yes
8
Q
[Aircraft General]
Where is the Landing Gear “Freefall Lever” located?
A
Under a cover in the cockpit floor on the F/O side.
9
Q
[Aircraft General]
Where are the Display Control Panels (DCPs) located?
A
Just outboard of the FGC.
10
Q
[Aircraft General]
Where is the ISIS?
A
Just left of the EICAS.
11
Q
[Aircraft General]
Where is the adjustment control for the Rudder Pedals?
A
It is below the instruments on each pilot’s panel.
12
Q
[Aircraft General]
What area is just aft of the Overhead Panel?
A
Circuit Breaker Panel.
13
Q
[Aircraft General]
How do the pilots know when the main door is closed?
A
The pilots view the door status on the MFD Takeoff Page and the EICAS.
14
Q
[Aircraft General]
Can the Overwing Emergency Exit Hatches be removed from the Exterior?
A
Yes
15
Q
[Air Management Systems]
How many Enviromental Control Units are installed?
A
Two
16
Q
[Air Management Systems]
The temperature control knob is in the AUTO position when it is ___________.
A
Pressed In
17
Q
To allow the attendant to control the passenger temperature, the passenger temperature knob should be ____________.
A
Turned to ATTD
18
Q
[Air Management Systems]
To control the passenger temperature manually, the passenger temperature knob should be _________.
A
Pulled Out
19
Q
[Air Management Systems]
What is the purpose of the Dual Temperature Control Valve?
A
The Dual Temperature Control Valve determines how much bleed air is allowed to bypass the cooling process.
20
Q
[Air Management Systems]
Through which of the Heat Exchanges does the bleed air flow through first?
A
Primary Heat Exchanger
21
Q
[Air Management Systems]
The air that flows out of the ACM turbine is ___________.
A
Very Cold
22
Q
[Air Management Systems]
The Recirculation Fan operates to recirculate air ________________.
A
From the Cabin
23
Q
[Air Management Systems]
The conditioned air to the cockpit is mainly provided by the ______ pack.
A
Left
24
Q
[Air Management Systems]
What provides the air conditioning to the individual air outlets?
A
Gasper System
25
[Air Management Systems]
Which system provides increased airflow throught the air conditioning lines by recirculating the cabin air?
Recirculation Fans
26
[Air Management Systems]
Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the __________.
EICAS
27
[Air Management Systems]
What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?
15,000
28
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?
Both valves; the MANUAL (pneumatic) valve is slaved to the AUTO (electro-pneumatic) valve.
29
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?
MANUAL (pneumatic) valve only.
30
[Air Management Systems]
Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the ________.
EICAS
31
[Air Management Systems]
What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?
15,000
32
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?
Both valves; the MANUAL valve is slaved to the AUTO valve.
33
[Air Management Systems]
Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?
MANUAL valve only.
34
[Auto Flight System]
Which IC-600 provides the signals for Autopilot operations?
#1
35
[Auto Flight System]
What happens if the TCS button is pressed during autopilot operations?
Autopilot operations are temporarily inhibited.
36
[Auto Flight System]
Where is the AP engage annunciator?
FMA area.
37
[Auto Flight System]
How does the pilot know to which Flight Director the AP is coupled?
Arrow in the FMA area.
38
[Auto Flight System]
What are the basic engagement modes of the Autoflight/Flight Director system?
ROL and PIT
39
[Auto Flight System]
Which of these two modes provides airspeed protection?
Speed Hold
40
[Auto Flight System]
What happens if the Heading knob is pressed?
The Heading bug is synchronized to the current heading.
41
[Auto Flight System]
When a mode is armed, the mode displays on the FMA in ________ color.
White
42
[Communications Systems]
How many Transmit buttons can be selected ON at the same time?
One
43
[Communications Systems]
Pressing a Microphone Selector button enables transmission AND reception of radio signals through the respective COM unit.
True. The transmit and reception modes are selected by a microphone button.
44
[Communications Systems]
When the DAP is in the Emergency mode, the Captain is connected to COM1 and to Nav ____.
NAV1
45
[Communications Systems]
Where does the pilot tune the desired VHF Comm. frequency?
On the RMU Radio Page.
46
[Communications Systems]
What is the purpose of the HOT position of the communication switch on the pilot control wheel?
To allow the crew members to cmmunicate without selecting a mic.
