Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most fundamental of physical sciences?

A

physics

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2
Q

Which metric prefix means million?

A

mega-

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3
Q

Which metric prefix means thousand?

A

kilo-

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4
Q

Which metric prefix means hundredth?

A

centi-

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5
Q

Which metric prefix means thousandth?

A

milli-

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6
Q

How may base units are there in the SI?

A

seven

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7
Q

What is a volume of 1000 cm^3 equal to?

A

1 L

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8
Q

What combination of units expresses density?

A

mass/length^3

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9
Q

Using significant figures, 49.4 x 59 = ?

A

2.9 x 10^3 cm²

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10
Q

Equation for average speed?

A

average speed = (distance traveled)/(time to travel the distance)
v = d/t

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11
Q

Equation for average acceleration?

A

average acceleration = (change in velocity)/(time for change to occur)
a = (∆v)/(∆t)

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12
Q

Equation for distance of an object dropped?

A
distance = (1/2)(acceleration due to gravity)(time²)
d = 1/2(g)(t²)
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13
Q

Equation for centripetal acceleration?

A

centripetal acceleration = (speed²)/(radius)

ac = v²/r

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14
Q

What is necessary to designate a position?

A

a reference point

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15
Q

What is always true about the magnitude of a displacement?

A

it is less than or equal to the distance traveled

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16
Q

What is true for deceleration?

A

the acceleration is in the direction opposite to the velocity

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17
Q

What is true for an object in free-fall?

A

it increases in distance proportionally to t²

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18
Q

If the speed of an object in uniform circular motion is doubled and the radial distance remains constant, then the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration increases by what factor?

A

4

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19
Q

What is true for a ball thrown at an angle θ to the horizontal?

A

it has a constant velocity in the x direction, -y direction, and a changing velocity in the +y direction

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20
Q

For a constant linear acceleration, what changes uniformly?

A

velocity

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21
Q

A projectile launched a t an angle of 28 above the horizontal will have the same range as a projectile launched at what angle?

A

62 degrees

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22
Q

Equation for weight?

A
weight = mass x acceleration due to gravity
w = mg
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23
Q

Equation for force?

A
force = (a constant x mass1 x mass2)/(separation distance)²
F = (Gm1m2)/(r²)
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24
Q

Equation for linear momentum?

A

linear momentum = mass x velocity

p = mv

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25
Q

Equation for angular momentum?

A

angular momentum = mass x velocity x object distance from axis of rotation
L = mvr

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26
Q

Equation for torque?

A
torque = lever arm x force
τ = rF
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27
Q

What is the state of an object being acted upon by an unbalanced force?

A

accelerated

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28
Q

What is a possible state of an object in the absence of a net force?

A

at rest, constant speed, or zero acceleration

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29
Q

What is necessary for a change in velocity?

A

an unbalanced force

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30
Q

According to Newton’s second law of motion, when an object is acted upon by a net unbalanced force, what can e said about the acceleration?

A

it is inversely proportional to the object’s mass

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31
Q

A change in what affects the weight of an object?

A

acceleration due to gravity (G)

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32
Q

What is true of the force pair of Newton’s third law?

A

the two forces act on different objects

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33
Q

What is true about the acceleration due to gravity?

A

it decreases with increasing altitude

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34
Q

What is true about the constant G?

A

it is a very small quantity

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35
Q

A child’s toy floats in a swimming pool. The buoyant force exerted on the toy depends on the volume of what?

A

the water displaced

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36
Q

If a submerged object displaces an amount of liquid with a weight less than its own, when the object is released it will…?

A

sink

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37
Q

A change in linear momentum requires…?

A

a change in velocity, an unbalanced force, and an acceleration

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38
Q

Angular momentum is conserved in the absence of…?

A

a net torque

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39
Q

Equation for kinetic energy?

A

kinetic energy = 1/2 x mass x velocity²

Ek = 1/2mv²

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40
Q

Equation for work?

A
work = weight x height
W = mgh
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41
Q

Equation for power?

A
power = (force x distance)/(time)
P = Fd/t
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42
Q

Equation for speed of a falling object?

A

v = √2g∆h

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43
Q

In addition to force, what does work involve?

A

motion

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44
Q

What is a unit of work?

A

N x m

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45
Q

What is the SI unit of energy?

A

joule

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46
Q

What is an example of an object with great kinetic energy?

A

an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v

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47
Q

When negative work is done on a moving object, its kinetic energy…?

A

decreases

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48
Q

Gravitational potential energy depends on what?

