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EMB 145 Systems (from CPaT Questions) > Questions from CPaT, EMB 145 Systems > Flashcards

Questions from CPaT, EMB 145 Systems Flashcards

Smoke 100 question systems written Test at ground school

1
Q

[Aircraft General]

The elevator is ___________ operated.

A

Mechanically

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2
Q

[Aircraft General]

____ hydraulic systems are installed on the aircraft.

A

Two

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3
Q

[Aircraft General]

The stering handle alone can rotate the nosewheel up to ____ degrees.

A

71

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4
Q

[Aircraft General]

What is the overall length of the ERJ-145?

A

98’ 0’’

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5
Q

[Aircraft General]

The electrical system is primarily a _____ system.

A

DC

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6
Q

[Aircraft General]

What situation will cause the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs in the cabin to automatically illuminate?

A

Deployment of the cabin oxygen masks.

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7
Q

[Aircraft General]

Can the F/A bypass the cockpit EMER LTS switch and select the emergency lights on?

A

Yes

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8
Q

[Aircraft General]

Where is the Landing Gear “Freefall Lever” located?

A

Under a cover in the cockpit floor on the F/O side.

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9
Q

[Aircraft General]

Where are the Display Control Panels (DCPs) located?

A

Just outboard of the FGC.

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10
Q

[Aircraft General]

Where is the ISIS?

A

Just left of the EICAS.

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11
Q

[Aircraft General]

Where is the adjustment control for the Rudder Pedals?

A

It is below the instruments on each pilot’s panel.

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12
Q

[Aircraft General]

What area is just aft of the Overhead Panel?

A

Circuit Breaker Panel.

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13
Q

[Aircraft General]

How do the pilots know when the main door is closed?

A

The pilots view the door status on the MFD Takeoff Page and the EICAS.

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14
Q

[Aircraft General]

Can the Overwing Emergency Exit Hatches be removed from the Exterior?

A

Yes

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15
Q

[Air Management Systems]

How many Enviromental Control Units are installed?

A

Two

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16
Q

[Air Management Systems]

The temperature control knob is in the AUTO position when it is ___________.

A

Pressed In

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17
Q

To allow the attendant to control the passenger temperature, the passenger temperature knob should be ____________.

A

Turned to ATTD

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18
Q

[Air Management Systems]

To control the passenger temperature manually, the passenger temperature knob should be _________.

A

Pulled Out

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19
Q

[Air Management Systems]

What is the purpose of the Dual Temperature Control Valve?

A

The Dual Temperature Control Valve determines how much bleed air is allowed to bypass the cooling process.

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20
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Through which of the Heat Exchanges does the bleed air flow through first?

A

Primary Heat Exchanger

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21
Q

[Air Management Systems]

The air that flows out of the ACM turbine is ___________.

A

Very Cold

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22
Q

[Air Management Systems]

The Recirculation Fan operates to recirculate air ________________.

A

From the Cabin

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23
Q

[Air Management Systems]

The conditioned air to the cockpit is mainly provided by the ______ pack.

A

Left

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24
Q

[Air Management Systems]

What provides the air conditioning to the individual air outlets?

A

Gasper System

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25
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Which system provides increased airflow throught the air conditioning lines by recirculating the cabin air?

A

Recirculation Fans

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26
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the __________.

A

EICAS

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27
Q

[Air Management Systems]

What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?

A

15,000

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28
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?

A

Both valves; the MANUAL (pneumatic) valve is slaved to the AUTO (electro-pneumatic) valve.

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29
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?

A

MANUAL (pneumatic) valve only.

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30
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin altitude rate of change indications are displayed on the ________.

A

EICAS

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31
Q

[Air Management Systems]

What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?

A

15,000

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32
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the AUTO mode?

A

Both valves; the MANUAL valve is slaved to the AUTO valve.

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33
Q

[Air Management Systems]

Which Outflow Valve(s) are controlled when the system is operating in the MANUAL mode?

A

MANUAL valve only.

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34
Q

[Auto Flight System]

Which IC-600 provides the signals for Autopilot operations?

A

1

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35
Q

[Auto Flight System]

What happens if the TCS button is pressed during autopilot operations?

A

Autopilot operations are temporarily inhibited.

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36
Q

[Auto Flight System]

Where is the AP engage annunciator?

