Questions

Question 1

Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing someone with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis:
A) Elevated white blood cell count ankle oedema and right groin pain
B) Left upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting
C)Hypoglycemia, hypertension and hypochondrial pain
D) Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count

Answer 1

B - Left upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting

Question 2

Pain control is an important nursing goal. Which of the following medications would be the drug of choice: 
A) pethidine 
B) Cimetidine 
C) Morphine 
D) Codeine

Answer 2

C - morphine

Question 3

Bill does not drink alcohol because of his religious beliefs. When the physician persists in
asking him about his alcohol intake, bill becomes annoyed. You explain the reasoning
behind the questioning by telling bill that
a) There is a strong link between alcohol use and pancreatitis
b) Alcohol intake can interfere with some of the tests used to diagnose pancreatitis
c) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about their
alcohol intake
d) The physician must obtain the pertinent facts, and religious beliefs cannot be
considered

Answer 3

C) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about their
alcohol intake

Question 4

The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help

a) Destroy the virus
b) Enhance the bodys antibody production
c) Slow replication of the virus
d) Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism

Answer 4

c) Slow replication of the virus

Question 5

When interviewing james, the nurse should anticipate that the most difficult problem is
likely to be
a) Motivating the client to undergo treatment
b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts
c) Increasing the clients knowledge of the disease
d) Assuring the client that records are confidential

Answer 5

b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts

Question 6

in education this client, the nurse should emphasise that in women gonorrhoea

a) is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding
b) does not lead to serious complications
c) can be treated but not cured
d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur

Answer 6

d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur

Question 7

the physician tells the client that the infection has likely been precipitated by sexual
intercourse and that an antibiotic will be prescribed. The client becomes upset, and
tearfully asks the nurse if this means she should abstain from intercourse for the rest of
her honeymoon. What advice should the nurse offer her
a) avoid intercourse until you’ve completed the antibiotic therapy and then limit
intercourse to once a week
b) limit intercourse to once a day in the early morning after your bladder has rested
c) as long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but be
sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse
d) you and your husband can enjoy intercourse as often as you wish. Just make sure he
wears a condom and uses a spermicide

Answer 7

c) as long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but be
sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse

Question 8

which of the following methods would be best, from a legal standpoint, for obtaining
permission to treat Winston
a) having his sister sign the consent form
b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment
c) obtaining a verbal consent by telephone from his mother
d) obtaining written consent from his fiancée

Answer 8

b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment

Question 9

The nurse teaches Elizabeth that which of the following meals would be best for her low
cholesterol diet
a) Hamburger, salad, and milkshake
b) Baked liver, green beans, and coffee
c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee
d) Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk

Answer 9

c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee

Question 10

When assessing josies respiratory status, which of the following symptoms may be an
early indicator of hypoxia
a) Cyanosis
b) Decreased respirations
c) Restlessness
d) Hypotension

Answer 10

c) Restlessness

Question 11

Takayuki reports severe pain and requests frequent medication. A nursing assistant
expresses her surprise, saying, ‘i thought asian people were very stoic about pain. ‘ your
initial course of action should be
a) Reprimand her immediately and apologise to takayuk’s family
b) Discuss her behaviour with her after you leave the room
c) Do nothing as takayuk’s understanding of English is poor
d) Report her to the charge nurse

Answer 11

b) Discuss her behaviour with her after you leave the room

Question 12

In heart defects in which a connection exists between the right and left heart, the
blood through the connective structure flows most commonly
a) Right to left
b) Left to right
c) Bi directionally
d) Through the mitral and tricuspid valves

Answer 12

c) Bi directionally

Question 13

Amy is 3 months old, with a 2 day history of vomiting. Which of the following is
NOT indicative of a decreased hydration status
a) Sunken fontanelle
b) Decreased number of wet nappies
c) Skin that is hot to the touch
d) Increased heart rate

Answer 13

B) skin that is hot to touch

Question 14

Eriksons theory of human development describes

a) Eight psycholocial crises all people are thought to face
b) Four psychosocial stages and a period of latency
c) The same number of stages as frued but with different names
d) A stage theory that is not psychoanalytic

Answer 14

a) Eight psycholocial crises all people are thought to face

Question 15

According to piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally
characterises pre school children is the
a) Preoperational stage
b) Sensorimotor stage
c) Oral stage
d) Psychosocial stage

Answer 15

a) Preoperational stage

Question 16

The cephalo-caudal and proximo-distal patterns of development apply to

a) The upper extremities only
b) Physical growth, but not to motor skills
c) Variations in the timing of mtor skills acquisition
d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth

Answer 16

d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth

Question 17

All infants should have their head circumference measured at health visits. This
measurement is made from
a) Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput
b) The center of the forehead to the base of the occiput
c) The hairline in front to the hairline in back
d) The middle of the forehead through the parietal prominence

Answer 17

a) Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput

Question 18

While caring for a child recovering from viral penumonia, you examine his lungs
for evidence of exudate and fluid. Which finding would suggest cause for concern
a) A respiratory rate of 20 heard on auscultation
b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion
c) A longer inspiratory than expiratory rate noticed on inspection
d) Fine rhonchi heart in the upper lobe on auscultation

Answer 18

b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion

Question 19

To straighten an infants ear canal to examine it, you would pull the pinna

a) Down and back
b) Down and forward
c) Up and back
d) Up and forward

Answer 19

a) Down and back

Question 20

you take an infants apical pulse before administering digoxin. What is the
usually accepted level of pulse rate considered safe for administering digoxin to
an 8 month old baby
a) 60 bpm
b) 80 bpm
c) 100 bpm
d) 150 bpm

Answer 20

b) 80 bpm

Question 21

Which of the following statements is NOT true of bacterial meningitis

a) Bacterial meningitis often presents with flu like symptoms initially
b) A rash may or may not be present
c) There is usually no associated temperature rise
d) A rash, if present, does not blanch under direct pressure

Answer 21

c) There is usually no associated temperature rise

Question 22

During the acute state of meningitis, a 3 year old child is restless and irritable.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute
a) Hemorrhagic skin rash
b) Edema
c) Cyanosis
d) Dyspnea on exertion

Answer 22

a) Hemorrhagic skin rash

Question 23

A 10 year old child with a history of asthma uses an inhaled bronchodilator only
when needed. He takes no other medications routinely. His best peak expiratory
flow rate is 270 L/min. the childs current peak flow reading is 180 L/min. the
nurse interprets this reading as indicating which of the following
a) The childs asthma is under good control, so the routine treatment plan
should continue
b) The child needs to start a short acting inhaled B2 agonist medication
c) This is medical emergency requiring a trip to the emergency department for
treatment
d) The child needs to begin treatment with inhaled cromolyn sodium (intal) for
asthma control

