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1
Q

1.Open node or dangle activities are required on all schedules?
a. a.True, it is logical to have activities without successors or
predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule
b. b.False, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors on any schedule (except for start/end
activities)
c. c.True, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule
d. d.True, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule

A

b.False, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors on any schedule (except for start/end
activities)

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2
Q
  1. References against which the project is monitored and controlled is called:
    a. a.CPM Update
    b. b.Bar chart update
    c. c.Estimate revision
    d. d.Baseline
A

Baseline

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3
Q
  1. Leadtime refers to the amount of time required by vendors to deliver
    materials to the subcontractor. T/F?
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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4
Q
  1. On the critical path, early start and late start dates must be?
    a. a.The same
    b. b.Different
A

The same

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5
Q
  1. Task A takes three days, Task B takes 4 days, Task C takes 6 days, Task D takes 2
    days. Task A is the start activity, Task B is dependent on Task A, Task C and D are
    dependent on Task B.
    What is the critical path duration?
    a. a.9
    b. b.15
    c. c.13
    d. d.8
A

13

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6
Q
  1. The amount of time you can delay a critical path activity without delaying the end
    date or any follow on activity is ________.
    a. a.0 days
    b. b.1 day
    c. c.2 days
    d. d.3 days
A

0 Days

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7
Q
  1. Task A is start. Task E is end. Task B, C, and D are dependent on Task A. Task C
    is dependent on task B and Task D is dependent on Task C. Which activities are on the
    critical path?
    a. a.A,C,E
    b. b.A,B,C,E
    c. c.A,B,E
    d. d.A,B,C,D,E
A

A,B,C,D,E

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8
Q
  1. Task A is the start of the project. Task B, C, D and E all start after Task A. Task F
    start is dependent on Tasks D and E, Task G is dependent on C, Task C is also
    dependent on completion of Task F. All activities take one day.
    What is the critical path task list?
A

A,D,E,F,C,G

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9
Q
  1. The baseline schedule or target should be maintained in order to analyze the
    a. a.Variance in progress of a project
    b. b.Float time in the current schedule
    c. c.Critical path
    d. d.Correlative effect of the “leach” factor
A

Variance in progress of a project

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10
Q
  1. The amount of time you can delay an activity before it delays a follow on
    (successor) activity is called _______________.
    a. a.Total Float
    b. b.Free Float
    c. c.Negative Total Float
    d. d.Negative Free Float
A

Free Float

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11
Q 
12. The amount of time you can delay an activity on any path without delaying the
scheduled end date is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.Negative Total Float
b. b.Free Float
c. c.Negative Free Float
d. d.Total Float
A

Total Float

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12
Q
  1. The following activities with durations comprise a critical path:
    Excavate 10 days, Form 2 days, Rebar 3 days, Pour 1 day, Cure 28 days, Strip 1 day.
    What day can you begin to backfill?
    a. a.Day 28
    b. b.Day 45
    c. c.Day 46
    d. d.Day 16
A

Day 46

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13
Q
  1. The following critical activities and their costs include:
    Activity A, six days, $3,000. Activity B, one day, $10,000. Activity C, ten days, $1,000.
    Activity D, three days ,$2,500.
    Which critical activity should be reviewed first for crashing?
    a. a.Activity A
    b. b.Activity B
    c. c.Activity C
    d. d.Activity D
A

Activity C

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14
Q
  1. How should the nodes on a logic network be numbered?
    a. Consecutively
    b. The preceding node is greater than the following node
    c. Separated by a minimum of five numbers
    d. The following node is greater than the concurrent node
A

Separated by a minimum of five numbers

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15
Q 
19. Leadtimes are used to determine the estimated time durations for
what type of activities?
a. Design Activities
b. Procurement Activities
c. Construction Activities
d. Project Closeout Activities
A

Procurement Activities

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16
Q
  1. An activity on a non critical path has a total float of 16 days and a duration of 5
    days. The start of the activity is delayed by delivery of material for 12 days. A worker
    shortage makes the activity take 12 days. How far behind the original critical path
    schedule are you?
    a. a.0 days
    b. b.3 days
    c. c.4 days ahead
    d. d.4 days
A

3 days

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17
Q
  1. An event is a _____________ activity?
    a. a.Critical
    b. b.Zero duration
    c. c.Floating
A

Zero duration

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18
Q
  1. How is Free Float defined?
    a. The amount of slack between acrtivities
    b. The amount of slack in a node
    c. The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities
    d. The amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network
A

The amount of slack between acrtivities

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19
Q
  1. What is the name of the term called for shortening a logic network?
    a. Timed scaled networking
    b. Resource Leveling
    c. Fast tracking
    d. Crashing
A

Crashing

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20
Q
  1. Free Float of the predecessor activity is equal to the late start
    of the successor activity minus the early finish of the predecessor
    activity. T/F?
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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21
Q
  1. A scheduling situation that restricts the flow of resources on a project is called a?
    a. a.Arrow on activity
    b. b.Constraint
    c. c.PERT
    d. d.Bar Chart
A

Constraint

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22
Q 
A situation that tends (or actually) controls the schedule. If you are short of trade
labor, this shortage is a:
a. a.Resource
b. b.Constraint
c. c.Event
d. d.Milestone
A

Constraint

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23
Q

In analyzing the durations and dates for a critical path schedule, backwards
passes are used to:
a. a.Determine early start dates
b. b.Determine late start dates

A

Determine late start dates

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24
Q

In crashing a schedule, which activities are selected to focus on.

a. a.Most cost critical activities
b. b.Non critical activities with least cost
c. c.Non critical activities with most cost
d. d.Least cost, critical path activities

A

Least cost, critical path activities

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25
Q

If activity A takes three days and Activity B takes 6 days and they can be
performed simultaneously, but must be completed before Activity C can start, how long
can you delay the start of activity A?
a. a.0 days
b. b.6 days
c. c.9 days
d. d.3 days

A

.3 days

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26
Q 
If an activity can be delayed five days without delaying the follow on activity
what is this called?
a. a.Five days of total float
b. b.Total float
c. c.Five days of free float
d. d.Five days of negative float
A

Five days of free float

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27
Q

What is the primary reason that the courts disfavor a Bar Chart?
a. It doesn’t look like a Gannt Chart
b. It displays the activities time scaled
c. It does not show the activity descriptions
d. It does not display the interrelationship of activities or the
activity floats
e. It displays the interrelationship of activities or the float
within activities

A

It does not display the interrelationship of activities or the
activity floats

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28
Q

How is the term fast tracking defined in construction?
a. Finalizing the design and procurement before construction
begins
b. Overlapping execution of the construction activities
c. Overlapping execution of the design, procurement and
construction
d. Planning and Scheduling the design

A

Overlapping execution of the design, procurement and

construction

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29
Q

Activity on Arrow (AOA) diagrams require dummy (dotted) arrows to
show all logic. T/F

A

True

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30
Q 
What types of activities are considered first when shortening the
length of a project?
a. High floats and highest costs
b. Highest floats and least cost
c. Zero float and least cost
d. Zero float and highest costs
A

Zero float and least cost

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31
Q

For a Design-Build Schedule to be admissible evidence in court, it
must contain the Design Activity Sequence, Procurement Activity
Sequence and the Construction Activity sequence. Which of the following
must also be on the preliminary schedule?
a. A bar-chart with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses each month
b. A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses at the end
c. A bar-chart with planned versus as-built activities, sequence
changes & all delays
d. A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses each month

A

A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather

losses each month

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32
Q

What is the name of the term for shifting the activities within
their available free floats in order to produce a uniform work force
and reduce the maximum resource usage requirements?
a. Crashing
b. Crew Utilization
c. Time scaled Networking
d. Resource Leveling

A

Resource Leveling

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33
Q

How is Total Float defined?

a. The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities
b. The amount of slack in a node
c. The amount of slack within an activity
d. The amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network

A

The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities

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34
Q

Which of the following is the proper Procurement Activity Sequence
that is used for every Vendor or Supplier ( such as Rebar, Structural Steel and Sheet
Metal) on a
Design/Build logic network according to acceptable legal practices?
a. Design, Procurement, and Construction
b. Order and Deliver Materials, Place Forms, Place Rebar, Pour
Concrete, and Strip Forms
c. Award Vendor Contract, Vendor Prepares Shop Drawings,
Contractor Reviews Shops, A/E Reviews Shops, Vendor Fabricates
and Delivers
d. Prepare Design Plans, Award Vendor Contract, A/E Approves
Design, Order Materials, Fabricate, A/E Approves Shop Drawings,
Contractor Approves Shop Drawings, Vendor Delivers Materials

A

Award Vendor Contract, Vendor Prepares Shop Drawings,
Contractor Reviews Shops, A/E Reviews Shops, Vendor Fabricates
and Delivers

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35
Q

The labor budget of $35,000.00 is for 350
units of work. The work is bid at $35 per hour total
labor cost. What is the unit resource cost for the
work in labor ?
a. a.2.86 hours per unit
b. b.35 hours per unit
c. c.$100 hours per unit
d. d.$35 hours per unit

A 
2.86 hours per unit
𝟑𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟓
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟓𝟎
=. 𝟐𝟖𝟔 𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟔
Total dollars divided by $/hour =
total hours
Total hours divided by total units =
hours per unit
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36
Q

The Remote Resort project has been delayed by unusual rain and road closures.
The rain and road closures in the area normally last for 10 days per year. Your firm
experiences thirty days of closures during the one year project. You are fifteen days
late on substantial completion. The liquidated damages are $1,000 per day. The client
is withholding $30,000 for late completion. In your humble opinion what is the client entitled to in liquidated damages?
a. a.$30,000.00
b. b.$15,000.00
c. c.$10,000.00
d. d.$0.00

A

0

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37
Q

The contract calls for 3011 units. The budget for the work (without overhead or
profit) is $7,200.00 To date 412 units have been installed at a cost of $1,250. What is
the unit cost to date and the expected profit/loss on this unit?
a. a.$2.39, no loss
b. b.$1.75, $1935 more profit
c. c.$3.03, $1935 more profit
d. d.$3.03, $1935 less profit

A

$3.03, $1935 less profit

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38
Q

The labor budget is $33,343 for 2000 cyds of hand excavation. One laborer can
excavate 4 cubic yards per hour and costs $25 per hour. You can do the work with a
machine and one operator. The cost is $400/ 8 hour day for the machine and the
laborer, and the productivity is 25 yards per hour. How much more money will you
make if you use a machine in lieu of the labor?
a. a.$12,500.00
b. b.$4,000.00
c. c.$8,500.00
d. d.$29,343.00

A

c.$8,500.00

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39
Q

What is a good practice for break down and presentation of a building schedule
of values?
a. a.Front end load the work
b. b.Use CSI Codes on the AIA G702 and G703 forms
c. c.Make the list confusing for the clients
d. d.Make custom forms for every project

A

Use CSI Codes on the AIA G702 and G703 forms

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40
Q

What is the AIA form for application of payment?