47
[Communications Systems]
Does the RMU have a memory feature for storage of communication frequencies?
Yes
48
[Communications Systems]
The DFDR records aircraft system and flight parameters for the last ______ hours.
25
49
[Communications Systems]
The DFDR is powered when the ________ switch is turned ON or the aircraft is in flight.
Red Beacon
50
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder is powered by Essential DC Bus ___>
2
51
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder can be erased when the aircraft is on the ground and ________________.
the Parking Brake is Set.
52
[Communications Systems]
The Cockpit Voice Recorder is equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon.
Ture.
53
[Communications Systems]
In order to make a passenger address, the ___________ button on the DAP needs to be pressed.
PAX
54
What is the difference between pressing CABIN versus CABIN EMER on the ICU?
Nothing. Just a different light that illuminates above the F/A phone.
55
[Communications Systems]
Where does the pilot enter the assigned Transponder code?
On the RMU Radio page.
56
[Communications Systems]
What is the Transponder mode you will use for normal operations?
TA/RA
57
[Electrical System]
The left network of the electrical system includes generators __________.
1 and 3.
58
[Electrical System]
Normally, the APU generator is connected in parallel with the generators that supply DC BUS ___.
2
59
[Electrical System]
When operating normally, the APU generator will automatically replace any failed generator.
True
60
[Electrical System]
The APU Starter Generator button connects (pressed) or disconnects (released) the APU starter generator when the APU RPM is above _______.
95%
61
[Electrical System]
The SHED BUSES OVRD knob will only function on the ground with at least __________ operating.
One Generator
62
[Electrical System]
On the MFD, a DC Bus will indicate green when the bus is energized and ______ when the bus is off.
Amber
63
[Electrical System]
The Ground Service Bus is energized when the ground power unit is plugged in and the GPU AVAIL button has been pressed.
False
64
[Electrical System]
Ground Power will take priority over _______________.
All other power sources.
65
[Electrical System]
External Power voltage will be displayed on the ____________.
MFD
66
[Electrical System]
If External power is connected, but the GPU button is not selected ON, the Ground Service bus is ___________.
Powered
67
[Electrical System]
Above ________ RPM, the APU starter generator is available to supply electricalpower to the system.
95%
68
[Electrical System]
During normal operation, the APU generator button should be selected off.
False
69
[Electrical System]
APU Generator voltage and amperage may be monitored on the ________ Electrical page.
MFD
70
[Electrical System]
Generator current and voltage may be displayed on the _____.
MFD
71
[Electrical System]
If a generator fails, a reset of the generator may be attempted twice with a 30 second cooling off period.
False
72
[Electrical System]
How many engine-driven generators are installed?
Four
73
[Electrical System]
What type of power is made by the generators?
DC
74
[Electrical System]
If DC BUS __ is lost, the inverter will become inoperative.
1
75
[Electrical System]
The AC Power button should remain pressed in at all times.
True
76
[Electrical System]
When the AC Button is pressed in, a striped bar will illuminate to indicate it is turned on.
False
77
[Electrical System]
Which power source has the highest priority?
GPU
78
[Electrical System]
The normal in flight position of the SHED BUSES Selector Knob is ________.
AUTO
79
[Electrical System]
When on the ground, with at least one generator running, the SHED BUSES may be powered by using the ___________ in the OVRD position.
SHED BUS Selector Knob.
80
[Fire Protection]
The lavatory is equipped with a smoke detection system only.
False
81
[Fire Protection]
How many extinguishing bottles are available to fight an engine fire?
Two
82
[Fire Protection]
The pilots will be provided with an EICAS indication in case the lavatory extinguisher has activated.
False
83
[Fire Protection]
In case of lavatory smoke detection, a warning message will be displayed on the EICAS.
True
84
[Fire Protection]
Where is the lavatory smoke detector panel located?
Near the forward galley.
85
[Fire Protection]
During the Fire System Test, does the APU FIRE message appear on the EICAS?
Yes
86
[Fire Protection]
During the Fire System Test, the light in the Baggage Fire Extinguishing button illuminates.
True
87
[Fire Protection]
Where is the button that is used to discharge the Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishers?
Overhead Panel
88
[Fire Protection]
Which fire bottle instantly fills the baggage compartment with extinguishing agent?