Answer 23

b) The child needs to start a short acting inhaled B2 agonist medication

Question 24

After talking with the parents of a child with downs syndrome, which of the
following would the nurse identify as an appropriate goal for care of the child
a) Encouraging self care skills in the child
b) Teaching the child something new every day
c) Encouraging more lenient behaviour limits for the child
d) Achieving age appropriate social skills

Answer 24

d) Achieving age appropriate social skills

Question 25

Which of the following statements obtained from the nursing history of a toddler
would alert the nurse to suspect the child has had a febrile seizure
a) The child has had a low grade fever for several weeks
b) The family history is negative for convulsions
c) The seizure resulted in respiratory arrest
d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection

Answer 25

d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection

Question 26

The nurse judges that the mother understands the term cerebral palsy when she
describes it as a term applied to impaired movement resulting from which of the
following
a) Injury to the cerebrum caused by viral infection
b) Malformed blood vessels in the ventricles caused by inheritance
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
d) Inflammatory brain disease caused by metabolic imbalances

Answer 26

c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury

Question 27

In preparation for discharge, the nurse teaches the mother of an infant
diagnosed with bronchiolitis about the condition and its treatment. Which of the
following statements by the mother indicates successful teaching
a) I need to be sure to take my childs temperature everyday
b) I hope I don’t get a cold from my child
c) Next time my child gets a cold I need to listen to the chest
d) I need to wash my hands more often

Answer 27

d) I need to wash my hands more often

Question 28

When developing the plan for care for a child with early duchennes muscular
dystrophy, which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary
nursing goal for the child
a) Encouraging early wheelchair use
b) Fostering social interactions
c) Maintaining function of unaffected muscles
d) Prevent circulatory impairment

Answer 28

c) Maintaining function of unaffected muscles

Question 29

Which of the following would be an important assessment finding for an 8 month
old infant admitted with severe diarrhea
a) Absent bowel sounds
b) Pale yellow urine
c) Normal skin elasticity
d) Depressed anterior fontanel

Answer 29

d) Depressed anterior fontanel

Question 30

When obtaining the initial health history from a 10 year old child with
abdominal pain and suspected appendicitis, which of the following questions
would be most helpful in eliciting data to help support the diagnosis
a) Where did the pain start
b) What did you do for the pain
c) How often do you have a bowel movement
d) Is the pain continuous or does it let up

Answer 30

a) Where did the pain start

Question 31

The stool culture of a child with profuse diarrhea reveals salmonella bacilli.
After teaching the mother about the course of salmonella enteritis, which of the
following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching
a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time
b) After the acute state passes, the organism is usually not present I nthe stool
c) Although the organism may be alive indefinitely, in time it will be of no
danger to anyone
d) If my child continues to have the organism in the stool, an antitoxin can help
destroy the organism

Answer 31

a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time

Question 32

Which of the following age groups are most susceptible to meningococcal
meningitis
a) Children below 5 years of age
b) Children between 3.6 years (preschool)
c) School age children
d) Adolescents

Answer 32

a) Children below 5 years of age

Question 33

A parent asks, can I get head lice too. The nurse indicates that adults can also be
infested with head lice but that pediculosis is more common among school
children, primarily for which of the following reasons
a) An immunity to pediculosis usually is established by adulthood
b) School aged children tend to be more neglectful of frequent hand washing
c) Pediculosis usually is spread by close contact with infected children
d) The skin of adults is more capable of resisting the invasion of lice

Answer 33

c) Pediculosis usually is spread by close contact with infected children0

Question 34

People who have a personality disorder

a) Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
b) Become psychotic under severe stress
c) Are known as borderline personalities
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Answer 34

d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Question 35

Neurotic disorders are associated with

a) Inadequacy and poor stress management
b) Maladaptive behaviour related to anxiety
c) Inability to cope with demands and perceived stress
d) Family patterns of inappropriate behaviour

Answer 35

c) Inability to cope with demands and perceived stress

Question 36

Which of the following statements about tardive dyskinesia is true
a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication
b) Symptoms will diminish as the client adjusts to long term treatment
c) Clients are seldom concerned abut features of tardive dyskinesia
d) Antiparkinsonian medication will suppress the main features of tardive
dyskinsesia

Answer 36

a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication

Question 37

the most common features of chronic organic psychosis are

a) fluctuating confusion and disorientation
b) persistent elated mood and hyperactivity
c) thought blocking and concrete thinking
d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation

Answer 37

d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation

Question 38

phobia is best described as

a) a fear related to an identifiable traumatic event in ones life
b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object
c) a series of repetitive behaviours designed to relieve anxiety
d) a general sense of impending doom

Answer 38

b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object

Question 39

While watching television in the lounge a client says quickly and abruptly to the
nurse, the sun is shining in virginia. My son is in Virginia. Whos afraid of
Virginia wolf. Which of the following is this statement an example of
a) Concrete thinking
b) Flight of ideas
c) Word salad
d) Depersonalisation

Answer 39

b) Flight of ideas

Question 40

In planning the care of for the elated client a primary aim is to

a) Encourage interpersonal contact
b) Provide a non stimulating environment
c) Demand that the client follow rules
d) Accept and understand the behaviour

Answer 40

b) Provide a non stimulating environment

Question 41

For a client suffering from mania who is unable to sleep the best approach is to
a) Fully involve the client in physical activites and exercise programmes during
daytime
b) Encourage the client to talk about underlying feelings or stressors
c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic
medication
d) Place in seclusion using medication only as a last resort

Answer 41

c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic
medication

Question 42

A client who is subject to a community treatment order section 29 of the mental
health act (1992) must
a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center
b) Report on a weekly basis to a community mental health centre
c) Return to hospital after a period of three months for a psychiatric assessment
d) Name a primary caregiver who will accept responsibility for the clients care
and supervision

Answer 42

a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center

Question 43

Following an automobile accident involving a fatality and a subsequent arrest for
speeding, a client has amnesia for the events surrounding the accident. This is an
example of the defense mechanism known as
a) Projection
b) Repression
c) Dissociation
d) Suppression

Answer 43

c) Dissociation

Question 44

People who have a personality disorder

a) Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
b) Become psychotic under severe stress
c) Are known as borderline personalities
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Answer 44

d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others

Question 45

Cultural considerations in the use of seclusion include
a) Use of seclusion only after consent has been obtained form the appropriate
cultural representatives
b) Listening to advice from staff of the clients culture or form the clients family
c) Having an appropriate cultural representative available each time the
seclusion room is entered
d) Ensuring that only staff from the clients culture participate in caring for any
client in seclusion

Answer 45

c) Having an appropriate cultural representative available each time the
seclusion room is entered