a. a.A702 and 703
b. b.A201 and 202
c. c.G702 and G703
d. d.A101 and 102

A

G702 and G703

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41
Q

The size of the WBS should generally not exceed _______elements.

a. a.500-1000 elements
b. b.10-20 elements
c. c.5-10 elements
d. d.100-200 elements

A

100-200 elements

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42
Q

Which document is used to request payment for materials?

a. Invoice
b. Bill of Lading
c. Purchase Order
d. None of the above

A

Invoice

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43
Q 
The WBS should be up to \_\_\_\_\_\_ levels deep and each level should be
\_\_\_\_\_\_ elements broad.
a.1-2, 3-4
b. b.3-4; 5-9
c. c.5-9; 10-15
d. d.200-300; 200-300
A

3-4; 5-9

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44
Q

Accelerating a schedule by shortening the duration of the lowest cost activities on
the critical path. The lowest cost installation activities are chosen because even if you
double the cost of the activity it is the least cost method of acceleration. Least cost
activities usually have the fewest expendable resources such as trade hours. This
activity is called:
a. a.Accelerating
b. b.Paralleling
c. c.Compression
d. d.Crashing

A

Crashing

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45
Q

What is the following a definition of?
“Concept of relating future cash inflows and outflows over the life of a project or
operation to a common base value thereby allowing more validity to comparison of
projects with different durations and rates of cash flow.”
a. a.Discounted cash flow
b. b.Cash flow
c. c.Net present worth
d. d.Earned value

A

Discounted cash flow

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46
Q 
What is the normal process used by owners to assure that the work is not
overpaid?
a. a.Waivers
b. b.Schedule of Values
c. c.Retainage
d. d.Notice of Liens
A

Retainage

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47
Q

Activity A is start (0 duration). Activity H is end (0 duration). Activity B is
dependent on A and takes three days. Activity C is dependent on B and takes 9 days.
Activity D is dependent on C and takes 3 days. Activity E is dependent on A and takes 6
days. Activity F is dependent on E and takes 5 days. Activity G is dependent on C and F
and takes 4 days. Activity H takes 0 days and is dependent on D and G.
How long is the critical path?
a. a.15 days
b. b.12 days
c. c.26 days
d. d.16 days

A

16 days

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48
Q

Activity A is start (0 duration). Activity H is end (0 duration). Activity B is
dependent on A and takes three days. Activity C is dependent on B and takes 9 days.
Activity D is dependent on C and takes 3 days. Activity E is dependent on A and takes 6
days. Activity F is dependent on E and takes 5 days. Activity G is dependent on C and F
and takes 4 days. Activity H takes 0 days and is dependent on D and G. How many
days of free and total float does Activity F have?
a. a.0
b. b.2
c. c.4
d. d.5

A

4

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49
Q

Accelerating a schedule by shortening the duration of the lowest cost activities
on the critical path is called __________?
a. a.PERT
b. b.Crashing
c. c.CPM
d. d.BCWS

A

Crashing

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50
Q 
Activity A has two days of free float and two days of total float. Activity A is
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.a non-critical activity
b. b.a negative float item
c. c.on the critical path
d. d.a dangling activity
A

a non-critical activity

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51
Q

6000 units have been installed to date with 9,000 units to install. Labor costs are
$23,300.00 to date. What is the unit cost for labor to date?
a. a.$2.58 per unit
b. b.$15,533.00
c. c.$3.88 per unit
d. d.$23,300.00

A

23300/6000 = 3.88

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52
Q

A WBS system should be ____________.

a. a.highly complex
b. b.either activity-oriented or deliverable-oriented
c. c.based on subcontracting
d. d.built bottom up

A

either activity-oriented or deliverable-oriented

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53
Q

You are a smart owner who understands the trade off between first cost and
maintenance costs. The ten year life cycle cost for a changed parking lot is $100,000
less than the specified product, but the first cost is an add on of $75,000 (capital costs).
You plan to sell the project in one year or less.
Do you accept the change? Why?
a. a.No. Unless the change will be an added selling value. You
can’t get payback in one year.
b. b.Yes, of course.
c. c.No, always go with the lowest cost.
d. d.Yes, always make the best product you can afford.

A

No. Unless the change will be an added selling value. You

can’t get payback in one year.

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54
Q

You are the estimator on a public works project. You are delayed in traffic and
are one minute late for the bid submission. What do you do?
a. a.Submit the bid and protest.
b. b.Call your boss and take the heat for an unaccepted late bid.
c. c.Protest the other bidders had an unfair advantage.
d. d.Insist that the agency take your bid.

A

Call your boss and take the heat for an unaccepted late bid.

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55
Q

Even if the project were to be terminated, some unavoidable costs are already

expended. these costs are called ____________ ?
a. a.Skunk costs
b. b.Sunk costs
c. c.Avoidable cost
d. d.Budgeted work-to-date costs

A

Sunk costs

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56
Q

If a masonry contractor has been given a back charge by a general
contractor, what does this mean?
a. a.The general contractor has given the masonry contractor a
credit for extra work performed in the field
b. b.The general contractor is asking the masonry contractor to
bill for work completed before a contract is signed
c. c.The general contractor is charged for faulty work that
needed repair on a project that was completed two years earlier
d. d.The general contractor is deducting a sum of money from the
masonry contractor’s contract amount

A

The general contractor is deducting a sum of money from the

masonry contractor’s contract amount

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57
Q 
Budgets should have no more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_line items to match the WBS
structure.
a. a.10-20
b. b.200-300
c. c.500-1500
d. d.500-750
A

200-300

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58
Q

Carpenters cost $15.00 per hour direct labor, plus 35% burden. Laborers cost
$10.00 per direct hour plus 35% burden. You have one laborer for every four
carpenters. What is the blended burdened hourly rate per hour?
a. a.$15.00 per hour
b. b.$12.50 per hour
c. c.$18.90 per hour
d. d.$20.25 per hour

A 
c.$18.90 per hour
Carpenters = 4*(15*1.35) = 81
Laborer = 1*(10*1.35) = 13.5
94.5
94.5/5 = 18.90
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59
Q

Quantification of resources needed to achieve a project during a set time frame
and the limit within which the task owners are required to work is called a
________________?
a. a.Estimate
b. b.Schedule
c. c.Specification
d. d.Budget

A

Budget

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60
Q

Quantification of resources needed to achieve a task by a set time, within which
the task owners are required to work is called a _________.
a. a.WBS
b. b.Cost of Accounts
c. c.Budget
d. d.Schedule

A

Schedule

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61
Q

If the work on a project includes 7500 units to install and the labor costs are
$10,000 to date with 300 units installed, what is the expected final cost?
a. a.$25,000.00
b. b.$750,000.00
c. c.$250,000.00
d. d.$225,000.00

A

$250,000.00

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62
Q

Proof that your firm has been paying subcontractors and vendors from previous
application payments is provided through _________.
a. a.cancelled checks
b. b.Schedules of Values
c. c.Waivers of Lien
d. d.Notice of Liens

A

Waivers of Lien

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63
Q

The base rate for labor is $20/hr. Labor burden is 35% with 3% for small tools
for the labor. There are 1000 units to install. Labor can install 10 units per hour, per
trade worker. Owners need to make 15% overhead and profit to pay bills, pay interest
on loans and provide some profit to the partners. What is the profit from the minimum
bid assuming no risk avoidance factor and a 10% overhead?

A

$139.05

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64
Q

The budget is $33,343 for 2000 cubic yds of hand excavation. Labor can
excavate 2 cubic yards per hour. What is the maximum you can pay the labor to do the
work, and how many 10 hour days will it take two individuals to do the work?
a. a.$16.67 per hour and 50 days
b. b.$33.34 per hour and 50 days
c. c.$8.34 per hour and 25 days
d. d.$4.17 per hour and 12.5 days

A

b.$33.34 per hour and 50 days

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65
Q

Subcontractor 1 bids plans and specs with a need for 30 days on site and the use
of the general contractor’s crane at no cost.
Subcontractor 2 bids plans and specs with a need for 25 days on the site and will
supplly his own hoisting equipment.
Subcontractor 3 bids plans and specs with need for 20 days on the site and use of the
general contractor’s crane at no cost.
Each bidder bids $50,125 dollars as base bid.
The crane is worth $2,000 for the lifts and the general conditions costs for the general
contractor are $1,000 per day.
Who wins and why.
a. a.Subcontractor 1 because he is your friend.
b. b.Subcontractor 1 because he will save you $1,000 per day
c. c.Subcontractor 2 because he will supply his own crane
d. d.Subcontractor 3 because he will save you $8,000 over
Subcontractor 1 and he will save you $3,000 over subcontractor 2
( $10,000 in general conditions less $2,000 in crane charges and
$5,000 in gc’s less $2,000 in crane charges.

A

d.Subcontractor 3 because he will save you $8,000 over
Subcontractor 1 and he will save you $3,000 over subcontractor 2
( $10,000 in general conditions less $2,000 in crane charges and
$5,000 in gc’s less $2,000 in crane charges.

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66
Q

The base rate for labor is $15/hr. The labor burden is 35% and 3% for small tools
for the labor. There are 1000 units to install. Records indicate that trade workers can
install 10 units per hour, per trade worker. The owners need 15% overhead and profit
to pay bills, pay interest on loan and provide some profit to the partners. What is the
minimum bid assuming no risk avoidance factor?
a. a.$2830.50
b. b.$619.50
c. c.$2398.62
d. d.$2938.62

A

$2398.62

𝐿𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑟
$15/ℎ𝑟 𝑥 1.35 = $20.25
Tool Burden $20.25 𝑥 1.03 = $20.85
Total labor hours 1000 units/10unitsperhour = 100 hours
100 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 𝑥 20.85 = $2085
$2085 𝑥 1.15 = 2387.75
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67
Q 
Overhead expenses distributed over appropriate direct labor and/or material base
costs are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
a. a.Profit
b. b.Loss
c. c.Burden
d. d.Direct Cost
A

c.Burden

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68
Q

The basement excavation for a home must be 8 feet deep with 1:2 H:V slopes.
The foundation is 30 x 30 with 2 added feet on each side to build the edge form. If the
top of the excavation is level, what is the total excavation in cubic yards?
a. a.486.7 cyds
b. b.13,140 cyds
c. c.429.4 cyds
d. d.858.8 cyds

A

429.4 cyds

A2 = 42 x 42=1764 sf
A1 = 32x32 = 1024 sf
H = 8 ft
Sq root of (1764 x 1024) = 1344

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69
Q

In the case of loss caused by a covered peril, if a car crashes and cuts electricity
for a commercial freezer and the food in the freezer spoils, the costs would be covered
by which of the following?
a. a.Consequential loss or damage
b. b.Subrogation
c. c.Umbrella
d. d.PL & PD

A

Consequential loss or damage

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70
Q

On a project estimate, which of the following items is included as a project overhead expense?

a. a.Field trailer
b. b.Home office rent
c. c.Estimating cost
d. d.Home office supplies

