Questions Flashcards
The relative strength index for a stock stands at 75. This reading is best
described as an indication that the stock is
A neutral.
B oversold.
C overbought.
C is correct. The relative strength index (RSI) is a momentum oscillator and provides
information on whether or not an asset is overbought or oversold. An RSI greater than 70
indicates that a stock is overbought; an RSI lower than 30 suggests that a stock is oversold. A is incorrect. The relative strength index is a momentum oscillator and provides
information on whether or not an asset is overbought or oversold. An RSI greater than 70
indicates that a stock is overbought; an RSI lower than 30 suggests that a stock is oversold.
B is incorrect. The relative strength index is a momentum oscillator and provides
information on whether or not an asset is overbought or oversold. An RSI greater than 70
indicates that a stock is overbought; an RSI lower than 30 suggests that a stock is oversold.
Which of the following institutional investors is most likely to have a low tolerance
for investment risk and relatively high liquidity needs?
A Insurance company
B Defined-benefit
pension plan
C Charitable foundation
A is correct. Insurance companies need to be relatively conservative and liquid, given
the necessity of paying claims when due.
B is incorrect because defined-benefit
pension plans tend to have quite high risk
tolerances and quite low liquidity needs.
C is incorrect because endowments/foundations typically have high risk tolerances
and quite low liquidity needs.
The risk-free
rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is 8%. If the beta of TRL
Corp. is 1.5, based on the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected
return of TRL’s stock is closest to:
A 17.0%.
B 9.5%.
C 15.5%.
A is correct. Using the CAPM relationship of E(Ri ) = Rf + [E(Rm ) – Rf ]β i , we can estimate
the expected return as: E(Ri ) = 0.05 + (0.08)(1.5) = 17.0%.
B is incorrect because the expected return is computed as 0.05 + (0.08 – 0.05)(1.5)
= 9.5%.
C is incorrect because the expected return is computed as 0.08 + (0.05)(1.5) = 15.5%.
An investment policy statement’s risk objective states that over a 12-month
period, with a probability of 95%, the client’s portfolio must not lose more than
5% of its value. This statement is most likely a(n):
A total risk objective.
B relative risk objective.
C absolute risk objective.
C is correct. The statement is an absolute risk objective because it expresses a maximum
loss in value with an associated probability of loss.
A is incorrect because this is an absolute (not total) risk objective because it expresses
a maximum loss in value with an associated probability of loss.
B is incorrect because this is an absolute (not relative) risk objective because it expresses
a maximum loss in value with an associated probability of loss.
Two investors have utility functions that differ only with regard to the coefficient
of risk aversion. Relative to the investor with a higher coefficient of risk
aversion, the optimal portfolio for the investor with a lower coefficient of risk
aversion will most likely have:
A a lower level of risk and return.
B a higher level of risk and return.
C the same level of risk and return.
B is correct. A less risk-averse
investor’s highest utility curve, given the lower coefficient of
risk aversion, is likely to touch the capital allocation line at a point that would represent
a portfolio with higher risk and more expected return.
A is incorrect because for a high coefficient of risk aversion, the investor will seek a
lot of return for a bit of extra risk and will have an optimal portfolio that is tangential to
the capital allocation line at a lower level of risk and return relative to the investor with
a lower coefficient of risk aversion.
C is incorrect because only investors with identical coefficients of risk aversion would
select the same optimal portfolio.
Within a risk management framework, risk tolerance:
A and risk exposure should be kept in alignment.
B includes the qualitative assessment and evaluation of risk.
C is determined as a result of establishing how and where risk is taken.
A is correct. The process of risk monitoring, mitigation, and management is the most
obvious facet of the risk management framework and requires recognizing when risk
exposure is not aligned with risk tolerance.
B is incorrect. Risk identification and measurement include the qualitative assessment
and evaluation of risk.
C is incorrect. Risk tolerance can provide guidance on risk budgeting, which is how
and where risk is taken. Risk budgeting is a result of determining risk tolerance.
Which of the following statements best describes a potential concern for clients
using robo-advisers?
Robo-advisers:
A must be established as registered investment advisers.
B do not seem to incorporate the full range of investment information into
their recommendations.
C are likely to be held to a similar code of conduct as other investment professionals
in the given region.
