questions for mars exams Flashcards

1
Q

what are Type I epithelial cell (pneumocyte)

A

large flat cells form most of the lining of the alveolus.

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2
Q

List the three most common cranial mediastinal tumours in the dog.

A

Thymoma
Lymphoma/lymphosarcoma
ectopic thyroid neoplasia

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3
Q

what are Type II epithelial cell (pneumocyte)

A

These small rounded alveolar lining cells occupy only a small proportion of the alveolar wall, and are responsible for secretion of surfactant, which prevents alveolar collapse. NB important in pathogenesis of primary atelectasis. These cells also respond rapidly by proliferating if Type I cells are damaged.

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4
Q

what are Clara cell

A

These non-ciliated cells are present in the lining of the terminal bronchioles, and become most numerous in the distal bronchiole. They produce a component of surfactant and contain enzymes which can detoxify noxious substances. They also can act as stem cells, dividing and replacing other cells when damaged.

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5
Q

what is Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO)

A

also known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchiolitis-emphysema complex or “broken wind”. This common disease of horses and ponies is characterised by repeated bouts of dyspnoea, cough, poor athletic performance, airway neutrophilia and mucus hypersecretion. It is an asthma-like condition involving hypersensitivity to inhaled allergens (e.g. fungal spores) and chronic mild irritation of the mucosa by dust.

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6
Q

which drug should be used regarding vasodilation in HF?

A

ACE inhibitors → vasodilating

pimobendan → inhibition of phosphodiesterase = increase cAMP

amlodipine → Ca+ channel inhibitor ⇒ reduce vascular tone

hydralazine → arteriodilators

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7
Q

what is the function of propionate?

A

propionate can be metabolised into many amino acids in the body, but not the essential ones
Ruminants derive most of their glucose from metabolism of propionate in hepatocytes.
The main way in which a ruminant maintains the level of CAC intermediates in tissues is through the use of glucose, which we have established is manufactured from propionate in the liver. Amino acids (either dietary or from muscle protein) can also perform this function.

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8
Q

what has poor copper been associated with in cattle?

A

Copper deficiency in cattle has been associated with poor thrift / poor weight gain, and diarrhoea

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9
Q

what has poor selenium and vit E

A

Selenium/Vit E deficiency has been associated with poor thrift in cattle

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10
Q

in which animal was cobalt associated poor thrift with?

A

Cobalt deficiency is associated with poor thrift but almost invariably in lambs.

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11
Q

what should be the milk fat % of cows?

A

milk fat should be 4.2%.

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12
Q

How to have a lot of fat in the milk?

A

if the concentrate / forage ratio is superior than 60 / 40 → fat will drop significantly.

⇒ need A LOT OF FIBRES TO HAVE A LOT OF FAT.
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13
Q

what could be a reason of low bulk milk fat?

A

low bulk milk fat could indicate you have sub acute rumen acidosis (SARA).

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14
Q

how much milk proteins should we have?

A

milk protein should be 3.4%.

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15
Q

which pathogens can be transmitted through bite wounds?

A

pasteurella multicida, capnocytphaga canimorsus, pasteurella canis.

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16
Q

which pathogens can be transmitted through cat scratch?

A

Bartonella species

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17
Q

which pathogens can be transmitted through urine?

A

leptospirosis

18
Q

which pathogens can be multi drug resistant?

A

MRSA, MRSP, E. coli.

19
Q

which pathogens do reptiles transmit the most?

A

salmonella

20
Q

which pathogen can be food born and also transmitted differently ?

A

campylobacter

21
Q

What is illegal to feed pigs?