A

Field trailer

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71
Q

The Estimator prices the Contractor’s portion of the estimate,
develops the Contractor’s overhead costs and reviews and selects the
Subcontractor proposal bids to be incorporated into the Contractor’s
proposal
a. True
b. False

A

True

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72
Q

The excavation for a square basement requires a 1:2 H:V slope cut back. The
external dimensions of the footings are 30 x 30 feet. The excavation is 8 feet deep and
you need to add 2 feet on each side to install the footing forms. What is the volume of
cubic yards of excavation?
a. a.11019
b. b.408
c. c.29750
d. d.1224

A

408

V= d/6 [ At + Ab + Am]
Area of top = (43+8/2 x 2) x (34 + 8/2 x 2) = 42x42 = 1764
Area of bottom = 34x34= 144
Area at mid = (34+4/2x2)x(34+4/2x2) =1444

8/6 [1764 +1156+1444]
11594.66 ft^3
429 cubic yards

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73
Q

The borrow pit has 2000 cubic yds of suitable fill. The fill required for the project
is 1900 cyds. The swell factor is 10% and the shrinkage factor is 15%. How much more
borrow do we need? Or is there extra?
a. a.13 yards extra
b. b.13 yards short
c. c.200 yards extra
d. d.161 yards short

A

13 yards extra

Logic tells you that shrinkage factor is
greater than swell factor so there should be
a surplus of soil.
This automatically eliminates answers b
and d.
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74
Q

The cut for a trench is 10 feet deep. The slopes are 1:1. The bottom width is 2 feet
wide. The trench is 100 feet long with vertical ends. What is the quantity of excavation
in cubic yards?
a. a.120 cyds
b. b.44.44 cyds
c. c.444.44 cyds
d. d.1200 cyds

A

87

444.44 cyds

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75
Q

True or False. On bid day, you always use the low bid received
from every subcontractor in compiling your bid.
a. True
b. False

A

F

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76
Q

What are the five phases of Value Engineering?
a. a.Brainstorming Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
b. b.Information Phase, Calculation Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
c. c.Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
d. d.Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Implementation Phase

A

Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,

Development Phase, Recommendation Phase

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77
Q

The plans and specifications for a private project are incomplete, but the owner is
insistent that you put a hard number on the table for the project. What do you do?
a. a.Gather the cheapest subs and put a high price to cover the
contingencies.
b. b.Gather the “best” subs and put a tight price on the job with
a tightly defined set of qualifications and assumptions.
c. c.Gather the “best” subs and put a high bid out to cover
contingencies as a complimentary bid, so that some other
contractor can get the work at a high price to cover their risks.
d. d.Gather the cheapest subs, take the work at the lowest
possible price, claim every minor change and pad the change
orders that are inevitable.

A

b.Gather the “best” subs and put a tight price on the job with
a tightly defined set of qualifications and assumptions.

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78
Q

The right of the insurance carrier to take action to recover the amount of a claim
paid to a covered insured if the loss was caused by a third party is called ___________.
a. a.Negotiation
b. b.Umbrella
c. c.Subrogation
d. d.Litigation

A

Subrogation

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79
Q

What is the required contact area formwork for a free standing wall of concrete
3 feet wide, 10 feet tall and 100 feet long? (Hint free standing means you need to form
the end walls)
a. a.2000 sfca
b. b.2003 sfca
c. c.2030 sfca
d. d.2060 sfca

A

2060 sfca

10x100x2 + 3x10x2 = 2060

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80
Q

When are addendums typically issued?

a. a.After the bid and contract letting
b. b.After the bid and before the contract letting
c. c.Before the bid
d. d.During the construction phase

A

Before the bid

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81
Q

What do bid bonds typically cost the bidder?
a. a.Full contract amount
b. b.5 or 10% of the bid
c. c.1 to 2% of the bid
d. d.Nothing, if the bidder has a regular bonding company
relationship.

A

Nothing, if the bidder has a regular bonding company

relationship.

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82
Q

What is a creative, organized approach with the objective of optimizing life cycle
costs and of the performance of a system, facility, or building called?
a. a.TQM
b. b.ISO
c. c.Value Engineering
d. d.Life Cycle Costing

A

Life Cycle Costing

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83
Q 
The CSI Division that covers structural steel methods and materials is
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.Division 3
b. b.Division 5
c. c.Division 13
d. d.Division 30
A

5

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84
Q

The purpose of through-wall flashing in brick veneer construction
is:
a. a.To prevent water from infiltrating the brick veneer wall
b. b.To assist in carrying load over masonry openings
c. c.To extend continuously through door openings
d. d.Direct the escape of moisture

A

Direct the escape of moisture

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85
Q

The architects scale on a drawing calls for 1:8. You don’t have a 1:8 scale. How
do you measure the quantities?
a. a.Always use one inch of a ruler equals 4 (feet or inches)
b. b.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 40 (feet or inches)
c. c.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 8 (feet or inches)
d. d.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 2 (feet or inches)

A

First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch

of a ruler equals 8 (feet or inches)

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86
Q

The basic distinction between UniFormat and MasterFormat is?
a. a.Uniformat is “building system” based, MasterFormat is
“building methods and materials” based
b. b.MasterFormat is “building system” based, Uniformat is
“building methods and materials” based
c. c.Uniformat is “building process” based, MasterFormat is
“methods and materials” based
d. d.Uniformat is “building materials” based, MasterFormat is
“subcontractor” based

A

Uniformat is “building system” based, MasterFormat is

“building methods and materials” based

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87
Q

The “A-C” stamped on the plywood panel describes its:

a. Intended use
b. Veneer grade
c. Veneer thickness
d. Exposure durability

A

Veneer grade

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88
Q

Toilet accessories are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?

a. a.Division 1
b. b.Division 10
c. c.Division 11
d. d.Division 12

A

10

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89
Q

The specifications call for the spoil to be removed from the work
area. What is spoil?

A

Excess soil on the site

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90
Q

The vertical members of a window support system are called ___________

a. Mullions
b. Muntons
c. Sticks

A

Mullions

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91
Q

A national pricing service says the National price is $12.35 per unit. The
adjusted price adjustment for Los Angeles is 1.15. The price adjustment for Tulsa is
0.94. What is the expected price difference between Tulsa and Los Angeles?
a. a.$0.21
b. b.$2.59
c. c.$2.98
d. d.$0.00

A

$2.59

1.15-.94 = .21
.21*12.35 = 2.59
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92
Q

Bid peddling is also considered ethical under the ASPE Code of
Ethics
a. True
b. False

A

F

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93
Q

You have 25,000 cubic yds to excavate from a pit. The excavation is wet sticky

clay. What type of equipment would be most suitable?
a. a.Pan scrapers with dozer
b. b.Elevating scrapers
c. c.Dozers and front end loaders
d. d.Large track mounted backhoes

A

Large track mounted backhoes

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94
Q

A cut fill grid, has a grid with cut corners totaling 12 feet
and fill corners totaling 4 feet. The grid is 10 x 10 square feet. What is balanced cut or
fill total?
a. a.Cut 15 cf
b. b.Cut 20 cf
c. c.Fill 15 cf
d. d.Fill 20 cf

A 
Cut 15 cf
5 x 5 = 25 x -8 = 200
200 x 2 = 400 = 14.8
27
2 x 2.5 x 2.5 x -4 = -50
2 x 2.5 x 2.5 x +4 = 50/0
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95
Q

Estimates at every level are NOT normally used for_________.

a. a.evaluating options
b. b.establishing bid prices
c. c.planning
d. d.project closeout

A

project closeout

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96
Q

If an owner requires a contractor to supply performance and payment bonds,
and the owner grossly over-pays the contractor without notice to the surety, is the
Surety responsible for paying subs again if the contractor files for bankruptcy
protection?
a. a.No, the owner owes fiduciary responsibility to the surety
and the owner. Overpayment does not oblige the surety in all
cases
b. b.Yes, bonds are like cash.
c. c.Yes, upon demand and notice only.
d. d.Yes, always pay subs first.

A

a.No, the owner owes fiduciary responsibility to the surety
and the owner. Overpayment does not oblige the surety in all
cases

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97
Q

Conceptual estimate contingency carried by the contractor is
intended to
a. a.Cover undefined items in the contractor’s estimate with
respect to quantity and/or work item scope
b. b.Be used by the architect for design features as the drawings
are developed
c. c.Be used by the owner to fund scope changes during its design
phase
d. d.Pay for known conditions at the work site.

A

Be used by the owner to fund scope changes during its design

phase

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98
Q 
111. Conceptual estimates can be what percentage in variance to the expected final
cost and still be reasonable?
a. a.5-10%
b. b.30-50%
c. c.10-15%
d. d.100%
A

30-50%

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99
Q
  1. You hear a rumor that your competitor is having financial difficulties. What do
    you do?
    a. a.Keep this unsubstantiated information to yourself
    b. b.Tell your boss.
    c. c.Tell your own clients.
    d. d.Take this information to your competitors clients.
A

Keep this unsubstantiated information to yourself

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100
Q 
113. According to Section Formating, allowances and unit prices are specified in
what part of the specification section?
a. a.Division 0
b. b.Part 3 Execution
c. c.Part 2 Products
d. d.Part 1 General
A

Part 1 General

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101
Q
  1. You are bidding a public project. The bid form requires an authorized
    signature. During the bid opening, you notice that the low bidder has not signed the
    form. You will be low bidder if the other bid is rejected. What do you do?
    a. a.Nothing
    b. b.Formally protest the bid and ask that the low bidder be
    declared “non-responsive”
    c. c.Go to the press and complain that your competitor (the low
    bidder) is incompetent and shouldn’t be given the work.
    d. d.Report the discrepancy to your bonding company
A

Formally protest the bid and ask that the low bidder be

declared “non-responsive”

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102
Q
  1. You have a chance to support construction research. What do you do?
    a. a.Ignore the opportunity.
    b. b.Tell everyone that construction research is a waste of
    money.
    c. c.Support the research in any way you can
    d. d.Do everything you can to have the research cancelled.
A

Support the research in any way you can

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103
Q
  1. A derrick is a type of ____________?
    a. a.Truck
    b. b.Hoisting equipment
    c. c.Excavation equipment
    d. d.Scheduling term
A

Hoisting equipment

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104
Q
  1. The most recent Masterformat of Estimating Divisions makes what general
    change to the CSI Division Numbering System?
    a. a.Deletes many sections
    b. b.Adds many divisions and three new groupings
    c. c.Changes the present numbering system entirely with no
    numbers remaining the same
    d. d.Deletes over ten divisions entirely
A

Adds many divisions and three new groupings

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105
Q
  1. Ace Concrete from San Diego is working on a project in Michigan. The
    specifications call for 4% entrained air. Ace forgets to have the air entrained. What are
    the ramifications for the owner?
    a. a.None, air entrainment is for pump ability and placing only.
    b. b.The concrete will have diminished capacity to resist freeze
    and thaw and will not last as long as planned in Michigan
    c. c.The concrete will be stronger, as less air means higher
    strength.
    d. d.The concrete will be fine for a longer time as less air
    means more freeze-thaw protection.
A