A

FMA area.

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37
Q

[Auto Flight System]

How does the pilot know to which Flight Director the AP is coupled?

A

Arrow in the FMA area.

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38
Q

[Auto Flight System]

What are the basic engagement modes of the Autoflight/Flight Director system?

A

ROL and PIT

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39
Q

[Auto Flight System]

Which of these two modes provides airspeed protection?

A

Speed Hold

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40
Q

[Auto Flight System]

What happens if the Heading knob is pressed?

A

The Heading bug is synchronized to the current heading.

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41
Q

[Auto Flight System]

When a mode is armed, the mode displays on the FMA in ________ color.

A

White

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42
Q

[Communications Systems]

How many Transmit buttons can be selected ON at the same time?

A

One

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43
Q

[Communications Systems]

Pressing a Microphone Selector button enables transmission AND reception of radio signals through the respective COM unit.

A

True. The transmit and reception modes are selected by a microphone button.

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44
Q

[Communications Systems]

When the DAP is in the Emergency mode, the Captain is connected to COM1 and to Nav ____.

A

NAV1

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45
Q

[Communications Systems]

Where does the pilot tune the desired VHF Comm. frequency?

A

On the RMU Radio Page.

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46
Q

[Communications Systems]

What is the purpose of the HOT position of the communication switch on the pilot control wheel?

A

To allow the crew members to cmmunicate without selecting a mic.

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47
Q

[Communications Systems]

Does the RMU have a memory feature for storage of communication frequencies?

A

Yes

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48
Q

[Communications Systems]

The DFDR records aircraft system and flight parameters for the last ______ hours.

A

25

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49
Q

[Communications Systems]

The DFDR is powered when the ________ switch is turned ON or the aircraft is in flight.

A

Red Beacon

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50
Q

[Communications Systems]

The Cockpit Voice Recorder is powered by Essential DC Bus ___>

A

2

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51
Q

[Communications Systems]

The Cockpit Voice Recorder can be erased when the aircraft is on the ground and ________________.

A

the Parking Brake is Set.

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52
Q

[Communications Systems]

The Cockpit Voice Recorder is equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon.

A

Ture.

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53
Q

[Communications Systems]

In order to make a passenger address, the ___________ button on the DAP needs to be pressed.

A

PAX

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54
Q

What is the difference between pressing CABIN versus CABIN EMER on the ICU?

A

Nothing. Just a different light that illuminates above the F/A phone.

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55
Q

[Communications Systems]

Where does the pilot enter the assigned Transponder code?

A

On the RMU Radio page.

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56
Q

[Communications Systems]

What is the Transponder mode you will use for normal operations?

A

TA/RA

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57
Q

[Electrical System]

The left network of the electrical system includes generators __________.

A

1 and 3.

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58
Q

[Electrical System]

Normally, the APU generator is connected in parallel with the generators that supply DC BUS ___.

A

2

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59
Q

[Electrical System]

When operating normally, the APU generator will automatically replace any failed generator.

A

True

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60
Q

[Electrical System]

The APU Starter Generator button connects (pressed) or disconnects (released) the APU starter generator when the APU RPM is above _______.

A

95%

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61
Q

[Electrical System]

The SHED BUSES OVRD knob will only function on the ground with at least __________ operating.

A

One Generator

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62
Q

[Electrical System]

On the MFD, a DC Bus will indicate green when the bus is energized and ______ when the bus is off.

A

Amber

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63
Q

[Electrical System]

The Ground Service Bus is energized when the ground power unit is plugged in and the GPU AVAIL button has been pressed.

A

False

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64
Q

[Electrical System]

Ground Power will take priority over _______________.

A

All other power sources.

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65
Q

[Electrical System]

External Power voltage will be displayed on the ____________.

A

MFD

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66
Q

[Electrical System]

If External power is connected, but the GPU button is not selected ON, the Ground Service bus is ___________.

A

Powered

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67
Q

[Electrical System]

Above ________ RPM, the APU starter generator is available to supply electricalpower to the system.

A

95%

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68
Q

[Electrical System]

During normal operation, the APU generator button should be selected off.

A

False

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69
Q

[Electrical System]

APU Generator voltage and amperage may be monitored on the ________ Electrical page.