A

mass, acceleration due to gravity, and height

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49
Q

When the height of an object is changed, the gravitational potential energy…?

A

depends on the reference point

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50
Q

Energy cannot be…?

A

created

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51
Q

Power is expressed with what units?

A

J/s

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52
Q

In the U.S., which sectors consumes the most energy?

A

industry

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53
Q

What would not be classified as a total alternative fuel source?

A

gasohol

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54
Q

Equation for frequency?

A

f = 1/period

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55
Q

Equation for wave speed?

A

wave speed = (wavelength)/(period)

v = λ/T

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56
Q

What is the number of wave cycles for a given period of time called?

A

frequency

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57
Q

If a ribbon were tied to a stretched string carrying a transverse wave, how would the ribbon be observed to oscillate?

A

perpendicular to the wave direction

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58
Q

The energy of a wave is related to the square of what?

A

amplitude

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59
Q

How fast do electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum?

A

3.00 x 10^8 m/s

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60
Q

Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum from low frequency to high frequency?

A

radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays

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61
Q

Sound waves propagate in what?

A

solids, liquids, and gases

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62
Q

What is the lower frequency limit of the audible range of human hearing?

A

20 Hz

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63
Q

A sound with an intensity level of 30 dB is how many times louder than the threshold of hearing?

A

1000

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64
Q

A moving observer approaches a stationary sound source. What does the observer hear?

A

an increase in frequency

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65
Q

What property does not change in the Doppler effect?

A

speed

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66
Q

If an astronomical light source were moving toward us, what would be observed?

A

a blueshift

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67
Q

What occurs when a stretched string is shaken at one of its natural frequencies?

A

standing waves, resonance, and maximum energy transfer

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68
Q

Equation for focal length of a spherical mirror?

A

focal length = (radius of curvature for the spherical mirror)/2
f = R/2

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69
Q

What can be said about the angles of incidence and reflection?

A

they are measured from a line perpendicular to the reflecting surface

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70
Q

To what does the law of reflection apply?

A

regular reflection, diffuse reflection, and specular reflection

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71
Q

What is the case when the angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence?

A

the first medium is less dense

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72
Q

What is true of dispersion?

A

it is responsible in part for a rainbow

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73
Q

What is the unit of index of refraction?

A

none; it is unitless

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74
Q

What is true of a convex mirror?

A

it forms only virtual images

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75
Q

What is true for a real image?

A

it is formed by converging light rays

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76
Q

What is true of a concave lens?

A

a lens that forms virtual images for Do > f

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77
Q

What is true of a virtual image?

A

it is formed on the object side of a lens

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78
Q

What happens when the polarization directions of two polarizing sheets are at an angle of 90 degrees to each other?

A

no light gets through

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79
Q

What is true of diffraction?

A

it occurs best when the slit width is less than the wavelength of a wave

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80
Q

When does total constructive interference occur?

A

when waves are in phase

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81
Q

What is Planck’s constant?

A

6.63 x 10^-34 J∙s

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82
Q

Equation for energy?

A
energy = Planck's constant x frequency
E = hf
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83
Q

Equation for Bohr radius?

A

Bohr radius = 0.053 x (principal quantum number n)²

r = 0.053n² nm

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84
Q

Equation for electron energy?

A

electron energy = (-13.60)/(principal quantum number n)²

En = -13.60/n²

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85
Q

Equation for photon energy?

A

photon energy = energy of initial orbit - energy of final orbit

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86
Q

Planck developed his quantum hypothesis to explain what phenomena?

A

the ultraviolet catastrophe

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87
Q

Light of what color has the greatest photon energy?

A

violet

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88
Q

The Bohr theory was developed to explain what phenomena?

A

line spectra

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89
Q

In what state does a hydrogen electron have its greatest energy?

A

n = 5

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90
Q

Bombarding a metal anode with high-energy electrons produces what?

A

microwaves

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91
Q

The amplification of light in a laser depends on what?

A

stimulated emission

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92
Q

Equation for distance in parsecs?

A

distance in parsecs = 1/parallax angle in arc seconds

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93
Q

What refers to the celestial sphere?

A

north celestial pole, vernal equinox, celestial equator

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94
Q

What is the name of the path on the sky that the sun appears to follow as it moves among the stars?

A

the ecliptic

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95
Q

The angular measure in degrees north or south of the celestial equator is called…?

A

declination

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96
Q

Name parts of the sun?

A

the core, convective zone, coronal hole, corona, filament, prominence, sunspots, chromosphere, photosphere

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97
Q

Why are sunspots darker than the regions of the sun around them?