The concrete will have diminished capacity to resist freeze

and thaw and will not last as long as planned in Michigan

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106
Q
  1. A cofferdam is a?
    a. Structure used to keep water out a normally underwater
    construction site
    b. A hydro power project
    c. A mound of dirt to prevent other materials from moving to the
    other side of the mound
    d. None of the above
A

Structure used to keep water out a normally underwater

construction site

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107
Q

the spacing of studs. Which of these factors provides a larger spacing?

a. a.Face Grain Perpendicular to span
b. b.Face Grain Parallel to span
c. c.Face Grain Parallel to span and smaller stud size
d. d.Face Grain Perpendicular to span and smaller stud size

A

Face Grain Parallel to span

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108
Q
  1. In elevated concrete slab construction, shores are used to:
    a. a.Indicate location of columns
    b. b.Align the reinforcing steel
    c. c.Provide lateral support for the concrete formwork on the
    next floor
    d. d.Transfer construction loads to the lower levels of the
    structure
A

Provide lateral support for the concrete formwork on the

next floor

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109
Q
  1. Escalators are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 9
    b. b.Division 11
    c. c.Division 13
    d. d.Division 14
A

14

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110
Q
  1. Fabric and Art are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 1
    b. b.Division 5
    c. c.Division 12
    d. d.Division 11
A

12

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111
Q
  1. Mechanical trades are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 13
    b. b.Division 14
    c. c.Division 15
    d. d.Division 16
A

15

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112
Q
  1. Office equipment is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 1
    b. b.Division 11
    c. c.Division 10
    d. d.Division 13
A

11

113
Q
  1. Joint Sealants (caulking) is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 6
    b. b.Division 7
    c. c.Division 9
    d. d.Division 4
A

7

114
Q
  1. Lightning protection is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
    a. a.Division 16
    b. b.Division 13
    c. c.Division 17
    d. d.Division 15
A

13

115
Q
  1. ISO stands for?
    a. a.International Standards Office
    b. b.International Standardization Organization
    c. c.International Standardization Office
    d. d.International Standards Organization
A

International Standardization Organization

116
Q
  1. Liquidity ratios do NOT include _________.
    a. a.Current Ratio
    b. b.Quick ratio
    c. c.Debt to Equity
A

Debt to Equity

117
Q
  1. In the context of construction, what does a GMP mean?
    a. a.Gross Material Price
    b. b.Guaranteed Minimum Price
    c. c.Guaranteed Maximum Price
    d. d.Grossly Mistaken Price
A

Guaranteed Maximum Price

118
Q
  1. In what type of construction does the contractor take full responsibility for
    completion of the design and the construction work.
    a. a.Design-bid-build
    b. b.CMAR
    c. c.Unit-price work
    d. d.Design-build
A

Design-build

119
Q
  1. On a U.S. Federal construction project, your firm has been awarded the work
    based on a hard bid. You realize that a bidding mistake means your profit will be
    increased. What do you do?
    a. a.Offer to return the savings to the client.
    b. b.Offer to return the savings to the subcontractors and
    vendors involved in the line item where the error was made.
    c. c.Keep the added profit, as this is part of the risk-reward
    system. Your firm would have to have absorbed a loss if it had
    been discovered after the contract.
    d. d.Give the added profit to charity.
A

Keep the added profit, as this is part of the risk-reward
system. Your firm would have to have absorbed a loss if it had
been discovered after the contract.

120
Q
  1. The Notice of Award and Letter of Intent are the same document
    a. True
    b. False
A

F

121
Q
  1. Meeting of the Minds is inclusive of the concepts outlined below:
    a. An offer is made. Normally the Contractor is required to
    submit a bid proposal on the forms provided by the A/E firm. It
    is also a good practice to standardize the Subcontractor Bid
    Proposal form, which includes a Bid Breakdown Section.
    b. Acceptance of the Offer. The subcontractor receives a letter
    from the contractor indicating that they have been awarded the
    contract and will be executing the subcontract agreement.
    c. Item 1 only
    d. Item 2 only
    e. Item 1 and 2
A

Item 1 and 2

122
Q
  1. On a City Hall project, Acme floor bids plans and specs with a voluntary
    alternate for local pine floors vs. imported pine from Finland. The savings is $25,000.
    Acme is low subcontractor on bid day per plans and specs at $250,000.00. What do you
    do?
    a. a.Use a bid of $225,000.00 and try to sneak the substitute
    product by.
    b. b.Use the bid of $250,000.00 and offer the alternate after you
    are awarded the work.
    c. c.Use the bid of $225,000 on bid day and write in the
    qualification of your bid, as being for local pine floors.
    d. d.Use the bid of $225,000 and try to get another bidder to
    meet plans and specs at the lower price.
A

Use the bid of $250,000.00 and offer the alternate after you

are awarded the work.

123
Q
  1. True or False. Return on equity equals net profit divided by
    equity.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

124
Q
  1. True or False. Safety ratios include Debt to Equity.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

125
Q 
138. The traditional method of letting public construction contracts in the United
States is by what method?
a. a.Design-Build
b. b.Design-Bid-build
c. c.CMAR
d. d.Cost plus a fee
A

Design-Bid-build

126
Q
  1. The voluntary process of creating a cooperative and mutually beneficial team
    out of potential adversaries on a construction project is called ________.
    a. a.TQM
    b. b.ISO
    c. c.Partnering
    d. d.QA/QC
A

Partnering

127
Q
  1. What is the primary difference in contract formation between a
    Subcontract Agreement and a Purchase Order?
    a. Meeting of the minds exists in a subcontract but not in a
    purchase order
    b. There are not any contract differences between a subcontract
    and purchase order
    c. Legal purpose exists in a subcontract but not in a purchase
    order
    d. All of the above
A

Meeting of the minds exists in a subcontract but not in a

purchase order

128
Q 
141. Which of the following items must never be agreed upon utilizing a
form titled Purchase Order?
a. Materials
b. Labor
c. Overhead
d. Rental Equipment
A

Labor

129
Q
  1. True or False. The AIC Code of Ethics allows you to try and
    damage your competitors when you are trying to land a project.
    a. True
    b. False
A

F

130
Q
  1. What is it called when parties choose a third party to settle their disagreement?
    a. a.Arbitration
    b. b.Mediation
    c. c.Litigation
    d. d.Conciliation
A

Arbitration

131
Q
  1. Ace Construction has $2,000,000.00 in current assets. They have
    current liabilities of 1,000,000.00 plus “due on demand” accounts
    payable of $1,500,000.00. What is Ace’s current ratio?
    a. a.1.25
    b. b.1
    c. c.0.80
    d. d.0.60
A

0.80

2,000,000/(1,000,000+1,500,000)= .80

132
Q
  1. A client asks you to provide a price for a project. The price comes in above
    budget. He asks that you go back to the subs and tell them that if they each cut 10% off
    their price, he will award you the project. What do you do?
    a. a.Shop the subs bid until the price is right.
    b. b.Tell the client that the action he proposes is unfair to
    your subs, but that you and the low bid subs will prepare a list
    of options and changes that will bring the price within budget.
    c. c.Agree to the 10% cut, close the deal and then ask the subs
    to change to cheaper products and materials to make the price
    within budget.
    d. d.Take the bid and try to use cheap materials.
A

Tell the client that the action he proposes is unfair to
your subs, but that you and the low bid subs will prepare a list
of options and changes that will bring the price within budget.

133
Q
  1. Your pile driving project is working in Type A soils. During a week long rain
    storm, the local storm sewer district has an emergency relocation across your site. They
    ask you to dig a trench 15 feet deep without shoring. What do you do?
    a. a.Begin the excavation as a Class A soil project
    b. b.Tell the client that the Soil is Class C and have an
    engineer shoring system ready before starting the excavation
    c. c.Begin the excavation as a Class B soil project
    d. d.Begin the excavation as a Class A soil project and send a
    letter to the storm sewer district rejecting any responsibility
    for accidents that might occur
A

Tell the client that the Soil is Class C and have an

engineer shoring system ready before starting the excavation

134
Q
  1. According to AIA documents, if a project is delayed due to
    abnormal weather conditions, which of the following BEST describes the
    liability of the contractor?
    a. a.The owner has to pay liquidated damages
    b. b.The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and not
    additional compensation
    c. c.The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and
    consequential damages
    d. d.The contractor is entitled to compensation due to
    consequential damages
A

The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and not

additional compensation

135
Q
  1. An implied contract term is:
    a. An understood but not written term of contract
    b. A matter of further negotiations
    c. Always a warranty item
A

An understood but not written term of contract

136
Q 
149. Cash and assets that are expected to be used, sold or converted to cash usually
within one year.
a. a.Long term assets
b. b.Current assets
c. c.Quick assets
d. d.Direct costs
A

Current assets

137
Q
  1. Acme and Beta construction form a Joint Venture to perform the work at the
    local Wal-Mart, as subcontractor to Delta Construction. Acme files for bankruptcy and
    ceases operations. What does Delta do?
    a. a.Sends the Joint Venture workers home and does the work
    itself and files a lawsuit against Acme and Beta.
    b. b.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme’s
    bonding company performs the work.
    c. b.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme’s
    bonding company performs the work.
    d. d.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and files a demand for
    payment with the bankruptcy court.
A

Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme’s

bonding company performs the work.

138
Q
  1. A good quick ratio is___________.
    a. a.Way less than one.
    b. b.Around 1.00
    c. c.Around 2.00
    d. d.Near zero.
A

Around 1.00

139
Q 
152. Edwards Deming created a system for improving productivity and quality called
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.ISO
b. b.TQM
c. c.QA/QC
d. d.CPI
A

TQM

140
Q
  1. Edwards Deming was a strong proponent of what management system?
    a. a.ISO
    b. b.MBO
    c. c.TQM
    d. d.AIC
A

TQM

141
Q 
154. Cash receipts and payments in a specified period is called
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.Cash Flow
b. b.Schedule
c. c.Accrual method
d. d.Quick net worth
A

Cash Flow

142
Q
  1. Current Ratio is___________.
    a. a.Current assets divided by current liabilities.
    b. b.Quick assets divided by long term liabilities.
    c. c.Current assets divided by long term liabilities.
A

Current assets divided by current liabilities.