B is correct. Initial research has shown that robo-advisers
do not seem to incorporate
the full range of investment information into their recommendations, meaning that
important points may be missing in investment decisions.
A is incorrect. It is an advantage to clients that robo-advisers
must be registered as
investment advisers, because they are subject to guidance from the securities regulator
of their country.
C is incorrect. It is an advantage to clients that robo-advisers
must be held to a similar
code of conduct as other investment professionals in the given region.
When a security that was in an upward trend falls 1% below its trendline, a
technical analyst will most likely determine that:
A a downward trend is beginning.
B the upward trend is ending.
C the trendline needs an adjustment.
C is correct. When a security’s price drops through the trendline by a significant amount
(at least 5% to 10%), this decline signals that the uptrend has ended and further decline
may follow. Minor breakthroughs simply call for the trendline to be moderately adjusted
over time. A security falling 1% below its trendline is considered a minor breakthrough.
A is incorrect. The amount the price falls below the trendline would need to be at
least 5% before it would be considered a signal that the uptrend is ending and may
signal a further decline in price.
B is incorrect. The amount the price falls below the trendline would need to be at
least 5% before it would be considered a signal that the uptrend is ending.
Security analysis is most likely a part of which step in the portfolio management process? A The feedback step B The execution step C The planning step
B is correct. The execution step of the portfolio management process has three parts:
asset allocation, security analysis, and portfolio construction.
A is incorrect because under the planning step, there are two parts: understating the
client’s needs and preparation of an investment policy statement.
C is incorrect because under the feedback step, there are two parts: portfolio monitoring
and rebalancing and performance measurement and reporting.
Which of the following is most likely associated with an investor’s ability to take
risk rather than the investor’s willingness to take risk?
A The investor has a long investment time horizon.
B The investor believes earning excess returns on stocks is a matter of luck.
C Safety of principal is very important to the investor.
A is correct. Investment time horizon is an objective factor that measures the investor’s
ability to take risk.
B is incorrect because luck is a subjective factor that measures willingness to take risk.
C is incorrect because safety of principal is a subjective factor that measures willingness
to take risk.
An investment has a 50% probability of returning 12% and a 50% probability of
returning 6%. An investor prefers this uncertain investment over a guaranteed
return of 10%. This preference most likely indicates that the investor is risk:
A seeking.
B averse.
C neutral.
A is correct. The expected value of the uncertain investment is 9%, which is less than
the guaranteed return of 10%. Only a risk-seeking
person would be willing to accept
this investment.
B is incorrect. A risk-averse
person would prefer the guaranteed outcome of 10%.
C is incorrect. A risk-neutral
person would prefer the guaranteed outcome of 10%.
John Smith is given two investment options. Option A is a payment with a 50%
chance of getting $100 and a 50% chance of getting $0. Option B is a guaranteed
payment of $50. If Smith chooses Option A over Option B, his risk preference is
best described as risk:
A seeking.
B averse.
C neutral.
A is correct. Both options have the same expected return of $50. Option A, however, has
a higher risk (standard deviation) than Option B. Therefore, John Smith’s risk preference
is that of risk seeking.
B is incorrect because a risk-averse
person would prefer a lower risk profile given the
same expected return.
C is incorrect because a risk-neutral
person would be indifferent about the risk profile
of the outcome.
Risk management is a process that can most likely be best described as:
A minimizing risks while attempting to maximize returns.
B forecasting the level of risk that can meet a defined required return.
C defining a level of risk to be taken with the goal of maximizing the portfolio’s
value.
C is correct. Risk management is the process by which an organization or individual
defines the level of risk to be taken, measures the level of risk being taken, and adjusts
the latter toward the former, with the goal of maximizing the company’s or portfolio’s
value or the individual’s overall satisfaction or utility.
A is incorrect. Risk management is actively understanding how to best balance the
achievement of goals with an acceptable chance of failure.
B is incorrect. Risk management is not about predicting risks.
Fintech” is best described as:
A technology-driven
innovation in the financial service industry.
B the collection of large quantities of financial data from a variety of sources
in multiple formats.
C the use of technical models to describe patterns in financial markets and
make trading decisions.
A is correct. In its broadest sense, the term “fintech” generally refers to technology-driven
innovation occurring in the financial service industry.
B is incorrect. The collection of large quantities of data from a variety of sources in
multiple formats is the description of big data.