A

MFD

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70
Q

[Electrical System]

Generator current and voltage may be displayed on the _____.

A

MFD

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71
Q

[Electrical System]

If a generator fails, a reset of the generator may be attempted twice with a 30 second cooling off period.

A

False

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72
Q

[Electrical System]

How many engine-driven generators are installed?

A

Four

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73
Q

[Electrical System]

What type of power is made by the generators?

A

DC

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74
Q

[Electrical System]

If DC BUS __ is lost, the inverter will become inoperative.

A

1

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75
Q

[Electrical System]

The AC Power button should remain pressed in at all times.

A

True

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76
Q

[Electrical System]

When the AC Button is pressed in, a striped bar will illuminate to indicate it is turned on.

A

False

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77
Q

[Electrical System]

Which power source has the highest priority?

A

GPU

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78
Q

[Electrical System]

The normal in flight position of the SHED BUSES Selector Knob is ________.

A

AUTO

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79
Q

[Electrical System]

When on the ground, with at least one generator running, the SHED BUSES may be powered by using the ___________ in the OVRD position.

A

SHED BUS Selector Knob.

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80
Q

[Fire Protection]

The lavatory is equipped with a smoke detection system only.

A

False

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81
Q

[Fire Protection]

How many extinguishing bottles are available to fight an engine fire?

A

Two

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82
Q

[Fire Protection]

The pilots will be provided with an EICAS indication in case the lavatory extinguisher has activated.

A

False

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83
Q

[Fire Protection]

In case of lavatory smoke detection, a warning message will be displayed on the EICAS.

A

True

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84
Q

[Fire Protection]

Where is the lavatory smoke detector panel located?

A

Near the forward galley.

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85
Q

[Fire Protection]

During the Fire System Test, does the APU FIRE message appear on the EICAS?

A

Yes

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86
Q

[Fire Protection]

During the Fire System Test, the light in the Baggage Fire Extinguishing button illuminates.

A

True

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87
Q

[Fire Protection]

Where is the button that is used to discharge the Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishers?

A

Overhead Panel

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88
Q

[Fire Protection]

Which fire bottle instantly fills the baggage compartment with extinguishing agent?

A

High Discharge Bottle

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89
Q

[Fire Protection]

If the fire system test button is pressed for more than ____ seconds while on the ground, the APU will shut down.

A

10

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90
Q

[Fire Protection]

If the fire test needs to be repeated, wait ___ seconds before repeating the test.

A

6

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91
Q

[Fire Protection]

How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the APU?

A

One

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92
Q

[Fire Protection]

How many bottle(s) of fire extinguishing agent is available for the Engines?

A

Two

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93
Q

[Fire Protection]

If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown.

A

True

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94
Q

[Fire Protection]

What indication will be presented to the pilot in case of a loss of pressure in a fire sensor tube?

A

FIREDET FAIL

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95
Q

[Flight Controls]

Normal operation of the Ailerons is provided _______________.

A

by hydraulic pressure.

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96
Q

[Flight Controls]

Normal operation of the Elevators is provided _______________.

A

by mechannical operation (cable).

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97
Q

[Flight Controls]

Normal operation of the Rudder is provided _______________.

A

by hydraulic pressure.

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98
Q

[Flight Controls]

Is a Gust Lock system required for the Ailerons or Rudder?

A

No. Hydraulic damping is available to these systems.

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99
Q

[Flight Controls]

Which of the Spoilers can be opened in flight?

A

Outboard.

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100
Q

[Flight Controls]

The Flaps are operated _____________.

A

electrically.

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101
Q

[Flight Controls]

The autopilot servo is connected to the __________ side of the aileron torque tube.

A

Captain’s

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102
Q

[Flight Controls]

What is the purpose of the Artificial Feel Unit?

A

To provide the pilot with a simulated feedback of roll forces.

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103
Q

[Flight Controls]

How long can Trim be continuously applied?

A

3 seconds

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104
Q

[Flight Controls]

What is the purpose of the Quick Disconnect button on the control wheel?

A

It temporarily inhibits all trim operations.

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105
Q

[Flight Controls]

If only the SYS 1 Aileron Shutoff button is released, will the ailerons still receive hydralic pressure?

A

Yes, through hydraulic system 2.

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106
Q

[Flight Controls]

The Elevators are operated _______________.