High Discharge Bottle
89
[Fire Protection]
If the fire system test button is pressed for more than ____ seconds while on the ground, the APU will shut down.
10
90
[Fire Protection]
If the fire test needs to be repeated, wait ___ seconds before repeating the test.
6
91
[Fire Protection]
How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the APU?
One
92
[Fire Protection]
How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the Engines?
Two
93
[Fire Protection]
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown.
True
94
[Fire Protection]
What indication will be presented to the pilot in case of a loss of pressure in a fire sensor tube?
FIREDET FAIL
95
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Ailerons is provided _______________.
by hydraulic pressure.
96
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Elevators is provided _______________.
by mechannical operation (cable).
97
[Flight Controls]
Normal operation of the Rudder is provided _______________.
by hydraulic pressure.
98
[Flight Controls]
Is a Gust Lock system required for the Ailerons or Rudder?
No. Hydraulic damping is available to these systems.
99
[Flight Controls]
Which of the Spoilers can be opened in flight?
Outboard.
100
[Flight Controls]
The Flaps are operated _____________.
electrically.
101
[Flight Controls]
The autopilot servo is connected to the __________ side of the aileron torque tube.
Captain's
102
[Flight Controls]
What is the purpose of the Artificial Feel Unit?
To provide the pilot with a simulated feedback of roll forces.
103
[Flight Controls]
How long can Trim be continuously applied?
3 seconds
104
[Flight Controls]
What is the purpose of the Quick Disconnect button on the control wheel?
It temporarily inhibits all trim operations.
105
[Flight Controls]
If only the SYS 1 Aileron Shutoff button is released, will the ailerons still receive hydralic pressure?
Yes, through hydraulic system 2.
106
[Flight Controls]
The Elevators are operated _______________.
mechanically.
107
[Flight Controls]
The Auto Servo (pitch) and Stick Pusher are connected to the _________ side of the elevator system.
left
108
[Flight Controls]
The _______ tab is moved as a result of the pilot forces on the elevator control column, and only operates at high airspeeds.
Spring
109
[Flight Controls]
Which of the gust lock systems provide locking pins in the elevators?
The new electro-mechanical system.
110
[Flight Controls]
The trim system will operate at a faster rate at 170 kts. than it will at 240 kts.
True
111
[Flight Controls]
Where are the trim switches that operate the Backup channel?
On the pedestal.
112
[Flight Controls]
The autopilot trim input is also subject to the 3 second time limit.
False
113
[Flight Controls]
The rudder is normally operated ____________.
Hydraulically
114
[Flight Controls]
Rudder System ___ is normally shut down at airspeeds over 135 KIAS.
#1
115
[Flight Controls]
The rudder _____ operate when both Ruddder Hydraulic systems are off.
Can
116
[Flight Controls]
The pilot can apply continuous ruder trim for __________ with one application.
3 seconds
117
[Flight Controls]
The rudder hydraulic operation will automatically shutdown if a pilot is pushing over 130 lbs. of force in a direction opposite of the rudder deflection. Note: This will only occur if both engines are operating and the aircraft is not operating at high airspeeds.
True
118
[Flight Controls]
The _______ that operate the flaps are ________ operated.
motors; electrically
119
[Flight Controls]
The EICAS message FLAP LOW SPEED indicates ___________________.
One flap motor has failed.
120
[Flight Controls]
If the flap velocity sensors detect a difference in flap movement speed, what will happen?
The flaps will stop operating.
121
[Flight Controls]
What type of electrical power is provided to operate the flap motors?
Non-essential DC Bus.
122
[Flight Controls]
The EICAS message FLAP FAIL will appear for which of these conditions?
Both Flap Motors Failed.
123
[Flight Controls]
Flight Control buttons are installed to deselect hydraulic power to the ailerons and ____________.
Rudder
124
[Flight Controls]
What is the maximum continuous time for trim to operate when the pilot manually activates a trim system?
Three Seconds
125
[Flight Controls]
Where are the trim position indicators located?
EICAS.
126
[Flight Controls]
If the aircraft is outside the takeoff trim range and any thrust lever is __________, the trim indicator digits, box and pointer will turn red.
Above 60 degrees
127
[Flight Controls]
Where are the indications for the Spoilers displayed?
EICAS.
128
[Fuel System]
What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed valve?
Provides a means to deliver fuel from either tank to both engines and the APU
129
[Fuel System]
How many Fuel Pumps are installed in each wing tank?