143
Q
  1. In design-bid-build, the plans and specifications are assured to the contractor to
    be what percent complete when the work is let to the low bid contractor?
A

100%

144
Q 
157. In the business organization of corporations, shareholders have
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.unlimited liability
b. b.no financial risk
c. c.limited liability
d. d.bankruptcy protection
A

limited liability

145
Q
  1. For maintenance contracts, what are good methods of contract procurement?
    a. a.Design-bid-build
    b. b.Design-build
    c. c.CMAR
    d. d.Job order contracting and unit price contracts
A

Job order contracting and unit price contracts

146
Q
  1. For unit price contracts, what is used in the schedule of values?
    a. a.Revised lump sum items
    b. b.Bid unit prices and quantities
    c. c.CSI codes
A

Bid unit prices and quantities

147
Q
  1. The specific gravity of water is?
    a. 2
    b. 1
    c. 62.4
    d. 7.34
A

1
specific gravity, which is density divided by the density of water at 4 degrees Celsius and at atmospheric pressure. It follows that water at that temperature and pressure has a specific gravity of 1, but water containing impurities has a specific gravity that varies slightly from 1

148
Q
  1. The standard formwork design tables for concrete assume that the pour rate is?
    a. a.less than 7 feet per hour
    b. b.7-10 feet per hour
    c. c.10-12 feet per hour
    d. d.over 12 feet per hour
A

less than 7 feet per hour

149
Q
  1. The specific gravity of fluid concrete is?
A

2.4

150
Q 
163. The specific gravity of mild steel is 7.85. What does one cubic foot of steel
weigh?
a. a.62.4 pounds
b. b.4900 pounds
c. c.490 pounds
d. d.2.7 tons
A

490 pounds
Most steel weighs about 489 pounds
per cubic foot

151
Q
  1. The transfer of heat directly from one surface to another without the
    intermediate air acting as a transfer mechanism is called what?
    a. a.Radiation
    b. b.Convection
    c. c.Confluence
    d. d.Heat pumping
A

Radiation

152
Q
  1. The transfer of heat through a solid material is called what?
    a. a.Convection
    b. b.Radiation
    c. c.Conduction
    d. d.Heating
A

Conduction

153
Q
  1. The steel frame of a 200 foot long temporary STEEL construction bridge has a
    daytime temperature of 65 degrees F. At night, the steel plunges to 5 degrees F. The
    contractor allowed 0.5 inches of elongated bolt hole. If the bolts in the daytime were up
    against the far end, what happens when the temperature is 5 degrees F?
    a. a.The bridge is fine
    b. b.The bridge has definitely failed.
    c. c.The bolts have torn out the elongated bolt hole is now 0.936
    inches long, if the bridge hasn’t failed.
    Most steel weighs about 489 pounds
    per cubic foot.
    d. d.The bolts have torn out, the elongated bolt hole is now
    0.436 inches long, if the bridge hasn’t failed.
A

The bolts have torn out the elongated bolt hole is now 0.936

inches long, if the bridge hasn’t failed.

154
Q
  1. The transfer of heat by air flow is called ______________.
    a. a.Condensing
    b. b.Radiation
    c. c.Conductance
    d. d.Convection
A

Convection

155
Q
  1. What is ASHRAE the acronym for?
    a. a.American Society of Heating and Air conditioning Engineers
    b. b.American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air
    Conditioning Engineers
    c. c.American Society of Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
    Engineers
    d. d.American Society of Heating and Refrigeration Engineers
A

American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning Engineers

156
Q
  1. What is Hydration?
    a. a.Concrete drying
    b. b.Concrete hardening by chemical reaction
    c. c.Water added to concrete
    d. d.Concrete hardening by water evaporating
A

Concrete hardening by chemical reaction

157
Q
  1. WBT is the wet bulb temperature in degrees ºF or ºC. Wet bulb temperature is
    also:
    a. a.measured using a thermometer with a dry sock wrapped around
    the bulb.
    b. b.measured using a thermometer with a dirty sock wrapped
    around the bulb.
    c. c.measured using an ordinary thermometer. Wet bulb temperature
    lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.
    d. d.measured using a thermometer with a wet sock wrapped around
    the bulb. The air being measured is blown across the sock
    allowing moisture to evaporate. This evaporation takes energy out
    of the air, which has a cooling effect. Wet bulb temperature will
    thus be lower than dry bulb temperatures unless the air is
    saturated (100 percent relative humidity). Wet bulb temperature
    lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.
A

measured using a thermometer with a wet sock wrapped around
the bulb. The air being measured is blown across the sock
allowing moisture to evaporate. This evaporation takes energy out
of the air, which has a cooling effect. Wet bulb temperature will
thus be lower than dry bulb temperatures unless the air is
saturated (100 percent relative humidity). Wet bulb temperature
lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.

158
Q
  1. What information is used to determine the required contact area of
    a reinforced concrete footing resting in soil?
    a. a.Soil bearing capacity
    b. b.Soil compression (psi)
    c. c.Concrete bearing capacity
    d. d.Concrete compression (psi)
A

Soil bearing capacity

159
Q
  1. Which of the following criteria has no meaning in concrete wall form design?
    a. a.Temperature of concrete
    b. b.Height of wall
    c. c.Width of wall
    d. d.Rate of placement
A

Width of wall

160
Q
  1. Young’s Modulus relates _____________________.
    a. a.temperature and humidity on a Pyschrometric chart.
    b. b.shear and moments.
    c. c.stress and strain when a material is in the elastic region.
    d. d.stress and strain when a material is in the plastic region.
A

stress and strain when a material is in the elastic region.

161
Q
  1. What soil testing tool is an accurate and portable instrument for
    the determination of in-situ shear strength of cohesive soils, either
    on-site or on undisturbed or remolded samples in the Laboratory?
A

Pocket trixial

162
Q
  1. What type of soil can be easily penetrated several inches by the thumb and
    molded by light finger pressure?
A

Type C

163
Q 
176. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 25%
Specific Gravity of Soils is 2.00
What is the degree of saturation?
A

100%

(.25 x 2.00) ÷ .5 = 1 x 100% = 100%

164
Q 
177. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of Soils 3.00
What is the dry unit weight?
A

124.79 p/cf

165
Q
  1. DBT is the dry bulb temperature in degrees ºF or ºC. Dry bulb temperature is
    measured with:
    a. a.an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
    vertical lines on a psychrometric chart
    b. b.a special thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
    horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart
    c. c.an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
    horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart.
    d. d.a special thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
    horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart
A

an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the

vertical lines on a psychrometric chart

166
Q 
179. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of the soils 3.00
What is the weight of the solids?
a. a.124.79 p/cf
b. b.62.2 p/cf
c. c.93.6 p/cf
d. d.62.4 p/cf
A

124.79 p/cf

167
Q 
180.If relative humidity is 60% and dry bulb temperature is 70ºF, what is the dew
point?
a. a.56 ºF
b. b.48 ºF
c. c.20 ºF
d. d.30 ºF
A

56 ºF

168
Q
  1. If the dry bulb temperature is 80 ºF and the specific humidity (dew point) is
    60ºF, what is the wet bulb temperature and the relative humidity?
    a. a.Wet Bulb 60ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
    b. b.Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
    c. c.Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 50%
    d. d.Wet Bulb 60ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
A

Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 50%

169
Q 
182.Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of the soils 3.00
What is the wet unit weight?
a. a.124.79 p/cf
b. b.62.4 p/cf
c. c.187.18 p/cf
d. d.93.6 p/cf
A

187.18 p/cf

170
Q 
183. If a concrete wall form is 30 feet high full of fluid concrete, what is the pressure
on the form 10 feet below the top?
a. 4500 psf
b. 1872 psf
c. 624 psf
d. 1500 psf
A

1500 psf

171
Q 
184. The load on a simply supported beam is 500 pounds. The sum of the reaction
loads must be equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. a.250 pounds
b. b.50 pounds
c. c.500 pounds
d. d.5000 pounds
A

500 pounds

172
Q

material is 1350 Pounds per square inch. What is the required Section Modulus of the
shape needed to resist the bending caused by the moment?
a. a.23.11 inches^4
b. b.1.926 inches^3
c. c.23.11 inches^3
d. d.1.926 inches^4

A

23.11 inches^3

173
Q
  1. The amount of air required to completely replace the air in a room or building
    (not to be confused with recirculated air) is called what?
A

Air Change

174
Q
  1. The coefficient of thermal expansion for steel is 0.0000065. The change in
    material temperature is minus 60 degrees F. The steel is 55 feet long. What is the
    change in length of the steel?
    a. a.0.26 inches longer
    b. b.0.26 feet longer
    c. c.0.26 inches shorter
    d. d.0.0215 inches shorter
A

0.26 inches shorter

175
Q
  1. The Moment of Inertia of a shape is 1000 inches^4, the distances from its
    centroid to the outer edge of the shape are 20 and 25 inches. What is the Section
    Modulus of the shape?
A

40 inches^3

176
Q
  1. The process of adjusting the flow of air in duct systems, or water flow in hotwater
    heating systems using accurate instrumentation to deliver the right amount of
    heating or cooling to each area or room of the home is called what?
    a. a.Punchlist
    b. b.Commissioning and Balancing
    c. c.Certification
    d. d.Warranty
A

Commissioning and Balancing

177
Q
  1. The Modulus of Elasticity is 29,000,000 for mild carbon steel. In the plastic
    state, the unit stress is 20000 psi. What is the strain?
    a. 0.0007
    b. b.1450.0
    c. c.145.0
    d. d.1.45
A

0.0007

178
Q
  1. The Moment of Inertia of a shape is?
    a. a.A property of the shape and an indicator of its ability to
    resist bending
    b. b.A relationship to the materials used
    c. c.A property of the material used and an indicator of its
    ability to resist bending
    d. d.Always equal to the number zero
A

.A property of the shape and an indicator of its ability to

resist bending

179
Q
  1. A 10 foot long simply supported beam has a point load of 225 pounds placed 2
    feet from the left end. What is the magnitude of the maximum shear?
    a. a.45 pounds
    b. b.180 pounds
    c. c.225 pounds
    d. d.112.5 pounds
A

180 pounds

180
Q
  1. A 20 foot high wall is poured at the rate of 7 feet per hour using type 1 cement
    without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. The plyform Face
    Grain is Perpendicular to span. Using 3/4” Plyform, what is the maximum stud
    spacing?
    a. a.8
    b. b.10
    c. c.6
    d. d.12
A

6

181
Q
  1. “Fissured” soil means?
    a. a.a soil material that has a tendency to break along definite
    planes of fracture with little resistance, or a material that
    exhibits open cracks, such as tension cracks, in an exposed
    surface
    b. b.very strong soils
    c. c.cohesive soils
    d. d.cohesionless soils
A

a soil material that has a tendency to break along definite
planes of fracture with little resistance, or a material that
exhibits open cracks, such as tension cracks, in an exposed
surface

182
Q
  1. “Mold a moist or wet sample of soil into a ball and attempt to roll it into threads
    as thin as 1/8-inch in diameter. Cohesive material can be successfully rolled into
    threads without crumbling. For example, if at least a two inch (50 mm) length of 1/8-
    inch thread can be held on one end without tearing, the soil is cohesive.”
    What test does this describe?
    a. a.Cohesion
    b. b.Axial
    c. c.Plasticity
    d. d.Torsional
A

Plasticity

183
Q
  1. Acme subcontracting is excavating a trench on a project where you are acting
    as a construction manager. They are stacking the spoils directly adjacent to the trench.
    It is raining slightly. The excavation material is in Type A soil. Acme is treating the
    excavation as a Type C soil. What do you do?
    a. a.Call OSHA
    b. b.Threaten not to pay Acme
    c. c.Temporarily stop the work until the spoil location hazard
    can be remediated
    d. d.Stop the work until Acme treats the excavation as a Type A
    soil
A