A

mechanically.

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107
Q

[Flight Controls]

The Auto Servo (pitch) and Stick Pusher are connected to the _________ side of the elevator system.

A

left

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108
Q

[Flight Controls]

The _______ tab is moved as a result of the pilot forces on the elevator control column, and only operates at high airspeeds.

A

Spring

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109
Q

[Flight Controls]

Which of the gust lock systems provide locking pins in the elevators?

A

The new electro-mechanical system.

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110
Q

[Flight Controls]

The trim system will operate at a faster rate at 170 kts. than it will at 240 kts.

A

True

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111
Q

[Flight Controls]

Where are the trim switches that operate the Backup channel?

A

On the pedestal.

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112
Q

[Flight Controls]

The autopilot trim input is also subject to the 3 second time limit.

A

False

113
Q

[Flight Controls]

The rudder is normally operated ____________.

A

Hydraulically

114
Q

[Flight Controls]

Rudder System ___ is normally shut down at airspeeds over 135 KIAS.

A

1

115
Q

[Flight Controls]

The rudder _____ operate when both Ruddder Hydraulic systems are off.

A

Can

116
Q

[Flight Controls]

The pilot can apply continuous ruder trim for __________ with one application.

A

3 seconds

117
Q

[Flight Controls]

The rudder hydraulic operation will automatically shutdown if a pilot is pushing over 130 lbs. of force in a direction opposite of the rudder deflection. Note: This will only occur if both engines are operating and the aircraft is not operating at high airspeeds.

A

True

118
Q

[Flight Controls]

The _______ that operate the flaps are ________ operated.

A

motors; electrically

119
Q

[Flight Controls]

The EICAS message FLAP LOW SPEED indicates ___________________.

A

One flap motor has failed.

120
Q

[Flight Controls]

If the flap velocity sensors detect a difference in flap movement speed, what will happen?

A

The flaps will stop operating.

121
Q

[Flight Controls]

What type of electrical power is provided to operate the flap motors?

A

Non-essential DC Bus.

122
Q

[Flight Controls]

The EICAS message FLAP FAIL will appear for which of these conditions?

A

Both Flap Motors Failed.

123
Q

[Flight Controls]

Flight Control buttons are installed to deselect hydraulic power to the ailerons and ____________.

A

Rudder

124
Q

[Flight Controls]

What is the maximum continuous time for trim to operate when the pilot manually activates a trim system?

A

Three Seconds

125
Q

[Flight Controls]

Where are the trim position indicators located?

A

EICAS.

126
Q

[Flight Controls]

If the aircraft is outside the takeoff trim range and any thrust lever is __________, the trim indicator digits, box and pointer will turn red.

A

Above 60 degrees

127
Q

[Flight Controls]

Where are the indications for the Spoilers displayed?

A

EICAS.

128
Q

[Fuel System]

What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed valve?

A

Provides a means to deliver fuel from either tank to both engines and the APU

129
Q

[Fuel System]

How many Fuel Pumps are installed in each wing tank?

A

Three

130
Q

[Fuel System]

In addition to flap valves, which device maintains fuel in the collector bax?

A

Transfer Ejector Pump

131
Q

In conjunction with the Vent Tank, the __________ allow air into the fuel tank.

A

Float Valves

132
Q

[Fuel System]

With the XFEED knob in the LOW 1 position, the crossfeed valve opens and any selected pump in tank ___ is de-energized.

A

1

133
Q

What happens when a selected fuel pump has failed?

A

The other pumps cycle on/off until the pilot selects an operable pump.

134
Q

[Fuel System]

Where is the fuel quantity displayed?

A

Fuel Page of the MFD.

135
Q

[Fuel System]

What color is the fuel quantity display when the tank quantity is at 800 lbs. (363 kgs)?

A

Amber

136
Q

[Hydraulics]

The engine driven pump provides continuous fluid flow at _______ psi for operation of the various hydraulic powered systems.

A

3000

137
Q

With the ELEC pump knobs in AUTO, an electric pump will operate if the associated engine _________________.

A

pump pressure is low.

138
Q

[Hydraulics]

Which hydraulic system has a priority valve?

A

System 1

139
Q

[Hydraulics]

With the SYS 1 ELEC pump switch in AUTO, if the associated engine driven pump pressure drops below 1600 psi or the associated engine N2 drops below ________, the electric driven pump will come online.