Three
130
[Fuel System]
In addition to flap valves, which device maintains fuel in the collector bax?
Transfer Ejector Pump
131
In conjunction with the Vent Tank, the __________ allow air into the fuel tank.
Float Valves
132
[Fuel System]
With the XFEED knob in the LOW 1 position, the crossfeed valve opens and any selected pump in tank ___ is de-energized.
1
133
What happens when a selected fuel pump has failed?
The other pumps cycle on/off until the pilot selects an operable pump.
134
[Fuel System]
Where is the fuel quantity displayed?
Fuel Page of the MFD.
135
[Fuel System]
What color is the fuel quantity display when the tank quantity is at 800 lbs. (363 kgs)?
Amber
136
[Hydraulics]
The engine driven pump provides continuous fluid flow at _______ psi for operation of the various hydraulic powered systems.
3000
137
With the ELEC pump knobs in AUTO, an electric pump will operate if the associated engine _________________.
pump pressure is low.
138
[Hydraulics]
Which hydraulic system has a priority valve?
System 1
139
[Hydraulics]
With the SYS 1 ELEC pump switch in AUTO, if the associated engine driven pump pressure drops below 1600 psi or the associated engine N2 drops below ________, the electric driven pump will come online.
56.4%
140
[Hydraulics]
The status of the electric pumps is shown on the _____________.
MFD - Hydraulic Page
141
[Hydraulics]
The MFD hydraulic pressure displays boxed in amber for pressure less than ________ or more than 3300 psi.
1300 psi
142
[Hydraulics]
What is the normal configuration of the Hydraulic control panel for flight operations?
Engine pump buttons released (guarded) and Elec pump knobs in AUTO.
143
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The critical areas of the aircraft are heated by ____________.
engine bleed air
144
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The ice protection system is primarily automatic and operates after sensing icing conditions.
True
145
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The electrically heated areas must be activated manually.
False
146
[Ice and Rain Protection]
When the pilot selects the OVERRIDE knob to ALL while on the ground when less than 25 kts, only the engine anti-ice is selected ON
True
147
[Ice and Rain Protection]
In order to test the ice detection indications on the EICAS, the TEST knob should be ________________.
pressed
148
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The sensor heating buttons are normally left in the ON position.
True
149
[Ice and Rain Protection]
With the sensor heating buttons in the ON position, heat is automatically applied if ________________.
Either engine is running and N2 is above 56.4%
150
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The windshield heating system modes of operation are _____ and _____.
Defog heat and anti-ice heat
151
[Ice and Rain Protection]
An overheat condition is present if the window temperature exceeds ________ degrees C.
65
152
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The windshield heat system must be turned on __________________________.
prior to beginning the descent phase
153
[Ice and Rain Protection]
Leading edge Wing Anti-ice is provided by _____________.
Hot air delivered through piccolo tubes.
154
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The anti-ice system is turned on automatically with the _________ knob in AUTO if any ice detector detects ice. The anti-ice system may be tuned on manually by using the ______________ knob.
OVERRIDE; OVERRIDE
155
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The LOW Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _________ strokes per minute.
80
156
[Ice and Rain Protection]
If the wiper knob is selected to the TIMER position, it will provide intermittent operation with 2 strokes of the wiper every 15 seconds.
False (2 strokes of the wiper every 8 seconds)
157
[Ice and Rain Protection]
The HIGH Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _____ strokes per minute.
140
158
[Flight Instruments]
The ISIS replaces which instruments?
Stby Horizon, stby Compass, Stby IAS, Stby Altimeter.
159
[Flight Instruments]
Which of the Standby Instruments is electrically powered and will continue to operate for a limited time after a complete loss of power.
Standby Attitude
160
[Flight Instruments]
The ISIS is presented in a display similar to the __________.
PFD
161
[Flight Instruments]
Which RMU button will cause the RMU System Menu to display?
PGE
162
[Flight Instruments]
What is displayed on the RMU Engine Backup Page?
Engine EICAS information
163
[Flight Instruments]
What is the purpose of the Turning Backup Control Head?
Provides a backup method to tune COM and NAV radios.
164
[Flight Instruments]
Which type of radios can be tuned by use of the RMU Radio page?
Comm. and Nav. Radios
165
[Flight Instruments]
The clock has an internal battery. The purpose of the internal battery is ________________.