A

they are cooler than the surrounding material

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98
Q

Where in the sun does the fusion of hydrogen occur?

A

only in the core

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99
Q

The part of the sun’s structure that we see in visible light is…?

A

the photosphere

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100
Q

What force keeps all the stars from flying apart?

A

gravitational force

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101
Q

Which property depends on how far away a star is from us?

A

its apparent magnitude

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102
Q

A relatively cool star is what color?

A

red

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103
Q

After the sun runs out of hydrogen, what will be the next color and size of the sun?

A

red giant star

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104
Q

The famous Horsehead Nebula is what?

A

a dark nebula

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105
Q

A white dwarf has about the same diameter as what?

A

the Earth

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106
Q

What is the fundamental quantity of a star that indicates its ultimate fate?

A

mass

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107
Q

What event is believed to create elements heavier than iron?

A

a supernova explosion

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108
Q

Black holes appear black for what reason?

A

light cannot escape them

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109
Q

The Milky Way is classified as what kind of galaxy?

A

spiral

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110
Q

How much of the universe appears to be normal ordinary matter?

A

4%

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111
Q

What key observation led Hubble to conclude that the universe is expanding?

A

the redshift of light from distant galaxies

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112
Q

What is the cosmic background radiation?

A

the light-energy remnants of the explosion in which the universe was born

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113
Q

What is true of the solar system?

A

it is a heliocentric system, it is held together by gravitational forces, and it contains planets classified as terrestrial, Jovian, and dwarf

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114
Q

Which of Kepler’s laws gives the most direct indication of the changes in he orbital speed of a planet?

A

law of equal areas

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115
Q

Which of Kepler’s laws gives an indication of the semi-major axis?

A

harmonic law

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116
Q

What planet has retrograde motion?

A

venus

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117
Q

What is abundant on Earth but not on the other planets?

A

oxygen, water, life

118
Q

The Foucault pendulum is an experimental proop of the Earth’s…?

A

rotation

119
Q

What statements concerning terrestrial planets is true?

A
  • all are relatively small and have relatively small mass
  • all are dense and rocky
  • all have physical and chemical properties similar to those of the Earth
120
Q

What are some physical characteristics of a terrestrial planet?

A

small diameter, solid surface, and relatively high temperature environment

121
Q

What statements concerning the Jovian planets are true?

A
  • all are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium
  • all rotate more rapidly than the terrestrial planets
  • all have rings
122
Q

What are some physical characteristics of a Jovian planet?

A

gaseous, rocky or ice cores, and rapid rotation

123
Q

The Cassini spacecraft orbited which planet?

A

saturn

124
Q

Which Jovian planet revolves on its side and has retrograde rotation?

A

uranus

125
Q

What disqualified Pluto as a major planet?

A

orbit clear of other objects

126
Q

The dwarf planet Ceres is…?

A

between Mars and Jupiter

127
Q

The flattened, rotating disk of gas and dust around the protosun, from which the planets were apparently formed, is called what kind of nebula?

A

solar

128
Q

The planets of the solar system evolved most directly from what?

A

condensation

129
Q

What are two useful methods for detecting an exoplanet?

A
  • the observation of a star’s motion

- the observation of Doppler shifts in the spectrum of a star

130
Q

What is true of the seasons?

A
  • they are a function of the inclination of the Earth’s axis
  • they are a function of the Earth’s revolving around the sun
  • they would be hotter or colder if the Earth’s axis were tilted 25°
131
Q

What is true for an observer at 20°N?

A

observes the sun directly overhead twice a year

132
Q

From September 22 to March 21, in what direction must an observer in the Northern Hemisphere look to see the sunrise?

A

east

133
Q

The longest day for latitudes greater than 23 1/2° S in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on the…?

A

winter solstice

134
Q

What is true for Hawaii (general latitude 21°N)?

A

the sun is directly overhead twice a year

135
Q

What is true for the Gregorian calendar?

A

it has a leap year every century year that is divisible by 4

136
Q

What can be said about the precession of the Earth’s axis?

A

has no important effect on the Earth’s seasons

137
Q

The precession of the Earth’s axis is caused by…?

A

gravitational torque

138
Q

Who championed the idea of the atom about 400 BCE?

A

Democritus

139
Q

Which scientist is associated with the “plum pudding model” of the atom?

A

Thomson

140
Q

Why did the Bohr model need improvement?