Temporarily stop the work until the spoil location hazard

can be remediated

184
Q
  1. A column transfers 80 kips of load to a footing. The soil bearing capacity is
    known to be 1800 PSF. What is the minimum required area of the footing?
    a. a.44.44 square feet
    b. b.444 square feet
    c. c.0.044 square feet
    d. d.22.5 square feet
A

44.44 square feet

185
Q 
without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. What is the
required design pressure?
a. a.1050 PSF
b. b.1500 PSF
c. c.3000 PSF
d. d.105.0 PSF
A

1050 PSF

186
Q
  1. A 30 foot high wall is poured at the rate of 10 feet per hour using type 1 cement
    without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. What is the design
    pressure?
    a. a.4500 PSF
    b. b.1500 PSF
    c. c.1170 PSF
    d. d.624 PSF
A

1170 PSF

187
Q 
200. A round pipe full of water is 100 feet high. The pipe diameter is 2'- 0". What is
the pressure at the bottom of the pipe?
a. a.898,560 PSI
b. b.624 PSI
c. c.6,240 PSI
d. d.62,400 PSI
A

898,560 PSI

WT OF H2O… 1’ of water = .433PSI

188
Q
  1. A simply supported beam ten feet long has a 10 Kip load two feet from the left
    end. What is the maximum moment in the beam?
    a. a.8 kip-feet
    b. b.20 kip-feet
    c. c.24 kip-feet
    d. d.16 kip-feet
A

16 kip-feet

189
Q 
202. A force of 500 pounds is placed at the end of a ten inch long wrench. What is
the moment at the far end of the wrench.
a. a.500 Foot-pounds
b. b.500 Inch-pounds
c. c.5000 Inch-pounds
d. d.50 Inch-pounds
A

5000 Inch-pounds

10 x 500 = 5000

190
Q
  1. A four foot high concrete wall form has fluid state concrete in it to three feet
    high. What is the pressure at the bottom of the form?
    a. a.150 pounds/square inch
    b. b.150 pounds/square foot
    c. c.450 pounds/square inch
    d. d.450 pounds/square foot
A

450 pounds/square foot

191
Q
  1. A unit of measurement used for determining the cooling capacity equivalent of
    12,000 BTUs per hour is which of the following?
    a. a.One ton of cooling
    b. b.One Horsepower
    c. c.SEER
    d. d.EER
A

One ton of cooling

A refrigeration ton is approximately 1 ton
of cooling.

192
Q
  1. A wall form is four-feet high, ten-feet long and ten-feet wide. It is full of fluid
    concrete. What is the pressure at the bottom of the form?
    a. 86,400 psi
    b. 600 psf
    c. 60,000 psi
    d. 60,000 psf
A

600 psf

150 x 4 = 600

193
Q
  1. A simply supported beam ten feet long has a 10 Kip load two feet from the left
    end. What is the maximum shear in the beam?
    NEED PSF OF
    CONCRETE
    A refrigeration ton is approximately 1 ton
    of cooling.
    USE 150#/sf
    a. a.8 Kips
    b. b.10 Kips
    c. c.2 Kips
    d. d.12 Kips
A

8 Kips

194
Q
  1. A two-hundred pound person balances on the end of an upright timber 4 x 4
    (real size). What is the Unit stress applied to the 4 x 4?
    a. a.50 pounds per square inch
    b. b.200 pounds per square inch
    c. c.22.22 pounds per square inch
    d. d.12.5 pounds per square inch
A

d.12.5 pounds per square inch

195
Q 
208. According to the President and COO, RedVector.com's courses are increasing at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
courses per month
a. 300
b. 2000
c. 100
A

100

196
Q
  1. Among other issues, a formal letter should include what? (Choose the best
    answer)
    a. a.Address of the recipient, title of recipient, date of
    writing, signature of author
    b. b.Editorial comments always
    c. c.Unsubstantiated claims about the contract
A

Address of the recipient, title of recipient, date of

writing, signature of author

197
Q
  1. In order to be submittable in court, the daily diary must be?
    a. a.Supported by loose leaf daily reports
    b. b.Written every day, in ink, in a bound book
    c. c.Submitted once a week in loose leaf
A

Written every day, in ink, in a bound book

198
Q
  1. Memorandums are written for __________?
    a. a.External correspondence
    b. b.Internal correspondence
    c. c.Anonymously as letters to file for future reference only
A

Internal correspondence

199
Q
  1. Among other partners, RedVector.com works with ____________.
    a. Indiana State University
    b. Harvard
    c. University of Florida
A

Indiana State University

200
Q
  1. A well run meeting always has _______.
    a. a.strong leadership
    b. b.a brainstorming session
    c. c.a written agenda
    d. d.no need for follow up
A

written agenda

201
Q
  1. The project manager wishes to implement a standard procedure at
    the job site for processing and tracking shop drawings. Which form of
    communication should be required for this effort?
    a. a.Face-to-face
    b. b.Telephone conference call
    c. c.Written
    d. d.Nonverbal
A

Written

202
Q
  1. The daily report is written ________.
    a. a.daily and submitted in loose leaf to the various specified
    individuals
    b. b.in a bound book and kept secret until court
    c. c.with editorial comments about the client
    d. d.anonymously (no signature or attribution)
A

daily and submitted in loose leaf to the various specified

individuals

203
Q
  1. The lobby floor was to receive what type of finish?
    a. a.Ceramic tile
    b. b.Wood flooring
    c. c.Concrete topping
    d. d.No repair work
A

Wood flooring

204
Q

218.You, as a Masonry Subcontractor, recently submitted a bid of $450,000 to a
General Contractor for the masonry portion of a new office building. You
are invited to the General Contractor’s office to discuss the project. In the
midst of negotiations, the General Contractor’s representative is called out
of the room. In their absence, you notice the spread sheet listing all the bids
received including yours. It is apparent from the spread sheet that you are
$22,000 higher than the low bidder. The next highest bidder is $8,000 above
you. What action should you take?
a. Lower your price by $25,000 upon the General Contractor’s return, giving the
reason that you had a chance to re-examine your numbers
b. Be concerned that the spread sheet may be a decoy with the intention of getting
you to lower your price enough to become the lowest bidder
c. Continue negotiating with the General Contractor over price upon the General
Contractor’s return to the meeting, always knowing you have the upper hand
d. Maintain your original price quotation, extol the virtues of your company to be
able to meet the schedule, the high quality of your work and your relationship

A

Maintain your original price quotation, extol the virtues of your company to be
able to meet the schedule, the high quality of your work and your relationship

205
Q
  1. Why does the KISS rule apply to good writing?
    a. a.”Keep It Simple Stupid” is bad because you want to confuse
    the issue to win arguments.
    b. b.”Keep It Simple Stupid” makes the writing clear and concise
    c. c.”Keep It Simple Stupid” means to write long sentences with
    lots of clauses
    d. d.”Keep It Simple Stupid” means you should use words in your
    writing that you and the reader don’t understand so you can prove
    the reader is simply stupid.
A

b.”Keep It Simple Stupid” makes the writing clear and concise

206
Q
  1. True or False. A well run meeting has a written agenda and
    written minutes.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

207
Q

Answer: B
Constructor “Z” is building an addition to an existing pharmaceutical plant of approximately 20,000
square feet. There is space on the site for one more future addition. After installing foundations, Ed, the
Constructors Superintendent, is verifying the dimensions with Jim the Bricklayer crew leader and they
discover that the addition has been laid out 1’ - 0” out of square. All work can still be performed with
very minor field adjustments. The error will compound itself if the future addition ever takes place. Ed
has worked on Mary the Architect’s projects for over twenty years but never for this owner. What should
Ed do?
a. Ignore the error and tell no one
b. Inform Mary the architect only
c. Inform the Owner and Mary the Architect
d. Have Ed, the superintendent, and Jim, the Bricklayer adjust as required

A

Inform the Owner and Mary the Architect

208
Q
  1. The Superintendent supervises and coordinates the daily activities
    of foremen. They plan and schedule the work force, the materials and
    equipment and coordinate the subcontracts to promote an efficient
    construction of the structure at a profit
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

209
Q
  1. Well Run Meetings, Good Communications and Document Control, Good
    Quality Control, and Good Project Closeout Documentation indicate _____________.
    a. a.a poorly run project
    b. b.a well run project
    c. c.a poorly planned project
    d. d.obsessive behavior
A

a well run project

210
Q
  1. The Project Manager has the authority and responsibility for the
    successful completion of the project(s) within the contract time and
    costs considerations.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

211
Q
  1. The shipper of a chiller insists that the shipment left Buffalo, NY two weeks
    ago. He claims to have a Bill of Lading, but no Pro Number. Did the chiller ship?
    a. a.Yes
    b. b.No
A

No

212
Q
  1. What is the simplified version of a trial involving no discovery and having
    simplified rules of evidence where both sides agree on an arbitrator, or each side
    selects an arbitrator and the two arbitrators elect the third to comprise a panel?
    a. a.Mediation
    b. b.Arbitration
    c. c.Litigation
    d. d.Conciliation
A

Arbitration

213
Q
  1. When fabricated reinforcing bars are delivered to the project, a
    project representative should cross-check each item
    a. a.Before moving to the staging area
    b. b.During unloading and storing
    c. c.During installing
    d. d.After installing
A

During unloading and storing

214
Q 
228. What date has been met when construction is completed to the point where it
can be used for its intended purpose?
a. a.Final completion
b. b.Punch-list
c. c.Substantial completion
d. d.Liquidated damage date
A

Substantial completion

215
Q
  1. What is the difference between transmittals and submittals?
    a. a.Submittals are required “for record” such as certifications
    and test reports. Transmittals are required for “approval”
    b. b.Transmittals are not required “for record” such as
    certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
    “approval”
    c. c.Transmittals are required “for record” such as
    certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
    “approval”
    d. d.Transmittals are required “for record” such as
    certifications and test reports. Submittals are not required.
A

Transmittals are required “for record” such as
certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
“approval”

216
Q
  1. Which of the following is the “on the job” representative of a trade union?
    a. a.Steward
    b. b.Crew leader
    c. c.Business agent
    d. d.Superintendent
A

Steward

217
Q 
231. Which of the following terms refers to the complete process of
obtaining materials?
a. Leadtime
b. Expediting
c. Purchasing
d. Procurement
A

Procurement

218
Q
  1. Which document shows the work involved in completing a project in an
    exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of tasks or deliverables?
    a. a.Work Breakdown Structure
    b. b.Estimate
    c. c.Schedule
    d. d.CPM
A

Work Breakdown Structure

219
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most complete list of construction project
    resources?
    a. a.Cash, materials, work space, labor, equipment.
    b. b.Cash, materials, labor, information, equipment, tools, plans
    and specifications, schedules.
    c. c.Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,
    schedules.
    d. d.Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,
    tools, plans and specifications, time, schedules.
A

Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,

tools, plans and specifications, time, schedules.