A

56.4%

140
Q

[Hydraulics]

The status of the electric pumps is shown on the _____________.

A

MFD - Hydraulic Page

141
Q

[Hydraulics]

The MFD hydraulic pressure displays boxed in amber for pressure less than ________ or more than 3300 psi.

A

1300 psi

142
Q

[Hydraulics]

What is the normal configuration of the Hydraulic control panel for flight operations?

A

Engine pump buttons released (guarded) and Elec pump knobs in AUTO.

143
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The critical areas of the aircraft are heated by ____________.

A

engine bleed air

144
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The ice protection system is primarily automatic and operates after sensing icing conditions.

A

True

145
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The electrically heated areas must be activated manually.

A

False

146
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

When the pilot selects the OVERRIDE knob to ALL while on the ground when less than 25 kts, only the engine anti-ice is selected ON

A

True

147
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

In order to test the ice detection indications on the EICAS, the TEST knob should be ________________.

A

pressed

148
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The sensor heating buttons are normally left in the ON position.

A

True

149
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

With the sensor heating buttons in the ON position, heat is automatically applied if ________________.

A

Either engine is running and N2 is above 56.4%

150
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The windshield heating system modes of operation are _____ and _____.

A

Defog heat and anti-ice heat

151
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

An overheat condition is present if the window temperature exceeds ________ degrees C.

A

65

152
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The windshield heat system must be turned on __________________________.

A

prior to beginning the descent phase

153
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

Leading edge Wing Anti-ice is provided by _____________.

A

Hot air delivered through piccolo tubes.

154
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The anti-ice system is turned on automatically with the _________ knob in AUTO if any ice detector detects ice. The anti-ice system may be tuned on manually by using the ______________ knob.

A

OVERRIDE; OVERRIDE

155
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The LOW Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _________ strokes per minute.

A

80

156
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

If the wiper knob is selected to the TIMER position, it will provide intermittent operation with 2 strokes of the wiper every 15 seconds.

A

False (2 strokes of the wiper every 8 seconds)

157
Q

[Ice and Rain Protection]

The HIGH Position will cause the wipers to operate at approximately _____ strokes per minute.

A

140

158
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The ISIS replaces which instruments?

A

Stby Horizon, stby Compass, Stby IAS, Stby Altimeter.

159
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which of the Standby Instruments is electrically powered and will continue to operate for a limited time after a complete loss of power.

A

Standby Attitude

160
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The ISIS is presented in a display similar to the __________.

A

PFD

161
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which RMU button will cause the RMU System Menu to display?

A

PGE

162
Q

[Flight Instruments]

What is displayed on the RMU Engine Backup Page?

A

Engine EICAS information

163
Q

[Flight Instruments]

What is the purpose of the Turning Backup Control Head?

A

Provides a backup method to tune COM and NAV radios.

164
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which type of radios can be tuned by use of the RMU Radio page?

A

Comm. and Nav. Radios

165
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The clock has an internal battery. The purpose of the internal battery is ________________.

A

To keep the clock active but the display will be blank

166
Q

[Flight Instruments]

What is the purpose of the FLT NR position of the Multiple Selector?

A

To display and enter the Flight Number data.

167
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Can the ET be reset when the aircraft is in flight?

A

No

168
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which instrument provides all primary flight displays that are required for flight?

A

PFD

169
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which component is the heart of the avionics package?

A

IC 600 Computers

170
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The _____ knob allows the pilot to select the PFD or EICAS for display on the multi-function display.

A

MFD

171
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Regardless of the scrolling of the EICAS messages, which messages always remain displayed at the top of the list?

A

WARNINGS

172
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Which of the APU parameters are displayed on the EICAS?

A

RPM and EGT

173
Q

[Flight Instruments]

In addition to EICAS, which device also displays engine parameters?

A

RMU

174
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The tip of the airspeed trend vector indicates the expected speed in ____ seconds at the current acceleration rate.

A

10

175
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The Mach speed displays as the aircraft accelerates through _____ Mach and remains displayed until the Mach speed is reduced below .05 Mach.

A

.45

176
Q

[Flight Instruments]

On the attitude display, red pitch chevrons appear at _____ degrees pitch up, and at ______ degrees pitch down.