A
  • It worked only for the hydrogen atom.
  • It did not explain why the atom is quantized.
  • It did not explain why an electron does not emit radiation as it orbits.
141
Q

Equation for energy?

A
energy = mass x (the speed of light)²
E = mc²
142
Q

Which scientist devised the symbol notation we now use for elements?

A

Berzelius

143
Q

What is the symbol notation for the element potassium?

A

K

144
Q

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of the atom 35/17 Cl?

A

18

145
Q

Which radioactive decay mode does not result in a different nuclide?

A

gamma

146
Q

What is the missing particle in the nuclear decay

179/79 Au → 175/77 Ir + ?

A

alpha particle

147
Q

The majority of stable isotopes belong to which category?

A

even–even

148
Q

What scientist discovered radioactivity?

A

Becquerel

149
Q

How many half-lives would it take for a sample of a radioactive isotope to decrease its activity to 1/32 of the original amount?

A

5

150
Q

What is not conserved in all nuclear reactions?

A

atomic number

151
Q

What completes the reaction 2/1 H + 98/42 Mo → ? + 1/0 n?

A

99/43 Tc

152
Q

What is the appropriate procedure to decrease the heat output of a fission reactor core during a crisis?

A

Insert the control rods farther.

153
Q

What is a very hot gas of nuclei and electrons called?

A

plasma

154
Q

Which unit is most closely associated with the biological effects of radiation?

A

the rem

155
Q

What is the theoretical exchange particle for the nuclear weak force?

A

gluon

156
Q

Is a nucleon (a) a proton, (b) a neutron, (c) an electron, or (d) both a proton and a neutron?

A

both a proton and a neutron

157
Q

Equation for specific heat?

A

amount of heat to change temperature = mass x specific heat x temperature change
H = mcΔT

158
Q

Equation for latent heat of fusion?

A

heat needed to melt a substance = mass x latent heat of fusion
H = mLf

159
Q

Equation for latent heat of vaporization?

A

heat needed to boil a substance = mass x latent heat of vaporization

160
Q

Which temperature scale has the smallest degree interval?

A

Fahrenheit

161
Q

What phrase best describes heat?

A

energy in transit because of a temperature difference

162
Q

What is the larget unit of heat energy?

A

kilocalorie

163
Q

The term sublimation refers to what phase change?

A

solid to gas

164
Q

What method of heat transfer generally involves mass movement?

A

convection

165
Q

The heat we get from the sun is transferred through space by what process?

A

radiation

166
Q

In what is intermolecular bonding greatest?

A

solids

167
Q

What has a definite volume but no definite shape?

A

liquid

168
Q

Pressure is defined as…?

A

force divided by area

169
Q

When we use the ideal gas law, the temperature must be in what unit?

A

K

170
Q

When heat is added to a system, it goes into what?

A

adding to the internal energy only

171
Q

The direction of a natural process is indicated by what?

A

change in entropy

172
Q

A solute crystal dissolves when added to a solution. What type was the original solution?

A

unsaturated

173
Q

What scientist in 1661 defined element in a manner that made it subject to laboratory testing?

A

Boyle

174
Q

What is an example of a synthetic element?

A

roentgenium

175
Q

What element normally exists as a gas of diatomic molecules?

A

chlorine

176
Q

What elements are the three most common elements in the Earth’s crust?

A

oxygen, silicon, and aluminum

177
Q

Consider the element magnesium. What statement is true about this element?

A

it is an alkaline earth metal

178
Q

What element has great ionization energy?

A

fluorine

179
Q

What is a preferred name for Na2SO4?

A

sodium sulfate

180
Q

What is the preferred name for Na2S?

A

sodium sulfide

181
Q

What is one element that will be most like fluorine in its chemical properties

A

chlorine

182
Q

What is an example of a halogen compound?

A

AlCl3

183
Q

What force is responsible for chemical bonding?

A

electromagnetic

184
Q

What quantity remains unchanged in a chemical reaction?

A

mass

185
Q

How many total atoms would be in one formula unit of (NH4)3PO4?

A

20

186
Q

A sample of compound AB decomposes to 48g of A and 12g of B. Another sample of the same compound AB decomposes to 24g of A. Predict the number of grams of B obtained.

A

6

187
Q

Equation for molarity?

A

molarity (M) = (number of moles of solute)/(volume of solution in L)
M = solute/solution

188
Q

One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would consist of how many molecules?

A

6.02 x 10^23

189
Q

One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would consist of how many grams?

A

34.0

190
Q

What is the normal charge on an ion of sulfer?