220
Q 
234. Which position typically assigns the crews, maintains a job diary
and schedules subcontractors?
a. Superintendent
b. Cost Engineer
c. Project Engineer
d. Project Manager
A

Superintendent

221
Q
  1. Who is directly responsible for coordinating subcontractors work on-site, safety
    and cleanup management, as well as direct trade supervision such as concrete, labor,
    etc?
    a. a.Project Engineer
    b. b.Project Manager
    c. c.Project Clerk
    d. d.Project Superintendent
A

Project Superintendent

222
Q
  1. FOB Job Site means the vendor is responsible for shipment of the
    order and ownership transfers from the supplier to the buyer at the job
    site
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

223
Q
  1. In a corporate organization, chart dotted lines signify?
    a. a.Direct reporting
    b. b.Matrix organization
    c. c.Indirect reporting
    d. d.Functional reporting
A

Indirect reporting

224
Q
  1. A rod-buster is a?
    a. Real estate agent
    b. High iron worker
    c. Re-enforcing steel installer
A

Re-enforcing steel installer

225
Q
  1. Common contract clauses that encourage contractors to suggest
    cost-saving changes in the original design frequently state:
    a. a.All savings go to the contractor
    b. b.All savings go to the owner
    c. c.Savings are shared between the owner and the contractor
    d. d.Savings are shared between the owner, designer and
    contractor
A

Savings are shared between the owner and the contractor

226
Q
  1. Purchase Orders are governed by which law?
    a. Uniform Commercial Code
    b. The Davis Bacon Act
    c. National Labor Relations Act
    d. Uniform Transportation Code
A

Uniform Commercial Code

227
Q
  1. The Certificate of Substantial Completion is the substantial
    acceptance of the project which is implemented by a joint inspection on
    the part of the owner’s representative and the contractor.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

228
Q
  1. In contrast to a change order, what is to be used where the owner and
    contractor, for whatever reason, have not reached agreement on proposed changes in
    the contract sum or contract time?
    a. a.Change Order
    b. b.Notice to Proceed
    c. c.Request for Proposal
    d. d.Construction Change Directive (CCD)
A

Construction Change Directive (CCD)

229
Q
  1. Projects typically resemble this type of organizational structure where
    functional/technical experts report directly to one manager and indirectly to the project
    manager responsible for delivery of a project. What is this type of organizational
    structure?
    a. a.Functional
    b. b.Hierarchy
    c. c.Matrix
    d. d.Staff
A

Matrix

230
Q
  1. The form used to contract with a freight company, commonly known
    as a Common Carrier, is called a Bill of Lading.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

231
Q
  1. The lifting superintendent on a project rents a forty ton crane. The lift in
    question is off a truck on to the ground. The crane boom is at its maximum degree
    upright position. The lift is directly in front of the cab, on firm level ground. Parallel
    with the tracks. The trucking company weighed the net load at 86,300 pounds. You are
    the project manager working on a deadline. What do you do?
    a. a.Go ahead with the lift. The added load is less than 8% over
    and the crane is probably underated/overdesigned for safety.
    b. b.Cancel the lift and call for a larger crane.
    c. c.Make the lift very slowly and carefully.
    d. d.Put a fork lift under the load to relieve some of the added
    weight.
A

Cancel the lift and call for a larger crane.

1 Ton = 2,000 lbs

20 x 2000 = 80,000 lbs

232
Q
  1. The Field Engineer or the Project Engineer doesn’t assists the
    superintendent in solving engineering related problems
    a. True
    b. False
A

F

233
Q
  1. The following steps outline a good receiving procedure that all
    job sites should follow:
    a. Count the quantities received and compare with the packing
    list or Bill of Lading for shortages or incorrect materials.
    b. Inspect all deliveries for damages. If visual damage is
    observed, have the driver sign for damaged cartons on the
    delivery receipt, contact the common carrier, request inspection
    before unpacking, and file a claim immediately. If the damages
    are concealed, save the cartons and all packing material and
    contact the common carrier immediately.
    c. Compare the packing list with the purchase order, noting the
    amount ordered versus the amount shipped.
    d. Verify the items shipped meet the requirements outlined on the
    purchase order.
    e. Designate the lay down area where the materials are being
    stored.
    f. Prepare a receiving report indicating the condition of
    material, amount ordered and amount received and send copies to
    Contractor’s purchasing department. You should also notify them
    of any material shortages. Another copy should be sent to the
    contractor’s accounting department for comparing the invoiced
    items to the items received. A third copy should be sent to the
    expediters, informing them that the order has been received.
    Finally, a copy should be sent to the field construction
    personnel, informing them where the order is located.
    g. All of the above
A

All of the above

234
Q
  1. The owners representative has the authority to
    a. a.Supervise the contractor’s employees
    b. b.Negotiate subcontractors
    c. c.Process the payroll
    d. d.Direct changes and/or clarify the work
A

Direct changes and/or clarify the work

235
Q
  1. The organization plan should contain the following:
    a. Be put in writing in the form of a procedure manual.
    b. List all duties for each individual.
    c. Include an organizational chart for the company and each
    project establishing the lines of communication.
    d. Be discussed with everyone concerned.
    e. All of the above
A

All of the above

236
Q 
251. The owner hires the general contractor with a direct contract. Ultimately, who
has QA/QC responsibility to the owner?
a. a.Architect
b. b.Subs
c. c.General Contractor
d. d.City Inspectors
A

General Contractor

237
Q
  1. The benchmark is 00.00. The backsights are 6.00, 9.32 and 13.75 and 14.00 The
    foresights are 6.00, 9.00 and 3.22. What is the height of the instrument? H.I.
    a. a.100.00
    b. b.124.85
    c. c.24.85
    d. d.43.07
A

24.85

238
Q
  1. The benchmark is 100.00. The backsights are 4.00, 6.32 and 12.75. The
    foresights are 6.00, 9.00 and 3.22. What is the elevation of the point?
    a. a.123.08
    b. b.81.78
    c. c.104.85
    d. d.95.14
A

104.85

Point BS H1 FS Ele
BM 4 104 100
Tp1 6.32 104.32 6 98
Tp2 12.75 108.07 9 95.32
Tp3 3.22 104.83

BS + E = H1
H1- FS = New Ele

239
Q
  1. Wood job-made ladders with spliced side rails shall be used at an angle such
    that the horizontal distance is ___ the working length of the ladder.
    a. a.one-quarter
    b. b.one-eighth
    c. c.one-half
    d. d.three-quarters
A

one-eighth

240
Q
  1. A topographical map is a drawing showing
    a. a.Subsurface soil conditions
    b. b.A general profile view of the site
    c. c.Contour lines and elevations
    d. d.Cross sections along the length of the project
A

Contour lines and elevations

241
Q 
256. The gradient is 3%. The sloped distance is 209.00 feet. What is the horizontal
distance?
a. a.209.00 feet
b. b.208.99 feet
c. c.212.00 feet
d. d.209.01 feet
A 
208.99 feet
Easy answer: 3, 4, 5
Triangle. 209 feet would be
on the slope so it would be
the longest of distances.
The only answer below
209, is option b.
242
Q
  1. The known ceiling height is 125.00 feet and the known floor height is 112.32
    feet. You are set up on the floor. The backsight off the floor is 5.85 feet. What should
    the foresight be to the ceiling height?
A

6.83

243
Q
  1. The building is twenty-five feet by twenty five feet. The side line of the building
    and two corners along the line have been staked. What is the diagonal distance and the
    90 degree distance to the other corners?
    a. a.35.36 feet and 25 feet
    b. b.25.00 feet and 35.36 feet
    c. c.25.00 feet and 25.00 feet
    d. d.35.36 feet and 35.36 feet
A

35.36 feet and 25 feet

Easy answer: diagonal distance has to
be longer than the other two sides, so
that eliminates b and c. The description
gave you the distance of the square at
25 feet, so the answer would have to be A.

A2 + b2 = c2
625 +625=1250
𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑜𝑓 1250 = 35.36

244
Q
  1. The design of an outfall sewer requires a 0.5% grade in the pipe. The outlet
    invert is at sea level 0.00’. The sewer run is 6 miles. What is the pipe invert at the end
    of the six mile run?
    a. a.1584 feet
    b. b.158.4 feet
    c. c.1584 inches
    d. d.158.4 inches
A

158.4 feet

6 Miles or (5280’ x 6) = 31, 680’

31,680 x .005’ = 158.4’

245
Q
  1. Where can the centroid of a right triangle be found?
    a. a.On the hypotenuse
    b. b.At a point perpindicular to the legs at 1/3 of the distance
    along either 90 degree leg from the intersection of the legs
    c. c.1/2 of the distance along either 90 degree leg from the
    intersection of the legs
    d. d.1/2 of the distance along either 90 degree leg from the
    intersection of the hypotenuse and the leg
A

At a point perpindicular to the legs at 1/3 of the distance

along either 90 degree leg from the intersection of the legs

246
Q
  1. A “notice to proceed” is a _________?
    a. a.Formal document that tells the contractor to begin work and
    then fixes the start and finish dates
    b. b.Stop work order
    c. c.Field order
    d. d.RFI
A

Formal document that tells the contractor to begin work and

then fixes the start and finish dates

247
Q
  1. The sides of a building are 300 feet long and 200 feet wide. What is the
    diagonal distance between the opposite corners?
    a. a.360.60 feet
    b. b.300 feet
    c. c.306 feet
    d. d.306.6 feet
A

360.60 feet

A2 + b2 = c2
90,000 +40,000=130,000
𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑜𝑓 1250 = 360.6

248
Q
  1. The survey crew is making a differential level run. The benchmark is 532.33’.
    The backsights are 4.00’, 7.32’, 9.25’. The foresights are 3.23’, 7.65’ and 6.32 ‘. What is
    the elevation of the temporary bench mark?
    a. a.537.5
    b. b.532.33
    c. c.535.7
    d. d.528.86
A

535.7

249
Q

A city electrical inspector makes the following statement after discovering that the new condominium
building # 13 of 25 buildings has been drywalled without an electrical inspection. The inspector says to
you, the superintendent, “Gee! It will be pretty expensive to remove all of the drywall. I’d bet it will cost
you at least $5, 000. I’d like to have that kind of money myself!” (You suspect that the inspector is
asking for a bribe.)
a. Contact the building department supervisor and ask to have hidden areas removed
b. Instruct your workers to remove all of the drywall for the electrical inspection
c. Pay the inspector because you don’t want to be bothered with the situation
d. Contact the City Commissioners and the local newspaper and have the inspector
relieved of their duties

A

Contact the building department supervisor and ask to have hidden areas removed

250
Q
  1. An “as-built” project is a ______
    a. Completed project
    b. Proposed building
    c. Partially completed structure
A

Completed project

251
Q
  1. A contractor has suffered compensable delays amounting to 45
    calendar days, in a contract amounted to $2,700,000. During this
    year, the contractor had 5 projects underway and the aggregate value
    was $10,000,000. The contractor’s home office overhead during this
    year totaled $250,000. The duration of this project, including delays,
    totaled 265 days.
    Calculate the home office overhead damages of this claim.
    a. $11,174
    b. $11,462
    c. $21,464
    d. $12,412
    e. $11,422
A