To keep the clock active but the display will be blank
166
[Flight Instruments]
What is the purpose of the FLT NR position of the Multiple Selector?
To display and enter the Flight Number data.
167
[Flight Instruments]
Can the ET be reset when the aircraft is in flight?
No
168
[Flight Instruments]
Which instrument provides all primary flight displays that are required for flight?
PFD
169
[Flight Instruments]
Which component is the heart of the avionics package?
IC 600 Computers
170
[Flight Instruments]
The _____ knob allows the pilot to select the PFD or EICAS for display on the multi-function display.
MFD
171
[Flight Instruments]
Regardless of the scrolling of the EICAS messages, which messages always remain displayed at the top of the list?
WARNINGS
172
[Flight Instruments]
Which of the APU parameters are displayed on the EICAS?
RPM and EGT
173
[Flight Instruments]
In addition to EICAS, which device also displays engine parameters?
RMU
174
[Flight Instruments]
The tip of the airspeed trend vector indicates the expected speed in ____ seconds at the current acceleration rate.
10
175
[Flight Instruments]
The Mach speed displays as the aircraft accelerates through _____ Mach and remains displayed until the Mach speed is reduced below .05 Mach.
.45
176
[Flight Instruments]
On the attitude display, red pitch chevrons appear at _____ degrees pitch up, and at ______ degrees pitch down.
45 ; 30
177
[Flight Instruments]
What is displayed if the NAV ARPT Button is pressed?
Airport and NAV Aid graphics.
178
[Flight Instruments]
Pressing the MAP/PLAN button _________________.
Causes the navigation display to toggle between the MAP and PLAN modes.
179
[Flight Instruments]
The DOORS display is on which of the System Pages?
Takeoff
180
[Landing Gear]
How many override procedures are available in case of failure of the normal gear extension?
Two
181
[Landing Gear]
The landing gear indications are shown on the _________.
EICAS
182
[Landing Gear]
Which hydraulic system provides the operating pressure for the landing gear?
System 1
183
[Landing Gear]
The rudder pedals allow the nosewheel to be turned up to ____ degrees.
5 degrees
184
[Landing Gear]
The steering handle allows for a nosewheel turning angle up to _____ degrees.
71 degrees
185
[Landing Gear]
Where is the freefall lever "unlock button" located?
On the end of the free fall lever.
186
[Landing Gear]
The landing gear and gear doors may be extended with an electrical override when the switch is placed in the ______________ position.
GEAR/DOORS
187
[Landing Gear]
How many proximity switches are installed on the landing gear?
Five
188
[Landing Gear]
How many methods are available to extend the landing gear?
Three
189
[Landing Gear]
Landing Gear indications (UP or DN or transit) are displayed on the ______.
EICAS
190
[Landing Gear]
For wheel speeds under ______ knots, anti-skid protection is deactivated.
10
191
[Landing Gear]
The brake shutoff valves remain energized after the landing gear is retracted.
False
192
[Landing Gear]
Brake actuation is permitted only after 3 seconds have elapsed since touchdown or after the wheels spin up to 50 knots.
True
193
[Landing Gear]
If all Main Gear Air/Ground sensors have failed in the "air" mode, the Normal brakes will operate until the wheel speed is reduced to ___ knots. At that time Normal braking will be lost, and use of the Emergency Brake is required to fully stop.
10
194
[Landing Gear]
Which hydraulic system provides the pressure for the brake operation on the Outboard wheels?
System 1
195
[Lighting]
Which of these lights will automatically go out when the landing gear lever is not in the down position?
Nose Gear Landing Lights and Nose Gear Taxi Lights.
196
[Lighting]
Where are the pilot insturment panel light controls located?
Left and Right side of the glareshield.
197
[Lighting]
True or False: The Emergency Light button at the Forward Attendant Station can turn on the Emergency Lights even if the Emergency Light switch in the cockpit is in the OFF position.
True
198
[Navigation Systems]
True or False: The pilot should always follow the commands from the GPWS and EGPWS
True
199
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these provide the ability to "look ahead" and alert the pilot of terrain problems ahead of the aircraft?
EGPWS
200
[Navigation Systems]
The GPWS warning "DON'T SINK" is delivered when _______________.
The aircraft descends after takeoff or go-around prior to reaching 1500ft.
