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EMB 145 Systems (from CPaT Questions) > EMB 145 Systems QGT Test Review > Flashcards

EMB 145 Systems QGT Test Review Flashcards

Pass the QGT

1
Q

When does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) power on?

A

When aircraft powre is established

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2
Q

How long does the CVR record for?

A

A 2 hour loop

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3
Q

How many generators does the aircraft have?

A

5 (2 per engine and 1 for the APU)

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4
Q

What is the difference between the APU and engine generator?

A

The APU generator is a starter generator

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5
Q

What kind of generators are on the engines?

A

28 VDC, 400 Amp generators

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6
Q

When would you press the generator buttons?

A

To check the actual battery voltage and whenever the QRH mentions to do so

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7
Q

When does the APU come online?

A

7 seconds after reaching 95% RPM

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8
Q

When are the Shed Busses powered?

A
  • 3 or mor generators online
  • 1 generator online with the shed bus switch in override
  • whenever the GPU is powering the aircraft
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9
Q

If the AC button is pressed in, what does that do?

A

Turn off the AC bus

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10
Q

How many batteries do we have on the aircraft? (For Power)

A

3 (2 NiCad 24V, 44 amp hour batteries and a 24V, 5 amp hour lead acid back-up battery)

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11
Q

What does the back-up battery power?

A

The back-up bus

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12
Q

What happens if the back-up battery button is pushed in?

A

It prevents the back-up battery from receiving a charge

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13
Q

What does the back-up battery power?

A

The EDL and GCU’s

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14
Q

What controls the electrical system?

A
  • The EDL (electrical distribution logic)

- 2 channel computer that controls the entire electrical system, load shedding, load sharing and fault protection.

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15
Q

How many batteries in the EMER light and how long will they provide power for?

A

4 batteries and power provided for approx 15 mins

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16
Q

When does the emergency light charge?

A

Only when in the armed position

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17
Q

What tank does the APU draw fuel from?

A

From the #2 tank / right tank

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18
Q

How can you tell if you have a fuel pump failure?

A

The other 2 fuel pumps wil start cycling on and off (you will hear the relay) and will do so until one of the other pumps is selected

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19
Q

Can fuel be x-fed from tank to tank?

A

No, tank to engine only

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20
Q

How is the x-feed selector placed?

A

Turn the x-feed selector to the low side tank (Right low? right tank)

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21
Q

What happens when the Red Fire Ext Handle is pulled ?

A

(HALF) is shut off

  • Hydraulic Pump Valve
  • Air Bleed Valve
  • Lip Engine Anti-Ice Valve
  • Fuel Pump Valve
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22
Q

What happens when the fire handle is rotated?

A

The fire extinguishing agent is released into that engine compartment

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23
Q

How many fire bottles are there for the engines?

A

2 bottles for both engines (Yes you can use both bottles on 1 engine) you have to wiat 30 secs between each fire bottle application

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24
Q

How many fire bottles for the APU?

A

1

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25
Q

Can you use the APU fire bottle for the engines or vice versa?

A

No

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26
Q

Fire Protection Test Process (1 3 4 5) Timing for test button

A

Press and hold the fire test button for no less than 2 secs and no more than 10 secs. 1 fire bell, 3 red lights (2 fire handles and 1 bagg smoke), 4 master waning and cautions (2 and 2), and 5 EICAS messages (Warnings - ENG 1/2 Fire, APU Fire, Bagg Smoke and Cautions - ENG 1/2 Fire DET FAIL and APU Fire DET FAIL)

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27
Q

What is a positive indication of a bagg compartment fire?

A

The actual EICAS message (Just seeing the WARN light on the Bagg EXT Button means that the fan in the Bagg compartment has stopped working)

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28
Q

How many fire ext bottles in the bagg compartment?

A

2 (one high rate metering bottle and one low rate metering which meter for 50 mins)

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29
Q

APU Fire (Memory Item)

A

APU Fuel Shutoff Valve - Push In (Then refer to the QR)

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30
Q

Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA) powers the igniters above ____ and the FADECS above ____?

A

10%, 50%

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31
Q

What is an indication of FADEC failure?

A

No ignition (you will not see IGN on the EICAS during the start cycle)

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32
Q

What is an indication of FADEC failure?

A

No ingition (you will not see IGN on the EICAS during the start cycle)

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33
Q

What happens if you hold the Start /Stop selector for more than 3 secs?