A

2-

191
Q

An ionic compound formed between a Group 2A element M and a Group 7A element X would have the general formula…?

A

MX2

192
Q

What is the formula for iron(III) bromide?

A

FeBr3

193
Q

Carbon is a Group $A element. How many covalent bonds are there in methane, CH4?

A

4

194
Q

What an example of a covalent compound?

A

NO2

195
Q

What element in the periodic table has the highest electronegativity value?

A

fluorine

196
Q

When iron rusts in the presence of oxygen and water, what is occurring?

A

a chemical change

197
Q

How many aluminum atoms are indicated by “3 Al2O3”?

A

6

198
Q

When the equation MnO2 + CO → Mn2O3 + CO2 is balanced, what is the sum of all written and “understood” coefficients?

A

5

199
Q

A base dissolved in water does what?

A
  • conduct electricity
  • change the color of litmus dye from red to blue
  • neutralize an acid
200
Q

What is removed from a hydrated salt to make an anhydrous product?

A

water

201
Q

What is the pH of a solution ten times as acidic as one of the pH of 4?

A

3

202
Q

What are some characteristic properties of minerals?

A
  • naturally occurring
  • crystalline
  • definite chemical composition
203
Q

What is an example of a soft mineral?

A

talc

204
Q

The simple, common method of classifying minerals depends on what general property?

A

physical

205
Q

What does the Mohs scale measure?

A

hardness

206
Q

What scientist is generally designated “the father of geology”?

A

James Hutton

207
Q

What other term is synonymous with texture in a rock?

A

grain size

208
Q

What are the three basic classes of rocks?

A

igneous, metamorphic, sedimentary

209
Q

What does the rock cycle describe?

A

the interrelationships between rock-producing processes

210
Q

Igneous rocks are classified according to their combination of chemical composition and what else?

A

texture

211
Q

What does the grain size of an igneous rock tell a scientist about that rock?

A

the rate at which the molten rock cooled

212
Q

What are some examples of igneous rocks?

A

basalt, granite, obsidian

213
Q

What are plutons?

A

bodies of intrusive igneous rocks

214
Q

Dikes are…?

A

Dikes are intrusive igneous rock

215
Q

What type of volcano forms a layered, composite cone?

A

cinder cone

216
Q

How does sedimentary rock from the ocean floor sometimes end up in highland and mountainous regions on the Earth?

A

the sedimentary rock was uplifted by powerful forces to form mountain chains

217
Q

What is an example of an organic sedimentary rock?

A

coal

218
Q

What is the process of transforming sediment into sedimentary rock called?

A

lithification

219
Q

To which rock does metamorphosis of limestone lead?

A

marble

220
Q

Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks?

A

all rocks; metamorphic, sedimentary, and igneous

221
Q

What are some examples of metamorphic rocks?

A

gneiss, slate, schist

222
Q

About how many plates exist on the Earth?

A

20

223
Q

What correctly describes the lithosphere?

A

it consists of the crust and part of the upper mantle

224
Q

What is between the crust and the core of the Earth?

A

mantle

225
Q

What geologic evidence supports continental drift?

A
  • similarities in biological species and fossils found on distant continents
  • continuity of geologic structures such as mountain ranges
  • ancient glaciation in the Southern Hemisphere
226
Q

Wegener proposed what name for the ancient, giant supercontinent he envisioned?

A

Pangaea

227
Q

Wat is a primary cause of volcanoes, earthquakes, and mountain building?

A

plate tectonics

228
Q

What are some types of plate boundaries?

A

divergent, convergent, and transform

229
Q

What is thought to be the basic source of energy for lithospheric plate movement?

A

radioactive decay in the Earth’s mantle

230
Q

What process during plate collisions leads to the formation of volcanic island arcs?

A

subduction

231
Q

What are 3 correct statements about earthquakes?

A
  • they occur in the same general regions as volcanoes
  • they are monitored by seismographs
  • they generate both surface and body waves
232
Q

By what name is an upward pointing arch of a fold known?

A

anticline

233
Q

What are some mountain-building mechanisms?

A

volcanic, fault-block, and fold

234
Q

What statements about fossils are true?

A
  • fossils are indications of prehistoric life
  • fossils help determine the relative ages of rocks
  • fossils can be tracks imprinted in rocks
235
Q

What is the name for the branch of science that specifically studies fossils?

A

paleontology

236
Q

What type of fossil is petrified wood?

A

replacement

237
Q

What is the name for the type of fossil formed when mineral material fills a rock’s hollow depression that once contained an embedded bone?