C is incorrect. The use of technical models to describe patterns in financial markets
and make trading decisions is the description of technical analysis.
Which of the following is least likely to be a constraint for an investment trust that has been
established for an infant for the strict use of buying their first home?
A. Liquidity
B. Tax concerns
C. Unique circumstances
Answer: A
This is correct. It is unlikely that the infant will be drawing funds from the trust for a lengthy
period of time and hence the trust might not have any liquidity constraints whatsoever.
Which of the following statements is least correct? Bond index construction can be more difficult
than equity index construction because:
A. there are more equity issues.
B. the bond price discovery process is less effective.
C. specific bonds are likely to move between different indexes.
Answer: A
This is incorrect as the universe and types of bonds is much broader than that of equities.
Furthermore, specific bonds mature and are replaced constantly.
Which of the following statements is most correct? Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) differ from
index mutual funds as:
A. ETFs are more tax-effective.
B. mutual funds have lower fees.
C. mutual funds pay out all dividends received.
Answer: A
This is correct. ETFs are generally considered to have a tax advantage over index mutual funds,
as the latter is generally required to pass on capital gains tax as gains are realized through trading.
Good risk governance practices in an organization should:
(i) focus on enterprise risk management.
(ii) provide for the appointment of a chief risk officer.
(iii) provide for a risk management committee.
(iv) give clear guidance to management.
A. Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.
B. Only (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct.
C. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are all correct.
Answer: A
This is correct. Good risk governance should focus on the business as a whole (enterprise risk
management), and should provide for governance structures, such as the appointment of a CRO
and a risk forum of some kind. A good risk governance framework will also give clear guidance
to management, while at the same time leaving another flexibility in the execution of business
strategy.
Ingrid Jolley, CFA, has put together a constrained efficient frontier (no short sales) of five risky
assets based on expected returns, volatility, and correlations of the risky assets. Asset E has the
highest expected return and standard deviation of returns of 13.5% p.a. and 16.2% p.a. However,
Jolley wishes to put together a portfolio with an expected return greater than 13.5% p.a. but with
an expected volatility of no more than 13.5% p.a. This objective might best be achieved by:
A. borrowing and investing in Asset E.
B. including a long position in the risk-free asset.
C. borrowing and investing in a portfolio of the risk assets.
Answer: C
This statement is correct. As Asset E is the highest returning asset, it would sit on the right-hand
extreme of a constrained efficient frontier. The only way to achieve a portfolio that is above the
efficient frontier is to combine the optimal risky portfolio with the risk-free asset; in this case,
borrowing the risk-free asset and leveraging into the optimal risky portfolio.
Which of the following markets is most likely to exhibit semi-strong form efficiency?
A. Stock market in a country with no laws against insider trading
B. Corporate bond market where all issuers are required to have a credit rating
C. Commodity futures market where most trading is based on technical analysis
Answer: B
This is correct. A bond market where issuers are required to have a credit rating would likely lead
to prices based on public information. This is a semi-strong form efficient market.
Which of the following statements is most correct? In technical analysis, the change in polarity
principle might refer to:
A. a price trend changing direction.
B. a resistance level becoming a support level.
C. a price movement between support and resistance levels.
Answer: B
The change in polarity principle asserts that once the price rises (falls) through the resistance
(support) level, this then becomes the new support (resistance) level.
Growth in adoption of robo-advisory services is least likely driven by:
A. desire for lower fees.
B. demand from younger investors.
C. high barriers to entering the industry.
Answer: C
New entrants into the market are finding it easy to develop solutions to compete against
incumbent wealth managers.
Which of the following would most likely be a “social issue” considered within a sustainable investing policy? A. Data protection B. Energy efficiency C. Board composition
Answer: A
Data protection would be considered a social issue as it relates to corporate responsibility
regarding the sensitive information of customer and stakeholder information.
1 Investors should use a portfolio approach to:
A reduce risk.
B monitor risk.
C eliminate risk
1 A is correct. Combining assets into a portfolio should reduce the portfolio’s volatility. Specifically, “individuals and institutions should hold portfolios to reduce
risk.” As illustrated in the reading, however, risk reduction may not be as great
during a period of dramatic economic change.