A

It interrupts the start cycle and you have to reset a FADEC

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34
Q

The Temp on the T/O data has to be within how many degrees?

A

Within 10 degrees and verified on the EICAS page in Cyan

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35
Q

What is the Electric Hydraulic Pump pressure? Engine Hydraulic Pump?

A

Electric - 2900 PSI

Engine - 3000 PSI

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36
Q

What do the accumulators on Hydraulic Systems 1 and 2 provide pressure for?

A

System 1 - Landing Gear

System 2 - Parking Brake (6 cycles or 24 hours)

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37
Q

What is the function of the Priority Valve?

A

It prioritizes the flight control over landing gear retraction in the event of an engine #1 failure

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38
Q

Icing Protection Panel Power? How is it heated?

A
  • (Top Row) ENG AIR INLET, WING, STAB are DC Powered and Heated Pneumatically
  • (Bottom Row) Windshield 1 DC, Windshield 2 Shed Bus, Pitot 1 and 2 DC, Pitot 3 ESS and Heated Electrically
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39
Q

Air Conditioning/Pneumatic Panel Power?

A
  • Recirc - Shed Bus
  • Gasper and Packs 1 and 2 - DC Bus
  • Bleed 1 and 2 and APU Bleed - ESS
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40
Q

In what position are the temp control knobs on the Air Conditioning/Pneumatic Panel in the manual position?

A

Pulled out

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41
Q

When does the Flight Attendant have control of the temp knob?

A

When the Co-Pilot puts the knob in the ATTD position and pushed in

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42
Q

What is ECU?

A

Environmental Control Unit also called Pack

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43
Q

What valve allows hot air to bypass the cooling process and provide warm ari into the cabin?

A

Dual Temp Control Valve

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44
Q

When does the sterile light come on?

A

Sterile light comes on during the after start flow and back on during the descent checklist descending through 10,000 ft

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45
Q

When can the wipers be used?

A

Below 170 KIAS

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46
Q

How many Compass Deviation Cards are there? Loccation?

A

2 Cards, one above the magnetic compass and one above the Captain side Digital Audio Panel (DAP)

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47
Q

Use of Flight Level Change (FLC)?

A 
In a climb, use speed mode:
- 240 KIAS until 10,000 ft
- 10,000-12,000 ft - 240-270 KIAS
- Above 12,000 ft - 270 KIAS/Mach .56
In a descent, use rate FPM:
- FL370-12,000 ft - 2000 FPM
- 12,000-10,000 ft - 2,000-1,000 FPM
- Below 10,000 ft - 1,000 FMP
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48
Q

At what height can the Auto Pilot be engaged after T/O?

A

500 ft

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49
Q

Auto Pilot off by?

A

200 ft. AGL

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50
Q

Descent below MDA on a non-precision approach with auto pilot engaged is?

A

Prohibited

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51
Q

Yaw Damper must be off for?

A

Landing

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52
Q

What button will you press to level off at your current altitude?

A

ALT

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53
Q

Approach mode selection during localizer capture is allowed only when the aircraft is?

A

Inbound

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54
Q

Aircraft Low Bank Angle / Normal Bank Angle?

A

Low - 14 degrees

Normal - 27 degrees

55
Q

What does pressing EMER on the DAP do?

A

It hardwires you to your side comm (Co-Pilot Comm2/Nav2)

56
Q

The Capt side clock is connected to what?

A

CVR and FDR

57
Q

Can we change the PFD in reversionary mode?

A

No, a PFD is only a PFD

58
Q

If you see a big red X on your PFD, what may have happened?

A

You may have lost your symbol Generator, AHRS or the ADC

59
Q

If you press ADC on your side reversionary panel, what can you expect?

A

You will receive info from the cross side ADC and will see an ADC 1 or 2 amber inscription on your respective side PFD

60
Q

When will you see an amber IAS inscription on your PFD?

A

When there is a difference of more than 5 kts in airspeed for more than 2 seconds

61
Q

What are the Piedmont Limits on oil quantity and where can you find these quantities?

A

8 quarts before starting and 7 quarts after starting. You can find this info on the MFD T/O page

62
Q

Where will you find the Oxygen Bottle Pressure?

A

MFD ECS/AI page

63
Q

Where will you find Hyd Fluid info?