A

45 ; 30

177
Q

[Flight Instruments]

What is displayed if the NAV ARPT Button is pressed?

A

Airport and NAV Aid graphics.

178
Q

[Flight Instruments]

Pressing the MAP/PLAN button _________________.

A

Causes the navigation display to toggle between the MAP and PLAN modes.

179
Q

[Flight Instruments]

The DOORS display is on which of the System Pages?

A

Takeoff

180
Q

[Landing Gear]

How many override procedures are available in case of failure of the normal gear extension?

A

Two

181
Q

[Landing Gear]

The landing gear indications are shown on the _________.

A

EICAS

182
Q

[Landing Gear]

Which hydraulic system provides the operating pressure for the landing gear?

A

System 1

183
Q

[Landing Gear]

The rudder pedals allow the nosewheel to be turned up to ____ degrees.

A

5 degrees

184
Q

[Landing Gear]

The steering handle allows for a nosewheel turning angle up to _____ degrees.

A

71 degrees

185
Q

[Landing Gear]

Where is the freefall lever “unlock button” located?

A

On the end of the free fall lever.

186
Q

[Landing Gear]

The landing gear and gear doors may be extended with an electrical override when the switch is placed in the ______________ position.

A

GEAR/DOORS

187
Q

[Landing Gear]

How many proximity switches are installed on the landing gear?

A

Five

188
Q

[Landing Gear]

How many methods are available to extend the landing gear?

A

Three

189
Q

[Landing Gear]

Landing Gear indications (UP or DN or transit) are displayed on the ______.

A

EICAS

190
Q

[Landing Gear]

For wheel speeds under ______ knots, anti-skid protection is deactivated.

A

10

191
Q

[Landing Gear]

The brake shutoff valves remain energized after the landing gear is retracted.

A

False

192
Q

[Landing Gear]

Brake actuation is permitted only after 3 seconds have elapsed since touchdown or after the wheels spin up to 50 knots.

A

True

193
Q

[Landing Gear]

If all Main Gear Air/Ground sensors have failed in the “air” mode, the Normal brakes will operate until the wheel speed is reduced to ___ knots. At that time Normal braking will be lost, and use of the Emergency Brake is required to fully stop.

A

10

194
Q

[Landing Gear]

Which hydraulic system provides the pressure for the brake operation on the Outboard wheels?

A

System 1

195
Q

[Lighting]

Which of these lights will automatically go out when the landing gear lever is not in the down position?

A

Nose Gear Landing Lights and Nose Gear Taxi Lights.

196
Q

[Lighting]

Where are the pilot insturment panel light controls located?

A

Left and Right side of the glareshield.

197
Q

[Lighting]

True or False: The Emergency Light button at the Forward Attendant Station can turn on the Emergency Lights even if the Emergency Light switch in the cockpit is in the OFF position.

A

True

198
Q

[Navigation Systems]

True or False: The pilot should always follow the commands from the GPWS and EGPWS

A

True

199
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Which of these provide the ability to “look ahead” and alert the pilot of terrain problems ahead of the aircraft?

A

EGPWS

200
Q

[Navigation Systems]

The GPWS warning “DON’T SINK” is delivered when _______________.

A

The aircraft descends after takeoff or go-around prior to reaching 1500ft.

201
Q

[Navigation Systems]

The GPWS/EGPWS “Bank Angle” alert is provided ________________.

A

When the bank angle is excessive for the conditions.

202
Q

[Navigation Systems]

The system provides a callout of “MINIMUMS” that is based upon __________________.

A

The selected Decision Height as displayed on the PFD.

203
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Where is the normal position of the AH-800 mode selector?

A

SLVD

204
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Why would the pilot select the DG mode?

A

When operatingin areas of unreliable magnetic heading or flux valve failure.

205
Q

[Navigation Systems]

The bearing pointer for the #1 VOR and #2 ADF is _______ color.

A

Cyan

206
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Where do the Marker Beacons display?

A

On the PFD.

207
Q

[Navigation Systems]

If the VOR annunciator on the PFD is yellow, the source for the bearing pointer is _________.

A

From the cross-side

208
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Which EHSI mode can display the weather radar?

A

ARC

209
Q

[Navigation Systems]

What happens if the DH is selected to zero?