A

cast

238
Q

What geologic principle tells us that sediments and lava flows are deposited as horizontal layers?

A

original horizontality

239
Q

What is obtained when rocks and geologic events are put into chronologic order without regard to the actual dates?

A

relative geologic time

240
Q

Into what time spans are eras next divided?

A

periods

241
Q

What is the name of the time period that precedes any indication of life?

A

precambrian

242
Q

What kind of fossil is widespread and easily identifiable?

A

index

243
Q

What radioactive element gradually decays to lead and can be used to date ancient rocks?

A

uranium

244
Q

If the half-life of a radioactive specimen is 100 years, how long will it take for the specimen to reach 25% of its original amount?

A

200 years

245
Q

Radiometric dating is used to determine what?

A

absolute (numerical) geologic time

246
Q

What familiar gas is very important for carbon dating?

A

carbon dioxide

247
Q

What is the age of the Earth, as determined by radiometric dating?

A

4.56 billion years

248
Q

What rocks are useful in helping us determine the age of the Earth?

A

Earth rocks, Moon rocks, and meteorite rocks

249
Q

What became the dominant life form in the Cenozoic era?

A

mammals

250
Q

Fossils from Precambrian time could include what?

A

algae, bacteria, and sea worms

251
Q

In what era were dinosaurs common?

A

Mesozoic

252
Q

In what era were trilobites common?

A

Paleozoic

253
Q

When did the K-T extinction event take place?

A

at the end of the Mesozoic era

254
Q

What is the third most abundant gas in the atmosphere?

A

argon

255
Q

In what region does the ozone layer lie?

A

stratosphere

256
Q

Photosynthesis is responsible for the atmospheric depletion of what?

A

carbon dioxide

257
Q

What regulates the Earth’s average temperature?

A

the greenhouse effect

258
Q

Approximately what percentage of insolation reaches the Earth’s surface?

A

50%

259
Q

What instrument is used to measure relative humidity?

A

psychrometer

260
Q

With what instrument is wind speed measured?

A

anemometer

261
Q

Near a large body of water, what wind is the predominant wind during the day?

A

a sea breeze

262
Q

What is the direction of rotation around an anticyclone in the Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above?

A

clockwise

263
Q

Convection cycles give rise to what?

A
  • land breeze
  • sea breeze
  • air currents
264
Q

What is the cloud root name that means “heap”

A

cumulus

265
Q

The altostratus cloud is a member of which family?

A

middle clouds

266
Q

When the temperature of the air is below the dew point without precipitation, the air is said to be what?

A

supercooled

267
Q

What things are essential to the Bergeron process?

A

mixing, supercooled vapor, and ice crystals

268
Q

What is a result of deposition?

A

frost

269
Q

What type of air mass is mainly responsible for cold weather in the conterminous United States?

A

cP (continental polar)

270
Q

What air masses would be expected to be cold and dry?

A

cP (continental polar)

271
Q

What is a cold front advancing under a warm front called?

A

a cold front occlusion

272
Q

What is the critical alert for a tornado?

A

tornado warning

273
Q

The greatest number of hurricane casualties is caused by…?

A

storm surge

274
Q

A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by…?

A

a high-pressure air mass

275
Q

What is a major source of air pollution?

A

incomplete combustion

276
Q

A change in the Earth’s albedo could result form what?

A

particulate matter

277
Q

Major concern about global warming arises from increased concentrations of what?

A

greenhouse gases

278
Q

The general wearing away of high places and transporting of material to lower places is called…?

A

gradation

279
Q

What processes are types of mechanical disintegration?

A

frost wedging, root penetration, and abrasion

280
Q

On what does the rate of weathering of rock depend?

A

temperature, mineral content, and humidity

281
Q

Chemical weathering can be determined by analyzing the rock’s…?

A

composition

282
Q

What are agents that cause erosion?

A

streams, glaciers, and waves

283
Q

In a desert, what is the prime mover of the land material?

A

wind

284
Q

What term refers to the downslope movement of soil and rock fragments that is caused solely by gravity?

A

mass wasting

285
Q

What best describes the total amount of water on the Earth

A

decreasing

286
Q

About what percent of the Earth’s surface is fresh water?

A

3%

287
Q

What term denotes the continuous circulation of the Earth’s water?

A

hydrologic cycle

288
Q

Aquifers can be seriously depleted when…?

A

the rate of water extraction is greater than the rate of recharge

289
Q

What is a feature of coastal deposition?

A

spit

290
Q

What renewable energy source currently produces the most energy?

A

hydropower