Question 46

Anticholinergic side effects are common with all the following except

a) Diazepam
b) Benztropine
c) Amitriptyline
d) Thioridazine

Answer 46

a) Diazepam

Question 47

Which of the following is the main reason for giving depot injections of
antipsychotic medication
a) They are more effective than oral medication
b) They overcome the problem of non adherence
c) Side effects are not as common
d) They are easier to administer than oral medication

Answer 47

b) They overcome the problem of non adherence

Question 48

A client with post traumatic stress disorder says ‘I should have been killed with
the rest of them. Why am I alive’ - The best way to report the clients statement (in previous question) in the nursing
notes would be
a) Client has no insight into their situation
b) Client is questioning why they are still alive
c) Client is expressing suicidal ideas
d) Client feels responsible for death of others

Answer 48

b) Client is questioning why they are still alive

Question 49

Intervention with an angry client who is threatening violence involves

a) Asking the client to express their feelings verbally
b) Maintaining silence to avoid any escalation of anger
c) Asking the client what has happened to make them so angry
d) Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do

Answer 49

d) Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do

Question 50

The highest priority nursing action relative to alcohol withdrawal delirium
would be
a) Orientation to reality
b) Application of restraints
c) Identification and social supports
d) Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

Answer 50

d) Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

Question 51

In teaching about cancer prevention, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise,
normal body weight, and low fat diet because
a) General aerobic health is an important defense against cellular mutation
b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of
cancer can be decreased
c) People who are overweight usually consume large amounts of fat, which is a
chemical carcinogen
d) The development of fatty tumors, such as lipomas, is increased when there is
an abundance of fatty tissue

Answer 51

b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of
cancer can be decreased

Question 52

steve, 15 years old, is admitted with suspected meningitis. Nuchal rigidity will not
be seen in which of the following
a) intracranial haematoma
b) meningitis
c) cerebral concussion
d) intracranial tumour

Answer 52

c) cerebral concussion

Question 53

a positive Mantoux test indicates

a) the client has active tuberculosis
b) the client has been exposed to mycobacterium
c) the client will never have tuberculosis
d) the client has been infected with mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 53

b) the client has been exposed to mycobacterium

Question 54

When a trauma victim expresses fear that AIDS may develop as a result of a
blood transfusion, the nurse should explain that
a) Blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus
b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk
c) The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern
d) Consideration should be given to donating own blood for transfusion

Answer 54

b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk

Question 55

When a disaster occurs, the nurse may have to treat mass hysteria first. The
person or persons to be cared for immediately would be those in
a) Panic
b) Coma
c) Euphoria
d) Depression

Answer 55

a) Panic

Question 56

After teaching the parents about the cause of ringworm of the scalp (tinea
capitis), which of the following, if stated by the father, indicates successful
teaching
a) Over exposure to the sun
b) Infestation with a mite
c) Fungal infection of the scalp
d) An allergic reaction

Answer 56

c) Fungal infection of the scalp

Question 57

What is the responsibility of the nurse who, for two days, has observed the nurse
manager putting several syringes into her pocket
a) Report the matter to another nurse manager
b) Discuss the matter with your nursing colleagues
c) Watch the nurse manager to see if it happens again
d) Ignore the incident as a nurse manager is a responsible person

Answer 57

a) Report the matter to another nurse manager

Question 58

You are taking neils recordings when he appears to have a seizure. What nursing
intervention would best assist neil
a) Describing and recording the seizure activity observed
b) Restraining neil in order to prevent self harm
c) Placing a tongue blade between his teeth
d) Suctioning neil to prevent aspiration

Answer 58

a) Describing and recording the seizure activity observed

Question 59

If you are with someone who has a grand mal seizure, you should

a) Loosen the clothing about their neck and wrist
b) Turn their head to the side to facilitate drainage of secretions
c) Remove nearby objects to protect their extremities from injury
d) All of the above

Answer 59

d) All of the above

Question 60

When performing a cultural assessment with a patient of a different culture, it is
important for the nurse to first ask about the patients
a) Racial heritage
b) Use of cultural healers
c) Language spoken at home
d) Affiliation with a cultural group

Answer 60

c) Language spoken at home

Question 61

A young man seeks medical care after a friend with whom he shared needles
during illicit drug use develops hepatitis B. to provide immediate protection
from infection, the nurse expects to administer
a) Corticosteroids
b) Gamma globulin
c) Hepatitis b vaccine
d) Fresh frozen plasma

Answer 61

c) Hepatitis b vaccine

Question 62

For the nursing council to find a registered nurse guilty of negligence, it would
have to prove that the nurse
a) Failed to do what another careful registered nurse would have done in a
similar situation
b) Did not give competent care as defined by colleagues with the same level of
experience
c) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO standards
for nursing practice
d) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO code of
practice for nurses

Answer 62

c) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO standards
for nursing practice

Question 63

Ageism is an important concept for the nurse to understand because it

a) May damage the self esteem of the elderly
b) Increases social awareness of the needs of the elderly
c) Provides statistical information regarding the elderly population
d) Promotes consideration of the diversity of the elderly population

Answer 63

a) May damage the self esteem of the elderly

Question 64

For the nursing council to find a registered nurse guilt of malpractice following
an assault on a client, it would have to prove that the nurse
a) Intended to cause bodily harm to the client
b) Actually assaulted the client
c) Did not establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
d) Committed a felony against the client

Answer 64

a) Intended to cause bodily harm to the client

Question 65

The nurse judges that the mother understands the term cerebral palsy when she
describes it as a term applied to impaired movement resulting from which of the
following
a) Injury to the cerebrum caused by viral infection
b) Malformed blood vessels in the ventricles caused by inheritance
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
d) Inflammatory brain disease caused by metabolic imbalances

Answer 65

c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury

Question 66

The first symptom of gonorrhoea is usually

a) Lower abdominal pain
b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals
c) Purulent vaginal discharge in the female
d) Urethral discharge in the male

Answer 66

d) Urethral discharge in the male

Question 67

The first symptom of syphilis is

a) A generalised rash all over the body
b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals
c) Abdominal pain in the male
d) Purulent vaginal discharge

Answer 67

b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals

Question 68

The long term consequences of Chlamydia is most likely to be

a) Menorrhagia
b) Chronic vaginitis
c) Chronic cervicitis
d) Sterility

Answer 68

c) Chronic cervicitis

Question 69

When describing the effects of insulin on the body to a patient newly diagnosed
with diabetes mellitus, the best explanation by the nurse is
a) Insulin promotes the breakdown of fatty tissue into triglycerides, which can
be used for energy
b) When proteins are taken into the body, insulin promotes their breakdown
and conversion to fats
c) Insulin stimulates the conversion of stored sugars into blood glucose and the
conversion of proteins into glucose
d) When carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are eaten, insulin promotes cellular
transport and storage of all these nutrients