2 Which of the following is the best reason for an investor to be concerned with the composition of a portfolio? A Risk reduction. B Downside risk protection. C Avoidance of investment disasters
2 A is correct. Combining assets into a portfolio should reduce the portfolio’s volatility. The portfolio approach does not necessarily provide downside protection
or guarantee that the portfolio always will avoid losses.
3 With respect to the formation of portfolios, which of the following statements is
most accurate?
A Portfolios affect risk less than returns.
B Portfolios affect risk more than returns.
C Portfolios affect risk and returns equally
3 B is correct. As illustrated in the reading, portfolios reduce risk more than they
increase returns.
4 Which of the following institutions will on average have the greatest need for liquidity? A Banks. B Investment companies. C Non- life insurance companies.
4 A is correct. The excess reserves invested by banks need to be relatively liquid.
Although investment companies and non- life insurance companies have high
liquidity needs, the liquidity need for banks is on average the greatest.
5 Which of the following institutional investors will most likely have the longest time horizon? A Defined benefit plan. B University endowment. C Life insurance company.
5 B is correct. Most foundations and endowments are established with the intent
of having perpetual lives. Although defined benefit plans and life insurance
companies have portfolios with a long time horizon, they are not perpetual.
6 A defined benefit plan with a large number of retirees is likely to have a high need for A income. B liquidity. C insurance
6 A is correct. Income is necessary to meet the cash flow obligation to retirees.
Although defined benefit plans have a need for income, the need for liquidity
typically is quite low. A retiree may need life insurance; however, a defined benefit plan does not need insurance.
7 Which of the following institutional investors is most likely to manage investments in mutual funds?
A Insurance companies.
B Investment companies.
C University endowments
7 B is correct. Investment companies manage investments in mutual funds.
Although endowments and insurance companies may own mutual funds, they
do not issue or redeem shares of mutual funds
8 With respect to the portfolio management process, the asset allocation is determined in the:
A planning step.
B feedback step.
C execution step.
8 C is correct. The client’s objectives and constraints are established in the investment policy statement and are used to determine the client’s target asset allocation, which occurs in the execution step of the portfolio management process.
9 The planning step of the portfolio management process is least likely to include an assessment of the client’s A securities. B constraints. C risk tolerance
9 A is correct. Securities are analyzed in the execution step. In the planning step,
a client’s objectives and constraints are used to develop the investment policy
statement.
10 With respect to the portfolio management process, the rebalancing of a portfolio’s composition is most likely to occur in the:
A planning step.
B feedback step.
C execution step.
10 B is correct. Portfolio monitoring and rebalancing occurs in the feedback step
of the portfolio management process.
12 Which of the following investment products is most likely to trade at their net asset value per share? A Exchange traded funds. B Open- end mutual funds. C Closed- end mutual funds
12 B is correct. Open- end funds trade at their net asset value per share, whereas
closed- end funds and exchange traded funds can trade at a premium or a
discount.
13 Which of the following financial products is least likely to have a capital gain distribution? A Exchange traded funds. B Open- end mutual funds. C Closed- end mutual funds.
13 A is correct. Exchange traded funds do not have capital gain distributions. If an
investor sells shares of an ETF (or open- end mutual fund or closed- end mutual
fund), the investor may have a capital gain or loss on the shares sold; however,
the gain (or loss) from the sale is not a distribution.
14 Which of the following forms of pooled investments is subject to the least amount of regulation? A Hedge funds. B Exchange traded funds. C Closed- end mutual funds
14 A is correct. Hedge funds are currently exempt from the reporting requirements of a typical public investment company.
15 Which of the following pooled investments is most likely characterized by a few large investments? A Hedge funds. B Buyout funds. C Venture capital funds.
15 B is correct. Buyout funds or private equity firms make only a few large investments in private companies with the intent of selling the restructured companies in three to five years. Venture capital funds also have a short time horizon;
however, these funds consist of many small investments in companies with the
expectation that only a few will have a large payoff (and that most will fail).
1 An investor purchased 100 shares of a stock for $34.50 per share at the beginning of the quarter. If the investor sold all of the shares for $30.50 per share
after receiving a $51.55 dividend payment at the end of the quarter, the holding
period return is closest to:
A −13.0%.
B −11.6%.
C −10.1%
1 C is correct. −10.1% is the holding period return, which is calculated as: (3,050
− 3,450 + 51.55)/3,450, which is comprised of a dividend yield of 1.49% = 51.55/
(3,450) and a capital loss yield of −11.59% = –400/(3,450).