201
[Navigation Systems]
The GPWS/EGPWS "Bank Angle" alert is provided ________________.
When the bank angle is excessive for the conditions.
202
[Navigation Systems]
The system provides a callout of "MINIMUMS" that is based upon __________________.
The selected Decision Height as displayed on the PFD.
203
[Navigation Systems]
Where is the normal position of the AH-800 mode selector?
SLVD
204
[Navigation Systems]
Why would the pilot select the DG mode?
When operatingin areas of unreliable magnetic heading or flux valve failure.
205
[Navigation Systems]
The bearing pointer for the #1 VOR and #2 ADF is _______ color.
Cyan
206
[Navigation Systems]
Where do the Marker Beacons display?
On the PFD.
207
[Navigation Systems]
If the VOR annunciator on the PFD is yellow, the source for the bearing pointer is _________.
From the cross-side
208
[Navigation Systems]
Which EHSI mode can display the weather radar?
ARC
209
[Navigation Systems]
What happens if the DH is selected to zero?
The RA display blanks.
210
[Navigation Systems]
Full TCAS operation requires an operating _________ transponder on all associated aircraft to send and receive the signals.
Mode S
211
[Navigation Systems]
A TA provided when the TAU of the intruder is less than ________ seconds.
35 to 45
212
[Navigation Systems]
A "corrective" RA requires ____________.
A vertical maneuver by the crew
213
[Navigation Systems]
True or False: Aircraft with a Mode C transponder are equipped with TCAS.
False
214
[Navigation Systems]
If the TA is delivered, the crew is authorized to ___________________________.
No maneuvering is authorized based upon a TCAS Traffic Advisory.
215
[Navigation Systems]
The pilot must respond with ______ intensity in response to a "reversal" RA.
More
216
[Navigation Systems]
Which aural message is provided to the crew when the TCAS RA is no longer a threat?
Clear of Conflict
217
[Navigation Systems]
A "corrective" RA requires ________________________.
A vertical maneuver by the crew.
218
[Navigation Systems]
During climb, RA's are inhibited below __________ AGL.
600 ft.
219
[Navigation Systems]
What is the purpose of the Forced Standby Mode (FSBY)?
To shut off the transmitter on the ground for safety reasons.
220
[Navigation Systems]
What is required for the wather radar to detect anything?
Moisture must be in the atmoshpere.
221
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these colors presents the most extreme weather condition?
Magenta
222
[Navigation Systems]
If the Flaps are not set for takeoff and the Trim is not set in the green band, the takeoff Warning will __________________________.
Deliver a warning for both conditions.
223
[Navigation Systems]
Which of these items are not monitored a part of the Takeoff Warning system.
Autobrakes
224
[Oxygen]
Controls and indicators for the passenger oxygen system are located above the _______ mask stowage box.
Copilot's
225
[Oxygen]
True or False: Three portable oxygen bottles are installed on the aircraft.
False
226
[Oxygen]
The passenger oxygen doors open automatically at _______ feet cabin altitude.
14,000
227
[Oxygen]
Oxygen will flow to the passenger masks for approximately _____ minutes.
12
228
[Oxygen]
The Passenger Oxygen panel is located above the ___________ oxygen mask stowage box.
First Officer's
229
[Oxygen]
Each oxygen mask dispensing unit may be equipped with up to _____ oxygen masks.
Three
230
[Oxygen]
With the Passenger Oxygen Latches knob in the AUTO position, the passenger masks will automatically drop if the cabin altitude reaches ____________.
14,000 ft.
231
[Oxygen]
The aircraft is equipped with __________ PBE's.
Three
232
[Oxygen]
With a mask in the diluter mode, the system automatically meters the percentage of oxygen up to _________ feet (cabin altitude) where 100% oxygen is discharged.
33,000
233
The flight crew oxygen is stored in a pressurized cylinder at _______ psi.
1850
234
[Pneumatic System]
Which systems are operated by pneumatic system pressure?
Ice Protection, Air Conditioning, Pressurization, Engine Starting
235
[Pneumatic System]
The APU provides pneumatic air to the ______ side of the pneumatic system.
Left
236
[Pneumatic System]
The MFD ________ displays information about the Bleed Temperatures.
ECS A/I Page
237
[Pneumatic System]
If the XBLEED knob is in the AUTO position, the Crossbleed Valve automatically opens _________________.