11,462

Overhead per day
$250,000/$10,000,000
= .025 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 $ 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑦
$. 025 𝑥 $2,700,000 = $67,500 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝐻 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
45 days/265 days = .1698 percentage of delay to total
.025 x 2700000 = 67500 x .1698 = $11,462

252
Q
  1. ADR stands for?
    a. a.Alternating current
    b. b.Alternative Dispute Resolution
    c. c.Alternative disruption methods
    d. d.All digging records
A

Alternative Dispute Resolution

253
Q
  1. A portable, factory built ladder is to be used in an excavation 10 feet deep. What
    is the minimum safe length of the ladder?
    a. a.16 feet
    b. b.14 feet
    c. c.10 feet
    d. d.11 feet
A

14 feet

254
Q
  1. “Competent person” by OSHA definition means?
    a. a.One who is capable of reading the OSHA regulations after a
    collapse.
    b. b.One who is capable of testifying to the facts of a collapse
    in court.
    c. c.One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable
    hazards in the surroundings, or working conditions which are
    unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
    authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate
    them
    d. d.any project supervisor on the job
A

One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable
hazards in the surroundings, or working conditions which are
unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate
them

255
Q 
271. A job built ladder is used in a trench six feet deep. What is the minimum length
of the ladder?
a. a.9 feet
b. b.6 feet
c. c.12 feet
d. d.7 feet
A

9 feet

256
Q
  1. Non-self-supporting ladders shall be used at an angle such that the horizontal
    distance from the top support to the foot of the ladder is approximately _______of the
    working length of the ladder (the distance along the ladder between the foot and the
    top support).
    a. a.one-half
    b. b.three-quarters
    c. c.one-quarter
    d. d.one-eighth
A

one-quarter

257
Q
  1. Sediment control is required to_______________.
    a. a.Keep soils on site and out of sewers and rivers
    b. b.Keep site clean.
    c. c.Contain hazardous chemicals.
    d. d.Control on site dust.
A

Keep soils on site and out of sewers and rivers

258
Q
  1. Each employee working at the leading edge in a CDZ shall be
    protected from fall hazards of more than ______ stories or ______ feet
    whichever is less.
    a. a.two, thirty
    b. b.one, ten
    c. c.two, fourteen
    d. d.one, fourteen
A

two, thirty

259
Q 
275. Match the class rating of fire extinguishers with the proper
definition of each class:
\_\_\_ 1. Class D
\_\_\_ 2. Class K
\_\_\_ 3. Class B
\_\_\_ 4. Class A
\_\_\_ 5. Class C
A

N/A - Review

260
Q
  1. The “10 B” rating for a fire extinguisher indicates:
    a. a.Capability to extinguish 10 gallons of flammable liquid
    b. b.Capability to extinguish 10 pounds of combustible materials
    c. c.Capability to extinguish an electrical fire in 10 minutes
    d. d.Capability to extinguish 10 square feet of flammable liquid
    spill
A

Capability to extinguish 10 pounds of combustible materials

261
Q
  1. True or False? Employers shall maintain any material safety data
    sheets that are received with incoming shipments of hazardous
    chemicals, and ensure that they are readily accessible during each
    workshift to employees when they are in their work areas; By reference
    in 1926.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

262
Q
  1. The _________ is responsible for requiring the wearing of
    appropriate personal protective equipment in all operations where there
    is an exposure to hazardous conditions or where Part 1926 indicates the
    need for using such equipment to reduce the hazards to the employees.
    a. a.Employee
    b. b.Employer
A

Employer

263
Q
  1. The minimum clear distance between side rails for all portable ladders shall be:
    a. a.6 inches
    b. b.11 1/2 inches
    c. c.12 inches
    d. d.18 inches
A

11 1/2 inches

264
Q
  1. Where the total length of a climb (on a fixed ladder) equals or
    exceeds 24 feet (7.3 m), fixed ladders shall be equipped with the
    following items:
    a. a.An extra hand hold and a loose rope
    b. b.Ladder safety devices; or self-retracting lifelines, and
    rest platforms at intervals not to exceed 150 feet (45.7 m); or a
    cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each ladder section
    not to exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) in length. Ladder sections shall
    be offset from adjacent sections, and landing platforms shall be
    provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m) (Your Answer)
    c. c.Bungee cords
    d. d.Platforms at every 10 feet
A

Ladder safety devices; or self-retracting lifelines, and
rest platforms at intervals not to exceed 150 feet (45.7 m); or a
cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each ladder section
not to exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) in length. Ladder sections shall
be offset from adjacent sections, and landing platforms shall be
provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m) (Your Answer)

265
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring that all workers on a construction project have
    and use personal protective equipment?
    a. a.Employees
    b. b.Employer
A

Employer

266
Q
  1. Under the workers right to know, they have a right under federal law to be told
    what types of chemicals and other hazardous substances are found in the work place
    and how they should be handled. What document lists what products are made of?
    a. a.OSHA sheets
    b. b.Material Data Sheets
    c. c.Insurance sheets
    d. d.Mechanic Liens
A

Material Data Sheets

267
Q
  1. When portable ladders are used for access to an upper landing surface, the
    ladder side rails shall extend at least ________ above the upper landing surface to
    which the ladder is used to gain access or, when such an extension is not possible
    because of the ladder’s length, then the ladder shall be secured at its top to a rigid
    support that will not deflect, and a grasping device, such as a grabrail, shall be
    provided to assist employees in mounting and dismounting the ladder. In no case shall
    the extension be such that ladder deflection under a load would, by itself, cause the
    ladder to slip off its support.
    a. a.four feet
    b. b.three feet
    c. c.one foot
    d. d.six feet
A

three feet

268
Q
  1. The following is a jumbled list of construction activities. Some of these activities
    can be performed simultaneously. All activities take 1 day.
    “Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in, install plumbing rough-in,
    inspections, insulation, drywall”
    What is the list of critical path activities?
    a. a.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
    install plumbing rough-in, insulation, drywall.
    b. b.Pour slab, install studs, inspections, insulation, drywall.
    c. c.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
    install plumbing rough-in, inspections, insulation, drywall.
    d. d.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
    install plumbing rough-in, inspections, drywall.
A

Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,

install plumbing rough-in, inspections, insulation, drywall.

269
Q
  1. The time available for an activity (or path) to be delayed from its planned
    duration without affecting the project duration is called _______________?
    a. a.Lead
    b. b.Lag
    c. c.Float
    d. d.Crashing
A

Float

270
Q
  1. What activities and analysis do you perform on a forward pass in a PDM?
    a. a.Subtract durations from ES and use lowest dates when paths
    converge.
    b. b.Add durations to ES and use lowest dates when paths
    converge.
    c. c.Add durations to ES and use highest dates when paths
    converge
    d. d.Subtract durations from ES and use highest dates when paths
    converge.
A

Add durations to ES and use highest dates when paths

converge

271
Q 
297. What is the shortening of a project schedule without reducing the project scope,
often resulting in an increase in cost?
a. a.Acceleration
b. b.Crashing
c. c.Duration Compression
d. d.PERT
A

Duration Compression

272
Q
  1. Which of the following items is the least important when laying out a
    construction project CPM schedule?
    a. a.Estimating the trade work and engineering necessary to
    accomplish each task
    b. b.Choosing the project methodology
    c. c.Listing work tasks in a reasonable order
    d. d.Ordering the project trailers
A

Ordering the project trailers

273
Q
  1. What is the following a definition of?
    “Reducing the duration of a project usually by overlapping phases or activities that
    were originally planned to be done sequentially.”
    a. a.PERT
    b. b.Crashing
    c. c.FastTracking
    d. d.Duration compression
A

FastTracking

274
Q
  1. What is the following a definition of?
    “A graphic display of planned and or actual resource usage over a period of time. It is
    in the form of a vertical bar chart, the height of each bar representing the quantity of
    resource usage in a given time unit. Bars may be single, multiple or show stacked
    resources.”
    a. a.Histogram
    b. b.Gantt Chart
    c. c.PERT
    d. d.CPM
A

Histogram

275
Q
  1. After a $15,000,000 bid on a new pump house, you are publicly regarded as
    the apparent second low bidder. The following day one of the subcontractors
    for a $4,500,000 portion of the project calls and asks how they compared
    with their competitors. The Subcontractor is the low bidder to the
    Contractor. What do you tell the subcontractor?
    a. Divulge all and hope to put your competitor at a negotiating disadvantage
    b. Maintain your silence in respect for the other subcontractors who provided
    quotes
    c. Provide the subcontractor a ball park idea where they stood, but don’t be
    specific
    d. Tell him that it is none of their business and hang up on him for bothering
A

Maintain your silence in respect for the other subcontractors who provided
quotes

276
Q
  1. According to the Constructor’s Code of Ethics, The Constructor shall
    insure that when providing a service or advice such advice shall be to treat
    all parties in a fair and unbiased way. What is the best way for a
    Constructor to achieve this?
    a. Fire someone for being considered unethical
    b. Review your mission and goal statement on ethical behavior
    c. Follow the guidelines provided in your employment contract
    d. Don’t engage in any practice which creates an unfair advantage for one
    party
A

Don’t engage in any practice which creates an unfair advantage for one
party

277
Q
  1. According to the Constructor’s Code of Ethics, The Constructor shall not
    maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the professional
    reputation of others. You have just been notified in writing that you have
    not met the minimum score required to pass the Level 2 Advanced
    Construction Applications Examinations even though you have over twenty
    years of experience. What is the Best way to proceed?
    a. Call the Commission office and criticize the poor quality of the examination
    b. Submit a written request to the Commission, postmarked no later than thirty days
    after the notice of failure according to the Appeals Process procedures
    c. Obtain the e-mail addresses of all members and send a letter criticizing the quality
    of the test questions and that certain portions of the examination were wrong
    d. Call the Commission office and ask for hints on how close you were to passing
    and what questions should be appealed. Then provide a solid grounds for appeal
A

Submit a written request to the Commission, postmarked no later than thirty days
after the notice of failure according to the Appeals Process procedures

278
Q

304.The Constructor Code of Ethics principles and standards are stated below.
Which of the following statements are false?
a. The Constructor shall maintain full regard to the public interest in fulfilling their
professional responsibilities to the construction industry.
b. Constructor shall not engage in any deceptive practice, or in any practice that
creates an unfair advantage for the Constructor or another.
c. A Constructor shall maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the
professional reputation of others.
d. A Constructor shall insure that when providing a service that includes advice,
such advice shall be fair and unbiased.
e. A Constructor shall not divulge to any person, firm or company, information of a
confidential nature acquired during the course of professional activities.
f. A Constructor shall carry out responsibilities in accordance with current
professional practice.
g. A Constructor shall keep informed of new concepts and developments in the
construction process relative to his or her responsibilities

A

A Constructor shall maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the
professional reputation of others.

AIC Mock (2 decks)

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