4 Which of the following return calculating methods is best for evaluating the
annualized returns of a buy- and- hold strategy of an investor who has made
annual deposits to an account for each of the last five years?
A Geometric mean return.
B Arithmetic mean return.
C Money- weighted return.
4 A is correct. The geometric mean return compounds the returns instead of the
amount invested.
9 With respect to capital market theory, which of the following asset characteristics is least likely to impact the variance of an investor’s equally weighted
portfolio?
A Return on the asset.
B Standard deviation of the asset.
C Covariances of the asset with the other assets in the portfolio.
9 A is correct. The asset’s returns are not used to calculate the portfolio’s variance
[only the assets’ weights, standard deviations (or variances), and covariances (or
correlations) are used].
1 The line depicting the total risk and expected return of portfolio combinations
of a risk- free asset and any risky asset is the:
A security market line.
B capital allocation line.
C security characteristic line.
1 B is correct. A capital allocation line (CAL) plots the expected return and total
risk of combinations of the risk- free asset and a risky asset (or a portfolio of
risky assets).
2 The portfolio of a risk- free asset and a risky asset has a better risk- return
tradeoff than investing in only one asset type because the correlation between
the risk- free asset and the risky asset is equal to:
A −1.0.
B 0.0.
C 1.0
2 B is correct. A portfolio of the risk- free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of
risky assets can result in a better risk- return tradeoff than an investment in only
one type of an asset, because the risk- free asset has zero correlation with the
risky asset.
3 With respect to capital market theory, an investor’s optimal portfolio is the
combination of a risk- free asset and a risky asset with the highest:
A expected return.
B indifference curve.
C capital allocation line slope.
3 B is correct. Investors will have different optimal portfolios depending on their
indifference curves. The optimal portfolio for each investor is the one with
highest utility; that is, where the CAL is tangent to the individual investor’s
highest possible indifference curve.
4 Highly risk- averse investors will most likely invest the majority of their wealth in: A risky assets. B risk- free assets. C the optimal risky portfolio.
4 B is correct. Although the optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio, highly
risk- averse investors choose to invest most of their wealth in the risk- free asset.
5 The capital market line (CML) is the graph of the risk and return of portfolio
combinations consisting of the risk- free asset and:
A any risky portfolio.
B the market portfolio.
C the leveraged portfolio.
5 B is correct. Although the capital allocation line includes all possible combinations of the risk- free asset and any risky portfolio, the capital market line is a
special case of the capital allocation line, which uses the market portfolio as the
optimal risky portfolio.
6 Which of the following statements most accurately defines the market portfolio
in capital market theory? The market portfolio consists of all:
A risky assets.
B tradable assets.
C investable assets
6 A is correct. The market includes all risky assets, or anything that has value;
however, not all assets are tradable, and not all tradable assets are investable.
7 With respect to capital market theory, the optimal risky portfolio:
A is the market portfolio.
B has the highest expected return.
C has the lowest expected variance.
7 A is correct. The optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio. Capital market
theory assumes that investors have homogeneous expectations, which means
that all investors analyze securities in the same way and are rational. That is,
investors use the same probability distributions, use the same inputs for future
cash flows, and arrive at the same valuations. Because their valuations of all
assets are identical, all investors will invest in the same optimal risky portfolio
(i.e., the market portfolio).
8 Relative to portfolios on the CML, any portfolio that plots above the CML is considered: A inferior. B inefficient. C unachievable.
8 C is correct. Theoretically, any point above the CML is not achievable and any
point below the CML is dominated by and inferior to any point on the CML.
9 A portfolio on the capital market line with returns greater than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n): A lending portfolio. B borrowing portfolio. C unachievable portfolio.
9 B is correct. As one moves further to the right of point M on the capital market
line, an increasing amount of borrowed money is being invested in the market
portfolio. This means that there is negative investment in the risk- free asset,
which is referred to as a leveraged position in the risky portfolio.
10 With respect to the capital market line, a portfolio on the CML with returns
less than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n):
A lending portfolio.
B borrowing portfolio.
C unachievable portfolio.
10 A is correct. The combinations of the risk- free asset and the market portfolio
on the CML where returns are less than the returns on the market portfolio are
termed ‘lending’ portfolios.