Answer 69

d) When carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are eaten, insulin promotes cellular
transport and storage of all these nutrients

Question 70

Two days after the fracture of his femur, a client suddenly complains of chest pain
and dyspnea. The nurse also notes some confusion and an elevated temperature.
Based on these assessment findings, the nurse suspects which of the following
complications
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Fat embolism syndrome
c) Venous thrombosis
d) Compartment syndrome

Answer 70

b) Fat embolism syndrome

Question 71

Which of the following post operative complications may be avoided by pre
operative teaching
a) Wound infection
b) Wound dehiscence
c) Hypostatic pneumonia
d) Hypovolaemic shock

Answer 71

c) Hypostatic pneumonia

Question 72

Haemorrhage during the first 12 hours post operatively is termed

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Intermediary
d) Reactionary

Answer 72

c) Intermediary

Question 73

Mary aged 45 years is admitted to the ward for planned surgery. Mary smokes 20
cigarettes a day and drinks three glasses of wine every evening
The significance of this information for you is so that you
a) May teach deep breathing and coughing and relaxation techniques in
preparation for surgery
b) Be aware of a potentially addictive personality when planning her pain relief
post operatively
c) Can assist her to break her smoking and drinking habits when in hospital
d) May plan to include cigarettes and alcohol in her post operative regime

Answer 73

c) Can assist her to break her smoking and drinking habits when in hospital

Question 74

The physical law explaining the greatly increased venous return accompanying
mild vasoconstriction underlies the use of
a) Adrenaline in treating shock
b) Rotating tourniquets in pulmonary oedema
c) Sympathetomy in treating hypertension
d) Digoxin to increase cardiac output

Answer 74

a) Adrenaline in treating shock

Question 75

The client with unresolved oedema is most likely to develop

a) Thrombus formation
b) Tissue ischaemia
c) Proteinaemia
d) Contractures

Answer 75

b) Tissue ischaemia

Question 76

The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is

a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Chloride

Answer 76

c) Potassium

Question 77

Since mr saul has right hemiplegia the nurse contributes to his rehabilitation by

a) Making a referral to the physio therapist
b) Not moving the affected arm and leg unless necessary
c) Beginning active exercise
d) Positioning mr saul to prevent deformity and decubiti

Answer 77

d) Positioning mr saul to prevent deformity and decubiti

Question 78

Mr sauls emotions responses to his illness would probably be determined by

a) His premobid personality
b) The location of his lesion
c) The care he is receiving
d) His ability to understand his illness

Answer 78

d) His ability to understand his illness

Question 79

Additional nursing care for sue after the original lip repair would include

a) Placing the baby in a semi sitting position
b) Keeping the infant from crying
c) Spoon feeding for the first two days after surgery
d) Keeping the baby nil per mouth

Answer 79

c) Spoon feeding for the first two days after surgery

Question 80

Pitting oedema in the lower extremities occurs with this problem because of the
a) Increase in tissue colloid osmotic pressure
b) Increase in the tissue hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary
bed
c) Decrease in the plasma colloid osmotic pressure
d) Increase in the plasma hydrostatic pressure at the venous end of the capillary
beds

Answer 80

b) Increase in the tissue hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary
bed

Question 81

Mrs smith is hosptialised with coronary heart disease. She is receiving IV fluids,
her vital signs are checked 4 hourly. She is on bed rest. She was also prescribed
digoxin. She does not seem to be acutely sick but her prognosis is guarded. Mrs
smith asks what the coronary arteries have to do with her angina. In determining
the answer, the nurse should take into consideration that coronary arteries
a) Carry reduced oxygen content blood to the lungs
b) Carry blood from aorta to the myocardium
c) Supply blood to the endocardium
d) Carry high oxygen blood from the lungs towards the heart

Answer 81

b) Carry blood from aorta to the myocardium

Question 82

In shock, one of the best indicators of blood flow to viral organs is

a) Rate of blood and fluid administration
b) Blood pressure
c) The colour and temperature
d) Urine output

Answer 82

b) Blood pressure

Question 83

Oliguria, an early sign of shock, occurs for what reason

a) Cessation of glomerular filtration
b) Acute tubular necrosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Sympathetic stimulation

Answer 83

b) Acute tubular necrosis

Question 84

In a client with emphysema, hypoventilation could initially cause

a) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 84

b) Respiratory acidosis

Question 85

• A district nurse is sent to assess a new client with cor pulmonale. This term refers to

a) Enlargement of the pulmonary artery
b) Enlargement of the right ventricle
c) Atrophy of the right ventricle
d) Giant bullae growth on the lung

Answer 85

b) Enlargement of the right ventricle

Question 86

Mary a 46 year old woman, is admitted to your ward with a chest infection due to an
exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A person with emphysema is
susceptible to respiratory infections primarily because
a) Failure of his bone marrow to produce phagocytic white blood cells
b) Retention of tracheobronchial secretions
c) Decreased detoxification of body fluids by compressed liver cells
d) Persistent mouth breathing associated with dyspnoea

Answer 86

b) Retention of tracheobronchial secretions

Question 87

A comminuted fracture is characterised by

a) A partial break in bone continuity
b) Injury in which two bones are crushed together
c) An injury in which the bone is broken into two or more pieces
d) An injury in which the bone fragments have broken through the skin

Answer 87

c) An injury in which the bone is broken into two or more pieces

Question 88

• Macrovascular complications of diabetes

a) Occur shortly after the onset of the disease
b) Affects coronary, peripheral and cerebral circulation
c) Affects the eyes and the kidneys
d) Affects sensorimotor and autonomic nerves

Answer 88

b) Affects coronary, peripheral and cerebral circulation

Question 89

Papillary dilation occurs when herniating brain tissue

a) Compresses the occulomotor nerve
b) Chokes the optic disks
c) Stretches the optic nerve
d) Paralyses the occulare muscles

Answer 89

a) Compresses the occulomotor nerve

Question 90

• The action of ACE inhibitors (angiotensin converting enzyme) is

a) Increased urinary output, therefore decreased blood pressure
b) Relax blood vessels, therefore decreased vascular resistance
c) Strengthens cardiac contraction, therefore increase cardiac output
d) Relax cardiac muscle therefore decrease heart rate

Answer 90

a) Increased urinary output, therefore decreased blood pressure

Question 91

• Loop diuretics act by

a) Increasing the blood flow to the glomerular network
b) Decreasing the blood flow to the kidneys therefore decreased urinary output
c) Increased H2O reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules of the nephron
d) Inhibition complex active pump mechanism therefore increase excretion of electrolytes