A

The RA display blanks.

210
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Full TCAS operation requires an operating _________ transponder on all associated aircraft to send and receive the signals.

A

Mode S

211
Q

[Navigation Systems]

A TA provided when the TAU of the intruder is less than ________ seconds.

A

35 to 45

212
Q

[Navigation Systems]

A “corrective” RA requires ____________.

A

A vertical maneuver by the crew

213
Q

[Navigation Systems]

True or False: Aircraft with a Mode C transponder are equipped with TCAS.

A

False

214
Q

[Navigation Systems]

If the TA is delivered, the crew is authorized to ___________________________.

A

No maneuvering is authorized based upon a TCAS Traffic Advisory.

215
Q

[Navigation Systems]

The pilot must respond with ______ intensity in response to a “reversal” RA.

A

More

216
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Which aural message is provided to the crew when the TCAS RA is no longer a threat?

A

Clear of Conflict

217
Q

[Navigation Systems]

A “corrective” RA requires ________________________.

A

A vertical maneuver by the crew.

218
Q

[Navigation Systems]

During climb, RA’s are inhibited below __________ AGL.

A

600 ft.

219
Q

[Navigation Systems]

What is the purpose of the Forced Standby Mode (FSBY)?

A

To shut off the transmitter on the ground for safety reasons.

220
Q

[Navigation Systems]

What is required for the wather radar to detect anything?

A

Moisture must be in the atmoshpere.

221
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Which of these colors presents the most extreme weather condition?

A

Magenta

222
Q

[Navigation Systems]

If the Flaps are not set for takeoff and the Trim is not set in the green band, the takeoff Warning will __________________________.

A

Deliver a warning for both conditions.

223
Q

[Navigation Systems]

Which of these items are not monitored a part of the Takeoff Warning system.

A

Autobrakes

224
Q

[Oxygen]

Controls and indicators for the passenger oxygen system are located above the _______ mask stowage box.

A

Copilot’s

225
Q

[Oxygen]

True or False: Three portable oxygen bottles are installed on the aircraft.

A

False

226
Q

[Oxygen]

The passenger oxygen doors open automatically at _______ feet cabin altitude.

A

14,000

227
Q

[Oxygen]

Oxygen will flow to the passenger masks for approximately _____ minutes.

A

12

228
Q

[Oxygen]

The Passenger Oxygen panel is located above the ___________ oxygen mask stowage box.

A

First Officer’s

229
Q

[Oxygen]

Each oxygen mask dispensing unit may be equipped with up to _____ oxygen masks.

A

Three

230
Q

[Oxygen]

With the Passenger Oxygen Latches knob in the AUTO position, the passenger masks will automatically drop if the cabin altitude reaches ____________.

A

14,000 ft.

231
Q

[Oxygen]

The aircraft is equipped with __________ PBE’s.

A

Three

232
Q

[Oxygen]

With a mask in the diluter mode, the system automatically meters the percentage of oxygen up to _________ feet (cabin altitude) where 100% oxygen is discharged.

A

33,000

233
Q

The flight crew oxygen is stored in a pressurized cylinder at _______ psi.

A

1850

234
Q

[Pneumatic System]

Which systems are operated by pneumatic system pressure?

A

Ice Protection, Air Conditioning, Pressurization, Engine Starting

235
Q

[Pneumatic System]

The APU provides pneumatic air to the ______ side of the pneumatic system.

A

Left

236
Q

[Pneumatic System]

The MFD ________ displays information about the Bleed Temperatures.

A

ECS A/I Page

237
Q

[Pneumatic System]

If the XBLEED knob is in the AUTO position, the Crossbleed Valve automatically opens _________________.

A

ONLY during engine start.

238
Q

[Pneumatic System]

When is an engine High Stage Valve (HSV) open?

A

During low power settings.

239
Q

[Pneumatic System]

What is the normal position of the Engine Bleed buttons?

A

On

240
Q

[Water and Waste]

How is the potable water provided to the wash basin faucet?

A

It is gravity fed from an overhead potable water tank.

241
Q

[Water and Waste]

How does the toilet flush?

A

An electric recirculating motor rinses the bowl with fluid.

242
Q

[APU]

Inlet air for combustion is drawn into the APU through an opening in the ___________ area of the tailcone.