ONLY during engine start.
238
[Pneumatic System]
When is an engine High Stage Valve (HSV) open?
During low power settings.
239
[Pneumatic System]
What is the normal position of the Engine Bleed buttons?
On
240
[Water and Waste]
How is the potable water provided to the wash basin faucet?
It is gravity fed from an overhead potable water tank.
241
[Water and Waste]
How does the toilet flush?
An electric recirculating motor rinses the bowl with fluid.
242
[APU]
Inlet air for combustion is drawn into the APU through an opening in the ___________ area of the tailcone.
Upper Right
243
[APU]
What is the maximum in-flight altitude for use of the APU electric power?
FL370
244
[APU]
Where are the APU operating conditions displayed in the flight deck?
EICAS
245
[APU]
In order for the APU to start, the APU bleed valve should be ___________.
Closed
246
[APU]
____ power is then applied to the starter-generator which will provide rotation to the APU compressor to obtain airflow for combustion.
DC
247
[APU]
Before you attempt to start the APU, the APU bleed valve should be ________.
Closed
248
[APU]
What type of electrical power is applied to the APU starter-generator during APU start?
DC
249
[APU]
How long after APU start is APU Generator power available?
95% plus 7 seconds
250
[Powerplant]
Bleed air is tapped at the ____ and ____ stage.
9th ; 14th
251
[Powerplant]
Where are the controls for engine starting?
Overhead Panel
252
[Powerplant]
Where are the controls selecting engine thrust modes?
Control Stand (pedestal)
253
[Powerplant]
The Accessory Gearbox is connected to which spool?
N2
254
[Powerplant]
The Thrust Reversers are operated _______________.
with hydraulic pressure.
255
[Powerplant]
The engine starters are operated ______________________.
with pneumatic pressure.
256
[Powerplant]
An impending bypass indication is given on the _______ to alert the crew.
EICAS
257
[Powerplant]
Oil will first pass to the _______ after passing thru the oil filter.
ACOC
258
[Powerplant]
Oil leaving the ACOC will pass through the ________.
FCOC
259
[Powerplant]
Moving the thrust levers to the ____________ detent will allow the FADEC to control the N1 target speeds for the different phases of flight.
THRUST SET
260
[Powerplant]
A caution message will appear on the EICAS if either Thrust Lever Angle is above _____ degrees before the takeoff data has been entered.
45
261
[Powerplant]
The fuel flow is displayed on the _______________.
EICAS and Backup Page or RMU
262
[Powerplant]
What is the purpose of the CVG?
Prevent compressor stalls
263
[Powerplant]
An EICAS message will alert the flight crew of an impending filter bypass.
Ture
264
[Powerplant]
The Fuel Shutoff Valve is ___________ controlled.
Electrically
265
[Powerplant]
If the thrust reverser deploys during flight, the FADEC will automatically _________________.
Select IDLE thrust
266
[Powerplant]
The deployment of thrust reversers will be deisplayed on the ________.
EICAS
267
[Powerplant]
The thrust reverser operation is powered by __________________.
Hydraulic Pressure.
268
[Powerplant]
Can the pilot accidentally deploy the thrust reverser when in flight?
NO. The thrust levers are restricted from selecting Reverse Thrust inflight.
269
[Powerplant]
What normally powers the FADEC?
Normally the PMA when the engine is operating.
270
[Powerplant]
What is the only power source for ignition?
PMA
271
[Powerplant]
Will the FADEC cause the engine to automatically shutdown if hot start is detected?
NO
272
[Powerplant]
After engine start, the pilot will normally _______________________________________.
Reset the active FADEC and then switch the Alternate to become Active.
273
[Powerplant]
How many igniters operate for engine start with the Ignition Selector in the AUTO position?
One for Ground Start, Two for Auto-relight.
274
[Powerplant]
The engine indicators are displayed on the _______.
EICAS
275
[Powerplant]
When the thrust levers are in the __________ position, the N1 Target Speed will be automatically set.
THRUST SET
276
[Powerplant]
The FADEC in control will be indicated next to the ____ indication on the EICAS.
N1
277
[Powerplant]
Which engine parameter is not displayed on the RMU back up page?
Vibration Indicators
278
[Powerplant]
How does the pilot normally select thrust for Climb after takeoff?
Press the CLB thrust mode selector button.