Answer 91

d) Inhibition complex active pump mechanism therefore increase excretion of electrolytes

Question 92

• The areas of the body that sense blood pressure are known as

a) Baroreceptors
b) Chemoreceptors
c) Viscoreceptors
d) None of these

Answer 92

a) Baroreceptors

Question 93

At any given moment, the systemic circulation contains about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the
total blood volume
a) 10%
b) 51%
c) 71%
d) 91%

Answer 93

c) 71%

Question 94

Nursing intervention necessary prior to the administration of digoxin is

a) Palpation of arterial pulse less than 60 bpm
b) Palpation of venous pulse less than 60 bpm
c) Palpation of arterial pulse greater than 60 bpm
d) Palpation of pedal pulse less than 60 bpm

Answer 94

c) Palpation of arterial pulse greater than 60 bpm

Question 95

• Left sided heart failure affectsdirectly the

a) Liver and extremities
b) Lungs
c) Levels of consciousness
d) Lungs and extremities

Answer 95

b) Lungs

Question 96

Define a cerebral vascular accident (CVA)

a) Sudden loss of consciousness due to a decreased contractility of the cardia
b) Loss of brain function due to disruption of blood supply to the brain
c) Intermittent spasms of blood vessels interrupting blood flow to the brain
d) Neurologic dysfunction due to diminished blood flow to the cranium

Answer 96

b) Loss of brain function due to disruption of blood supply to the brain

Question 97

The term blue bloater refers to
a) Decreased erythropoietin production therefore decreased 02 carrying capability of the
RBC
b) Polycythemia and cyanosis from right ventricular failure
c) Cyanosis due to decreased RBC production
d) Increased BP due to high blood volume or fluid overload

Answer 97

b) Polycythemia and cyanosis from right ventricular failure

Question 98

Bronchitis is

a) Results from a breakdown in the normal lung defence mechanisms
b) Destruction of alveolar
c) Due to enlarged terminal non respiratory bronchioles and alveolar walls
d) History of daily productive cough that last at least 3 months, for 2 years

Answer 98

a) Results from a breakdown in the normal lung defence mechanisms

Question 99

Emphysema is characterised by

a) Fat people due to decreased activity tolerance
b) Unproductive cough and pursed lip breathing
c) Pursed lip breathing and productive cough
d) Blue bloater, normal skin colour and rapid respirations

Answer 99

b) Unproductive cough and pursed lip breathing

Question 100

• Pursed lip and diaphragmatic breathing

a) Calms the anxious client
b) Speed up slow respirations and used to promote effective coughing
c) Prevents bronehiolar collapse and air trapping
d) Encourages longer inhalation and faster exhalation

Answer 100

c) Prevents bronehiolar collapse and air trapping

Question 101

• Diabetes is

a) An exocrine disorder
b) Decreased production of insulin by the liver
c) An endocrine disorder
d) Decreased secretion of insulin by the alpha cells in the pancreas

Answer 101

c) An endocrine disorder

Question 102

Angina is

a) Caused by a sudden blockage of one of the coronary arteries
b) Caused by anaerobic metabolism exciting pain receptors
c) Causes cardiac tissue necrosis and scaring
d) Interferes with cardiac contractility

Answer 102

a) Caused by a sudden blockage of one of the coronary arteries

Question 103

• Manifestations of an MI are a) Bradycardia

b) Necrosis of a portion of the myocardium
c) Treated only by bypass surgery
d) Not seen on an ECG for 24 hours

Answer 103

b) Necrosis of a portion of the myocardium

Question 104

Problems associated with CRF are

a) Polycythemia
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Accentuated sex drive
d) Reduced healing, susceptibility to infections

Answer 104

d) Reduced healing, susceptibility to infections

Question 105

Side effects of radiotherapy include

a) Burns, lethargy
b) Alopecia
c) Increased rate of cell division
d) Increased WBC production

Answer 105

a) Burns, lethargy

Question 106

Cancer clients pain is assessed by

a) The doctor
b) The health care team
c) The client
d) The family

Answer 106

b) The health care team

Question 107

If paracetamol is no longer effective in the treatment of malignant pain

a) Strong opioids are prescribed
b) The end is near
c) Weak opioids and/or NSAIDS may be prescribed
d) The client needs hospitalisation for pain control

Answer 107

c) Weak opioids and/or NSAIDS may be prescribed

d) The client needs

Question 108

Uraemia is a clinical syndrome associated with

a) Retention of urea and other nitrogenous wastes
b) The presence of urine in the blood
c) The presence of blood in the urine
d) High ammonia excretion

Answer 108

a) Retention of urea and other nitrogenous wastes

Question 109

• The fluid outside the vascular system, which surrounds tissue cells, and which includes lymph
is called
a) Interstitial fluid
b) Extracellular fluid
c) Intravascular fluid
d) Intracellular fluid

Answer 109

a) Interstitial fluid

Question 110

• When there is a decrease in blood volume (as in dehydration or blood loss), the body reacts
by retaining sodium and thus water. This occurs mainly as a result of adrenal gland secretion
of
a) Aldosterone
b) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c) Cortisol
d) Parathyroid hormone

Answer 110

a) Aldosterone

Question 111

• The nurse should assess carefully for hypervolaemia, (fluid volume excess) when working
with the client with
a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Kidney failure
c) Decreased fluid intake
d) Blood loss

Answer 111

b) Kidney failure

Question 112

The optimal position for the comatose patient is

a) Prone
b) Supine
c) Semi fowlers
d) Side lying
e) High semi fowlers

Answer 112

d) Side lying

Question 113

• When caring for a patient with aphasia, you should

a) Talk loudly so she can hear you
b) Refrain from giving explanations about procedures
c) Provide as much environmental stimuli as possible to prevent feelings of isolation
d) Consider the type that the person has and adapt communications methods accordingly

Answer 113

d) Consider the type that the person has and adapt communications methods accordingly

Question 114

Miss blake has suddenly had a cardiac arrest. What is the critical time period that the nurse
must keep in mind before irreversible brain damage occurs
a) 1-3 minutes
b) 8-10 minutes
c) 2-4 minutes
d) 4-6 minutes

Answer 114

d) 4-6 minutes

Question 115

When you answer the clients call light, you note that he has suffered a wound evisceration.
Your response will be to
a) Call the physician immediately for offers. Do not touch the wound
b) Cover the wound with sterile dressing, call the lab to do a culture and then call the
physician
c) Cover the wound with sterile, saline soaked towels and immediately notify the physician
d) Take the clients vital signs, cover the wound with a sterile towel and call the physician

Answer 115

c) Cover the wound with sterile, saline soaked towels and immediately notify the physician