A

Upper Right

243
Q

[APU]

What is the maximum in-flight altitude for use of the APU electric power?

A

FL370

244
Q

[APU]

Where are the APU operating conditions displayed in the flight deck?

A

EICAS

245
Q

[APU]

In order for the APU to start, the APU bleed valve should be ___________.

A

Closed

246
Q

[APU]

____ power is then applied to the starter-generator which will provide rotation to the APU compressor to obtain airflow for combustion.

A

DC

247
Q

[APU]

Before you attempt to start the APU, the APU bleed valve should be ________.

A

Closed

248
Q

[APU]

What type of electrical power is applied to the APU starter-generator during APU start?

A

DC

249
Q

[APU]

How long after APU start is APU Generator power available?

A

95% plus 7 seconds

250
Q

[Powerplant]

Bleed air is tapped at the ____ and ____ stage.

A

9th ; 14th

251
Q

[Powerplant]

Where are the controls for engine starting?

A

Overhead Panel

252
Q

[Powerplant]

Where are the controls selecting engine thrust modes?

A

Control Stand (pedestal)

253
Q

[Powerplant]

The Accessory Gearbox is connected to which spool?

A

N2

254
Q

[Powerplant]

The Thrust Reversers are operated _______________.

A

with hydraulic pressure.

255
Q

[Powerplant]

The engine starters are operated ______________________.

A

with pneumatic pressure.

256
Q

[Powerplant]

An impending bypass indication is given on the _______ to alert the crew.

A

EICAS

257
Q

[Powerplant]

Oil will first pass to the _______ after passing thru the oil filter.

A

ACOC

258
Q

[Powerplant]

Oil leaving the ACOC will pass through the ________.

A

FCOC

259
Q

[Powerplant]

Moving the thrust levers to the ____________ detent will allow the FADEC to control the N1 target speeds for the different phases of flight.

A

THRUST SET

260
Q

[Powerplant]

A caution message will appear on the EICAS if either Thrust Lever Angle is above _____ degrees before the takeoff data has been entered.

A

45

261
Q

[Powerplant]

The fuel flow is displayed on the _______________.

A

EICAS and Backup Page or RMU

262
Q

[Powerplant]

What is the purpose of the CVG?

A

Prevent compressor stalls

263
Q

[Powerplant]

An EICAS message will alert the flight crew of an impending filter bypass.

A

Ture

264
Q

[Powerplant]

The Fuel Shutoff Valve is ___________ controlled.

A

Electrically

265
Q

[Powerplant]

If the thrust reverser deploys during flight, the FADEC will automatically _________________.

A

Select IDLE thrust

266
Q

[Powerplant]

The deployment of thrust reversers will be deisplayed on the ________.

A

EICAS

267
Q

[Powerplant]

The thrust reverser operation is powered by __________________.

A

Hydraulic Pressure.

268
Q

[Powerplant]

Can the pilot accidentally deploy the thrust reverser when in flight?

A

NO. The thrust levers are restricted from selecting Reverse Thrust inflight.

269
Q

[Powerplant]

What normally powers the FADEC?

A

Normally the PMA when the engine is operating.

270
Q

[Powerplant]

What is the only power source for ignition?

A

PMA

271
Q

[Powerplant]

Will the FADEC cause the engine to automatically shutdown if hot start is detected?

A

NO

272
Q

[Powerplant]

After engine start, the pilot will normally _______________________________________.

A

Reset the active FADEC and then switch the Alternate to become Active.

273
Q

[Powerplant]

How many igniters operate for engine start with the Ignition Selector in the AUTO position?

A

One for Ground Start, Two for Auto-relight.

274
Q

[Powerplant]

The engine indicators are displayed on the _______.

A

EICAS

275
Q

[Powerplant]

When the thrust levers are in the __________ position, the N1 Target Speed will be automatically set.

A

THRUST SET

276
Q

[Powerplant]

The FADEC in control will be indicated next to the ____ indication on the EICAS.

A

N1

277
Q

[Powerplant]

Which engine parameter is not displayed on the RMU back up page?

A

Vibration Indicators

278
Q

[Powerplant]

How does the pilot normally select thrust for Climb after takeoff?

A

Press the CLB thrust mode selector button.

EMB 145 Systems (from CPaT Questions) (2 decks)

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