A

MFD Hyd Page

64
Q

Where will you find brake temp info?

A

MFD Hyd Page

65
Q

What is the brake temp limitation?

A

In the green

66
Q

How many generators total on the aircraft and info?

A

Total of 5, 28V, 400 Amp generators (two per engine and one for the APU)

67
Q

What is the difference between the Engine and APU generators?

A

The APU generator is a starter generator

68
Q

Trim Test Process

A

Press the trim switches on the yoke in each direction for 4 secs and verify that it stops at 3 secs. (Aural Alert on the pitch trim test)

69
Q

What components run off of the Accessory Gearbox (HEAPOF)?

A
  • Hydraulic pump
  • Electric generators
  • Air Turbine Starter (ATS)
  • Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA)
  • Oil pump
  • Fuel pump
70
Q

What does the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control Sstem (ATTCS) do?

A

Automatically brings the operating engine to max thrust in the event that 1 engine fails

71
Q

What does the PMA power at what % N2?

A
  • The igniters at 10% N2 (shows on the EICAS at 14%)
  • Fuel at 28% N2
  • Generators at 56.4% N2
72
Q

ITT Limit during engine start?

A

800 degrees

73
Q

Max CONT ITT Limit?

A

901 degrees (climb and cruise)

74
Q

What parameters is the T/O CONFIG test checking for?

A
  • Flap setting
  • Park Brake setting
  • Spoiler settting
  • Trim setting
75
Q

How are the flaps powered and how many motors do they have?

A

Flaps are powered electrically and have 2 motors (one per side)?

76
Q

The velocity sensor on the flaps check for?

A
  • Speed of flap movement
  • Flap Motor Failure
  • Asymmetrical Flap Condition
77
Q

What are the Primary Flight Controls?

A

Rudder, Ailerons and Elevator

78
Q

How is the Rudder System controlled?

A
  • It is hydraulically actuated

- The aft rudder is slaved to the forward rudder vie a mechanical linkage

79
Q

What is the Power Control Unit (PCU)?

A

The PCU is the rudder hydraulic actuator. Both PCU’s are operational under 135 kias. Above 135 kias, system 1 PCU shuts down as part of over boost protection

80
Q

As part of Rudder Hard Over Protection, when will the system automatically shut off?

A
  • Rudder deflected above 5 degrees +/- 1
  • Force above 130 lbs on the rudder pedal to counteract rudder deflection
  • Both engines running above 56.4% N2
81
Q

What is the positive indication that the parking brake is set?

A

Light by the gear lever

82
Q

Stall Protection System/Icing is available for what flap settings?

A

9 and 22 degrees

83
Q

What are the three ways to engage the Emergency Landing Gear Backup?

A
  • Main Gear Handle
  • Electrical Override Switch
  • Free Fall Handle
84
Q

What is the aircraft engine modle number?

A

AE3007A1

85
Q

Relative to pressurization, in the Auto Mode, what outflow valves are working?

A

Both outflow valves are working

86
Q

When will you hear the Aural Cabin alert “Cabin”?

A

When the aircraft cabin altitude has reached 10,000 ft

87
Q

What is the APU used for?

A
  • For engine starts
  • Packs (Air Conditioning)
  • Pressurization
88
Q

Where would you confirm Auto Pilot mode selections?

A

On the FMA

89
Q

When the Auto Pilot is engaged, does the Yaw Damper automatically activate?

A

Yes

90
Q

After APU start, when is it available?

A

7 seconds after the APU RPM reaches 95% (Must wait 3 mins after APU start to apply pneumatics)

91
Q

Which battery supplies power to the APU for starting?

A

The #2 battery

92
Q

When will the ground spoilers deploy?

A

When the aircraft is on the ground, the main landing gear wheels running above 25 kts and both engine thrust lever angles set below 30 degrees or both engines N2 below 56.4%

93
Q

How many spoilers deploy on the ground? How many in the air?

A

On the ground - 4

In the air - 2

94
Q

What is the turning radius with the tiller? With the rudder? Total?

A
  • Tiller 71 degrees
  • Rudder 5 degrees
  • Total 76 degrees
95
Q

On what screen will you find the fuel tank temp?

A

MFD Fuel Page

96
Q

How are the passenger oxygen masks deployed?