Question 116

Leg exercises are taught to clients in order to increase venous return and prevent

thrombophylebitis. Which step of this procedure is incorrect
a) Alternately dorsiflex and plantar flex toes
b) Flex and extend the knee
c) Raise and lower each leg
d) Repeat exercise every one to two hours

Answer 116

b) Flex and extend the knee

Question 117

If morphine is given intravenously, regularly as post operative analgesia for 10 days to a
multiple trauma patient, what is the possibility that this patient would become addicted to the
narcotic
a) Almost never
b) Sometimes
c) Often
d) Almost always

Answer 117

c) Often

Question 118

• During chemotherapy, soreness of the mouth and anus may develop because

a) The effects of the chemotherapeutic agents concentrate in these body areas
b) These tissues normally divide rapidly and are damaged by chemotherapeutic agents
c) The entire GI tract is involved because of the direct irritating effects of chemotherapy
d) The tissues have become damaged from prolonged vomiting and diarrhoea

Answer 118

b) These tissues normally divide rapidly and are damaged by chemotherapeutic agents

Question 119

Which of the following should be considered in order to avoid skin reactions following
radiotherapy
1 not to apply ointments or lotions
2 not to vigorously dry the skin
3 to apply powder p.r.n
4 to keep the skin area dry and open to air
5 to avoid exposure to sunlight
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
e) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer 119

d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

Question 120

• Mrs graham is an active, retired 62 year old. She has been admitted for investigation of
possible renal calcili. Which of the following investigations would be most useful in
confirming Mrs G’s provisional diagnosis of renal calculi
a) Cystoscopy
b) Intravenous pyelogram
c) Renal biopsy
d) Urinary electrolytes

Answer 120

b) Intravenous pyelogram

Question 121

• Which of the following peripheral pulses is the most common site for obtaining a pulse in an
emergency
a) Carotid artery
b) Radial artery
c) Brachial artery
d) Temporal artery

Answer 121

a) Carotid artery

Question 122

the criteria for determining the effectiveness of nursing actions are based on the

a) nursing diagnosis
b) expected outcome
c) clients satisfaction
d) nursing interventions

Answer 122

b) expected outcome

Question 123

the nursing care plan is

a) a written guideline for implementation and evaluation
b) a documentation of client care
c) a projection of potential alterations in client behaviours
d) a tool to set goals and project outcomes

Answer 123

a) a written guideline for implementation and evaluation

Question 124

Debbie a 16 year old student, is admitted in a semi conscious state with a history of a 58
pound weight loss in 3 months. Preliminary diagnosis is acute anorexia nervosa. Which of the
following admissions lab values should the nurse caring for Debbie consider to most critical
a) Glucose 80
b) Potassium 3.0
c) Sodium 144
d) Haemoglobin 10

Answer 124

d) Haemoglobin 10

Question 125

• Michelle is placed on suicide precautions, which include constant observation. When the
nurse accompanies her to the bathroom. Michelle complains, I cant believe this. I cant even
go to the bathroom without being watched. How would you like to have me watching you go
to the toilet. Which response by the nurse is best
a) Im sure I wouldn’t like it very much, but then I didn’t try to hurt myself
b) Im sorry but these are the rules. Someone must be with you at all times
c) If its more comfortable for you, I can stand right outside as long as the door is open.
Would you agree to that
d) I would probably feel uncomfortable too, but ensuring your safety is my first priority. I
must stay in the room with you

Answer 125

c) If its more comfortable for you, I can stand right outside as long as the door is open.
Would you agree to that

Question 126

Megans behaviour in this situation illustrates the use of which defense mechanism

a) Splitting
b) Reaction formation
c) Conversion
d) Repression

Answer 126

a) Splitting

Question 127

Megans doctor resumes her regular dosage of amitriptyline. Which effect of this medication
might the staff and patient expect to see first
a) Elevated mood
b) Improved reality testing
c) Improved sleep pattern
d) Fewer hallucinations and delusions

Answer 127

c) Improved sleep pattern

Question 128

John is a 32 year old man with a 5 year history of psychiatric admissions. He is escorted to
the mental health unit by the police. He is dishevelled, confused and his records state that he
has been diagnosed as chronic undifferentiated schizophrenic. The nurse observes john sitting
in th hall looking frightened. He is curled up in a corner of the bench with his arms over his
head and covering his face. How should the nurse approach the patient
a) Walk over to the bench, sit beside him quietly, and place an arm around his shoulders,
then say im the nurse and wait for a response
b) Allow him to remain alone on the bench, where he can observe the unit for a half hour or
so until he is more comfortable
c) Greet him warmly saying hi im the nurse. This is a very nice unit. I think youll like it
here. Let me show you around
d) Sit about 3 or 4 feet from him on the bench and say hello john im a nurse on this unit.
You appear frightened then wait for a response

Answer 128

d) Sit about 3 or 4 feet from him on the bench and say hello john im a nurse on this unit.
You appear frightened then wait for a response

Question 129

John responds to the nurse by curling up on the bench even tighter. His arms still cover his
head and his hands are clasped tightly over his ears. The nurse should
a) Show acceptance of johns behaviour by remaining with him and reassuring him, gently
stroking his arms and shoulders
b) Tell john that she will leave him for a while and will return later when he feels more
relaxed
c) Say gently john ill just sit here quietly with you for a while then remain seated nearby
d) Say john, most people feel uncomfortable in hospitals. You shouldn’t be afraid. Im here
to help you

Answer 129

c) Say gently john ill just sit here quietly with you for a while then remain seated nearby

Question 130

• Henry is brought to the mental health unit by his wife who states for the past week her
husband has refused all meals and accused her of poisoning him, he has become withdrawn,
forgetful and inattentive and has frequent mood swings. Henry appears suspicious. His speech
which is only partly comprehensible reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions of
possession by the devil. He claims the devil told him that people around him are trying to
destroy him. The doctor diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as
a disorder characterised by
a) Disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly
b) Severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity
c) Multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others
d) Auditory and visual hallucinations

Answer 130

d) Auditory and visual hallucinations

Question 131

When communicating with henry the nurse should initially

a) Remain silent and wait for henry to speak first
b) Talk with henry as one would talk with a healthy person
c) Allow henry to do all the talking
d) Speak to henry using simple, concrete language

Answer 131

b) Talk with henry as one would talk with a healthy person

Question 132

• The drugs used to treat parkinsons disease act by

a) Increasing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine
b) Reducing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine
c) Increasing cholinergic activity and reducing dopamine
d) Reducing cholinergic activity and reducing dopamine