A

Domestic kitchen waste if the family only cooks vegetarian
This is banned. It should be noted that food waste is the most likely factor to spread African Swine Fever, which has now moved from Eastern Europe to Belgium. African Swine Fever has also been found in meat products in the UK! Even feed from vegan kitchens must not be fed.
Kitchen waste from a local canteen
This is banned, even if the canteen only handles vegan food

The following are permitted:

Silage or total mixed ration from a neighbouring dairy farm
This is permitted, as there is no health risk
Milk from a dairy on the same holding
This is permitted. If milk is obtained from a different holding it has to be processed subject to a DEFRA inspection. However, the feeding of waste milk during antibiotic withdrawal period should be avoided.
Vegetable waste from a wholesaler who does not handle animal products
This is permitted as there is no health risk

22
Q

what are the anthelmintic to use?

A

levamisol, ivermectin, macrocyclic lactones, spiroindoles, benzimidazole

23
Q

what are the flukicides?

A

albendazole, closantel, oxyclozanide.

24
Q

What classes of antibiotics that are licensed for veterinary use should we be protecting according the World Health Organisation (WHO) that are classified as Highest Priority Critically Important Antimicrobials (HP-CIA)?

A

aminoglycosides, macrolides and ketolides, tetracyclines and third and fourth generation cephalosporins

25
Q

signs of actinobacillus infection in pigs?

A

areas of haemorrhage/necrosis on the dorsal surface of the caudal lung lobes. Approximately half the plucks have a degree of pleuritis

26
Q

signs of Haemophilus parasuis in pigs?

A

degree of polyserositis

27
Q

signs of Mycoplasma hyopneuomia infections in pigs?

A

cranio ventral consolidation

28
Q

signs of Porcine Respiratory and Reproductive Syndrome Virus infection in pigs?

A

interlobular oedema and not restricted to cranioventral fields.

29
Q

which breathing system will we use for a a dog of less than 10kg, more than 15kg? between 10 and 20kg

A

T piece = less than 10kg.
circle = more than 15kg
Magill, Standard Parallel lack = between 10 and 20kg

30
Q

How to estimate the minute volume of a dog?

A

either 200ml/kg/h
or calculate the tidal volume * the resp rate

31
Q

when is cyanosis detected

A

when haemoglobin is saturated at 70-75%

32
Q

how is azotaemia defined?

A

bloodo urea > 10mmol/L and creatinine >200 mmol/L

33
Q

What are the advantages of using sevoflurane instead of isoflurane for a box induction in a cat?

A

Sevoflurane has a lower blood: gas solubility than isoflurane, therefore its speed of onset is quicker, resulting in a faster induction.

It is also less irritant to the respiratory tract than isoflurane, so may cause less breath holding during induction and less secretions.

34
Q

Which opioid should NEVER be given intravenously?

A

Pethidine intravenous administration can cause histamine release and anaphylactic reactions and for that reason it is recommended to be administered intramuscularly. In people neurological effects such as seizures and tremors have been reported.

35
Q

why do we need to withhold food and water before cattle anaesthesia?

A

If food and water are withheld for too little time then the bulk and fluidity of the rumenal contents could be problematic for regurgitation and also contribute to hypoxaemia due to the weight of these contents pressing on the lungs. Moreover, if the rumen is still relatively full the fermentative processes will not be slowed increasing the risk of bloat.

Food for 18-24 hours and water from the time pre-medication is given

36
Q

Which substances can you use to sedate/premedicate cows?

A

Therefore only substances listed in Commission Regulation No 37/2010 are allowed to be used. These are in cattle: detomidine and xylazine. Under the Cascade (EU Directive 2001/82/EC) other agents can be used, but only if they are allowed substances in other food producing animals. This would add romifidine and butorphanol (allowed substance in horses) to the list, eventually.

37
Q

which inductions agents can we use in the EU regarding cattle?

A

ketamine and thiopental

38
Q

is bupivacaine licensed in cattle?

A

no

39
Q

why do we put ruminants in sternal recumbency prior to waking up?

A

to prevent aspiration

40
Q

which drug cannot be used in induction in ruminants because it causes marked hyperglycaemia and osmotic diuresis, as well as being an Arginine Vasopressin antagonist leading to profuse urine production

A

xylazine

41
Q

what is the main variation of HCM?

A

systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve leaflet

42
Q
A