A
  • In the manual mode using the Latches selector on the Pass Oxygen Panel
  • With the oxygen masks deploy tool
  • Automatically when cabin pressure is above 14,000 ft
97
Q

Where is aircraft pressurization info found?

A

The EICAS

98
Q

What is AHRS and what data does it provide?

A

Attitude Heading Reference System and it provides attitude and heading data

99
Q

What is an ADC and what data does it provide?

A

Air Data Computer and it provides airspeed, altitude and vertial speed data

100
Q

In the event that you lose Symbol Generator #1, what info will you lose and where?

A

You will lose all info presented on PFD#1, MFD#1 and the EICAS

101
Q

If the AHRS button on either reversionary panel is pressed, what infor is presented?

A

Cross side attitude and heading info

102
Q

Is Ice Protection normally selected automatically during Icing?

A

Yes

103
Q

With the aircraft on the ground and the Ice Detection Override Selector in the All position, what indication will you get?

A
  • Engine Air Inlet

- Above 25 kts you will also ge the wing and stab to come on

104
Q

How is the Air Turbine Starter run?

A

It is connected to the accessory gearbox via the tower shaft and run by the N2 section

105
Q

During Engine start on the ground with the ignition selector in the Auto position, how many igniters operate?

A

One

106
Q

Where would you find thrust reverser info and what colors would be displayed?

A

On the EICAS and you will see amber when thrust reversers are in transit and green when they are depoyed

107
Q

When will you call “thrust reversers out”?

A

During an abnormal situation with the reversers

108
Q

How are the thrust reversers actuated?

A

Hydraulically actuated

109
Q

What is the function of the Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler (FCOC)?

A

Warms up the fuel and cools down the oil

110
Q

What will happen if we select the Start/Stop Selector to Stop during engine shutdown and the thrust levers are not in idle?

A

The engine will not shutdown

111
Q

What happens if we have a Dual FADEC failure?

A

We will experience an engine failure

112
Q

What is the function of the Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG)?

A

It helps prevent compressor stall

113
Q

Which bus is the AC Bus connected to?

A

DC Bus

114
Q

Is EDL the same in the air as on the ground?

A

No

115
Q

Does APU bleed have a higher priority than the engine bleed?

A

No, Engine bleed has priority over APU bleed

116
Q

What has the highest electrical priority?

A

GPU

117
Q

How do you cross side tune the RMU?

A

1/2 button

118
Q

How can you tell when the direct vision window is properly closed?

A

You will not be able to see the inscription nor the yellow tab

119
Q

Is the cargo bay pressurized?

A

Yes

120
Q

What is a positive indication that the main door is open?

A

EICAS message “MAIN DOOR OPN” either on the ground with the #1 engine running or in flight

121
Q

How is the backup trim powered?

A

Essential power

122
Q

How is the trim on the yoke powered?

A

DC bus

123
Q

What must happen for the stick pusher to activate?

A

2 channels must agree

124
Q

When either TOGA button is pressed the aircraft will pitch up ____ degrees for ____ seconds and then will hold ______

A

10, 20, 170, kias (you will also see ROL GA on the FMA of your PFD)

125
Q

What things are powered off of the ground service bus?

A

Interior Lighting

126
Q

What are the aircraft vibration limits?

A

You can expect it to be in the amber for 5 mins during T/O and Go-Around but 10 secs any other time. Otherwise in the green

127
Q

What is the aircrat turning radius?

A

70 ft

128
Q

What is the location of the courtesy light and why is it important to be shut off?

A

Above the FA’s seat. It will drain the batteries since it runs off the ground service bus

129
Q

Why does the spinner have an offset?

A

Offset to throw ice off

130
Q

Locked wheel protection will __________ at wheel speed above _________ if one wheel is _______ slower than the fastest wheelspeed.

A

activate, 30 kts, 30% (Remember 30, 30)

131
Q

Anti-Skid protection becomes active above ______ if one of the four wheel transducer’s signal falls below the wheel speed average.

A

10 kts (It uses 4 wheel speed transducers to measure the speed average. If one signal falls below the Anti-Skid kicks in)

132
Q

Touchdown protection inhibits brake actuation before the main wheel spins up during landing and braking action will be allowed _______ after the latest touchdown or after the wheels have spun-up to _____.

A

3 secs, 50 kts

133
Q

How is the elevator controlled?

A

Mechanically via cables and pulleys

EMB 145 Systems (from CPaT Questions) (2 decks)

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