Answer 132

b) Reducing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine

Question 133

• Before administering a dose of digoxin the patients pulse (apex beat) should be taken. Which
is the correct action for the nurse to take if the pulse is found to be under 60 beats per minute
a) Give the drug and take the pulse again an hour later
b) Give the drug and notify the staff nurse that the pulse is slow
c) Do not give the drug and report the slow pulse to the doctor
d) Omit the drug and make a note on the nursing care plan

Answer 133

c) Do not give the drug and report the slow pulse to the doctor

Question 134

Mrs adams suffers from dementia and requires a dressing to a shin wound. The nurse suspects
the wound is the result of a non accidental injury. What is the main cause of non accidental
injury in an elderly person suffering from dementia
a) A dependent person being more prone to injury
b) A long standing pattern of domestic violence
c) The home not being a suitable place for a dependent person
d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home

Answer 134

a) A dependent person being more prone to injury

Question 135

• Which is the major pathophysiological abnormality occurring in asthma

a) Cardiac arrhythmias
b) Bronchiole dysplasia
c) Spasm of the smooth muscles of the bronchi
d) Inflammation of the alveoli

Answer 135

c) Spasm of the smooth muscles of the bronchi

Question 136

Eczema is the term used to describe a (n)

a) Acute, contagious inflammation of the skin
b) Non contagious inflammatory response of the skin
c) Fungal infection more commonly seen in childhood
d) Condition marked by the appearance of erythematous wheals

Answer 136

b) Non contagious inflammatory response of the skin

Question 137

• Which statement best describes ‘vesicle’

a) Reddened, pinprick like rash
b) Small round area of discolouration
c) Small area of swelling on the skin
d) Small blister filled with serous fluid

Answer 137

d) Small blister filled with serous fluid

Question 138

• Your neurologic assessment indicates increased ICP (intracranial pressure), so you raise the
head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees in order to
a) Improve arterial flow to the brain
b) Promote venous drainage from the brain
c) Improve respirations
d) Increase cardiac output

Answer 138

c) Improve respirations

Question 139

Which of the following is most important for mr march to succeed in a rehabilitation
programme
a) Knowledge of the services available to him
b) Familys encouragement
c) Personal goals
d) His relationships with the health team

Answer 139

c) Personal goals

Question 140

A rehabilitation programme for mr march should begin with

a) Strengthening his weak side
b) Teaching him to walk
c) Utilising the movement he still has
d) Establishing speech

Answer 140

c) Utilising the movement he still has

Question 141

There is evidence that mr march suffers a mild degree of expressive aphasia. This would be
evidenced by which of the following behaviours
a) Mr march has difficulty in understanding what is spoken to him although he can verbally
express his needs appropriately
b) Mr march has difficulty in both understanding what is spoken to him and in verbally
communicating with others
c) Mr march understands what is spoken to him but has difficulty in forming and expressing
words
d) Mr march has difficulty interpreting sensory stimuli causing him to respond
inappropriately

Answer 141

c) Mr march understands what is spoken to him but has difficulty in forming and expressing
words

Question 142

Mr march is enthusiastic about his excersie programme. He exercises should be

a) Frequent and of short duration
b) Twice daily and extensive
c) Carried out in the physiotherapy department
d) Confined to the affected side

Answer 142

a) Frequent and of short duration

Question 143

The first priority in caring for a person whose tissues have insufficient blood supply is to

a) Prevent and relieve symptoms
b) Promote the development of collateral circulation
c) Protect the tissues from any injury
d) Relieve the pain associated with vasodilation

Answer 143

c) Protect the tissues from any injury

Question 144

• Carl comes to the mental health clinic where you work because of nervousness. He tells you I
have butterflies in my stomach most of the time. I haven’t missed work but it is getting harder
to concentrate on things for a long time. What level of anxiety is carl most likely experiencing
a) Mild
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Panic

Answer 144

b) Moderate

Question 145

Which of the following explains the major differences between normal anxiety and the
syndrome associated with anxiety reactions
a) Normal anxiety is constant; an anxiety reaction is intermittent and rather short lived
b) Normal anxiety is free floating; in an anxiety reaction there is an impending sense of doom
c) An anxiety reaction is seldom controllable and usually must run its course
d) Normal anxiety is a fact of life and rarely becomes an anxiety reaction

Answer 145

b) Normal anxiety is free floating; in an anxiety reaction there is an impending sense of doom

Question 146

Carl compains of severe inner left arm and neck pain during the last few days. This pain
probably the result of
a) Vasoconstriction because of arterial spasms
b) Myocardial ischemia
c) Fear of death
d) Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus

Answer 146

a) Vasoconstriction because of arterial spasms

Question 147

Mrs green a 22 year old primigravida is attending prenatal clinic. Mrs greene is concerned
because she has read that nutrition during pregnancy is important for proper growth and
development of the baby. She wants to know something about he foods she should eat. The
nurse should
a) Give her a list of foods so she can better plan her meals
b) Assess what she eats by taking a diet history
c) Emphasise the importance of limiting salt and highly seasoned foods
d) Instruct her to continue eating a normal diet

Answer 147

b) Assess what she eats by taking a diet history

Question 148

• Which part of the hands is most affected in cases of primary irritant dermatitis

a) Between the fingers
b) Flexor aspects of the fingers
c) Medial aspects of the hands
d) Back of the hands

Answer 148

d) Back of the hands

Question 149

The lesions of primary irritant dermatitis appear as tiny fluid filled elevations called

a) Vesicles
b) Macules
c) Papulses
d) Nodules

Answer 149

a) Vesicles

Question 150

Of the following approaches to the treatment of alcoholism, which has been found to
be the most effective to date
a) Membership in alcoholics anonymous
b) Family systems approach
c) Treatment alcoholism as a chronic disease
d) Individual psychotherapy

Answer 150

b) Family systems approach

Question 151

Tom a 38 year old businessman, voluntarily admits himself to a detoxification unit.
He admits to drinking one large bottle of vodka each day. Which of the following ego
defence mechanisms is a top and continuing priory in dealing with alcoholic clients
a) Dependency
b) Denial
c) Paranoia
d) Projection

Answer 151

b) Denial

Question 152

Stanley progresses well. His chest tube is removed. He still does not have much of an
appetite and is concerned about his diet. Which of these responses would be of help
a) Eat three large meals a day that are high in carbohydrates
b) Eat three large meals a day that are high in protein
c) Eat six small meals a day that are high in carbohydrates
d) Eat six small meals a day that are high in protein

Answer 152

c) Eat six small meals a day that are high in carbohydrates

Question 153

Blake a 65 year old kaumatua (elder) is admitted with urinary retention. He is quiet
and appears withdrawn. Blake‟s whanau arrived. A female doctor tells them he needs
a urinary catheter inserted. Blake‟s son refuses to have a young woman doctor
catheterise his father. What is your most appropriate response
a) Let us talk about this together
b) I will contact the Maori support person for you
c) I will inform the doctor of your decision
d) Tell him that this is the only doctor available

Answer 153

a) Let us talk about this together

Question 154

Maori communities are encouraging Maori to be involved in health research with their
own people. What is the most likely reason for this
a) That ownership of the information will remain with Maori
b) Previously there has been little feedback which has been useful to Maori
c) Non Maori promote themselves on Maori research
d) Non Maori researchers are unaware of Maori values

Answer 154

a) That ownership of the information will remain with Maori

Question 155

The internal migration of Maori people from rural to urban life since the mid 1940s
has adversely affected Maori health. What is the most likely reason for this
a) Overcrowding within urban communities
b) Increased exposure to infectious diseases
c) Dietary changes from naturally produced to processed food
d) Loss of cultural, social, and spiritual ties

Answer 155

d) Loss of cultural, social, and spiritual ties

Question 156

Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy

a) 6-11 kgs
b) 11-16 kgs
c) 13-18 kgs
d) 18-20 kgs

Answer 156

b) 11-16 kgs

Question 157

Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets
during pregnancy
a) A increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester
b) A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements
c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron
d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent

Answer 157

c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron

Question 158

On discharge what is the most important piece of information you must give to Mr. p

a) Report any flu like symptoms immediately
b) Ensure no doses of clozapine are missed
c) Don‟t take clozapine with alcohol
d) Visit your GP regularly

Answer 158

b) Ensure no doses of clozapine are missed

Question 159

Mr P a new client on the ward, allows himself to be escorted to the day room.
However he does not speak in response to you. The most therapeutic nursing
intervention is to
a) Ignore his silence and talk about superficial topics such as the weather
b) Involve him in group psychotherapy so other patients can encourage him to talk
c) Point out that he is making others uncomfortable with his silences
d) Plan time to spend with him, in silence, if that is his choice

Answer 159

b) Involve him in group psychotherapy so other patients can encourage him to talk

Question 160

Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild
pre eclampsia
a) Low salt diet
b) Period of bed rest
c) Balanced diet with protein
d) Relaxation techniques

Answer 160

d) Relaxation techniques

Question 161

The primary pathophysiologic basis for the clinical manifestations of pregnancy
induced hypertension (PIH) is
a) Fluid retention related to excessive salt intake
b) Ineffective excretion of fluid by the kidneys
c) Cardiac decompensation
d) Ineffective dilatation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding
blood volume of pregnancy

Answer 161

d) Ineffective dilatation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding
blood volume of pregnancy

Question 162

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood
pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing
rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Pre eclampsia
c) Eclampsia
d) Elevated liver enzymes

Answer 162

b) Pre eclampsia

Question 163

The newborn would respond most effectively to feeding in which state

a) Drowsy
b) Quiet alert
c) Active alert
d) Crying

Answer 163

d) Crying

Question 164

At birth the major cause of heat loss is by

a) Evaporation
b) Radiation
c) Conduction
d) Convection

Answer 164

a) Evaporation

Question 165

The foetal presenting part is described as vertex when the

a) Face enters the pelvis first
b) Buttocks emerge with legs extended over the abdomen
c) Flexed head enters pelvis first
d) Foetal lie is longitudinal

Answer 165

c) Flexed head enters pelvis first

Question 166

For people with diabetes mellitus polyuria is the result of

a) Increased glomerular permeability due to generalized vascular damage
b) Increased glomerular filtration due to decreased serum albumin concentration
c) Increased volume of glomerular filtrate due to elevated blood pressure
d) Decreased water resorption due to high tubular osmotic pressure

Answer 166

d) Decreased water resorption due to high tubular osmotic pressure

Question 167

Characteristically, respirations of the client in diabetic acidosis are

a) Shallow and irregular
b) Uneven in rate and depth
c) Deep, rapid, with acetone breath, (kussmaul)
d) Rapid and shallow

Answer 167

c) Deep, rapid, with acetone breath, (kussmaul)

Question 168

Which of the following actions of a breastfeeding mother indicate the need for further
instruction
a) Holds breast with four fingers along the bottom and thumb at the top
b) Leans forward to bring breast towards the baby
c) Stimulates the rooting reflex than inserts nipple and areola into newborns open
mouth
d) Puts her finger into newborns mouth before removing breast

Answer 168

b) Leans forward to bring breast towards the baby

Question 169

The nurse would recognise that a new mother understood breastfeeding instructions
when she explains
a) I feed my baby every two hours around the clock
b) I always start feeding on my right breast, as my baby feeds best on that breast
c) I use both the football and the traditional positions for feeding
Page 110 of 203
d) I let my baby continue to suck for a while on the second breast once its empty

Answer 169

d) I let my baby continue to suck for a while on the second breast once its empty

Question 170

During the transition from foetal to neonatal circulation, the newborn cardiovascular
system accomplishes which of the following anatomic and physiologic alterations
1. Closure of the ductus venosus
2. Closure of the foramen ovale
3. Closure of the ductus arteriosis
4. Increased systemic pressure and decreased pulmonary artery
pressure
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,3 and 4

Answer 170

a) 1,2,3 and 4

Question 171

The patency of the trachea is maintained by

a) Incomplete rings of cartilage
b) Circular smooth muscle fibres
c) Thickly layered pseudo stratified epithelium
d) Elastic connective tissue

Answer 171

a) Incomplete rings of cartilage

Question 172

. A definition of cor pulmonale is

a) L) sided heart failure secondary to disease of the lungs
b) L) sided heart failure secondary to R) sided heart failure
c) R) sided heart failure secondary to severe lung disease
d) Disease of the lungs secondary to R) sided heart failure

Answer 172

c) R) sided heart failure secondary to severe lung disease

Question 173

The risk for constipation in the postpartum period is related to all except

a) Tenderness of the episiotomy
b) Decreasing levels of oestrogen
c) Decreased abdominal muscle tone
d) Fear of pain and of ripping sutures during a bowel movement

Answer 173

b) Decreasing levels of oestrogen

Question 174

A primiparous woman, one day postpartum, calls the nurse into her room the woman
explains that while breastfeeding, she experienced uterine cramps and a heavy gush
that soaked through her pad to the bed. The nurse should
a) Palpate the woman‟s fundus
b) Tell the woman that this often happens when breastfeeding
c) Administer PRN ergometrine medication
d) Assist the woman with perineal care and changing her pad

Answer 174

a) Palpate the woman‟s fundus

Question 175

Which of the following signs would a person admitted to hospital with an acute attack
of asthma present with
a) Dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety
b) Dyspnea, bradycardia, frothy sputum
c) Tachycardia, chest pain, pallor
d) Increased anxiety, sweating, chest pain

Answer 175

a) Dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety