Questions

Question 1

To establish the allowable takeoff weight for a transport-category aircraft, at any airfield, all of the following must be considered EXCEPT:

Answer 1

Brake energy

Question 2

When in operation, which of the following actions alter the engine RPM of an aircraft auxiliary power unit (APU)?

Answer 2

C. Remains at or near rated speed regardless of load condition.

Question 3

In planning a cross-country flight to Valle, Arizona, you note that the airport is equipped with PVASI (Pulsating Visual Approach Slope Indicator). An ”on glide path” indication on the PVASI should show as which of the following?

Answer 3

B. Steady green.

Question 4

Unseasonably cold weather is expected for your departure and Pireps are reporting forecast icing conditions. Which of the following temperature ranges are most likely to cause icing when flying in visible precipitation?

Answer 4

+2 degrees C to -10 degrees C.

Question 5

The FAA has defined an aircraft upset as an event that unintentionally exceeds the parameters normally experienced in flight or training. Which of the following exceeds these parameters?
CHOICES
A. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up.
B. Pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down.
C. Bank angle greater than 45 degrees.
D. All of the above

Answer 5

D. All of the above

Question 6

Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common electrical system must be provided with:
CHOICES
A. Automatic generator switches that operate to isolate any generator whose output is less than 80 percent of its share of the load.
B. An automatic device that will isolate loads from the system if one generator should fail.
C. Individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit in flight.
D. Separate generator output voltage indicators.

Answer 6

C. Individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit in flight.

Question 7

The minimum safe/sector altitudes (MSA) center point is normally based on the primary omnidirectional facility on which the initial approach point is predicated. But if no such suitable facility is available, it can be based on:
CHOICES
A. Closest omnidirectional facility.
B. Any Rnav waypoint.
C. Airport Reference Point (ARP).
D. Runway threshold for the depicted approach.

Answer 7

C. Airport Reference Point (ARP).

Question 8

Approved vertical guidance is available on Lnav/Vnav minima and existed before WAAS was certified for these types of approaches. At that time, only aircraft equipped with which of the following could use the Lnav/Vnav minimums:
A. Radar altimeter.
B. Flight management system (FMS).
C. Certified baro-VNAV system
Both B and C.

Answer 8

Both B and C.

Question 9

During planning for a cross-country solo flight a CFI is briefing his student on items and symbols depicted on an IFR chart. Which of the following is NOT correct?
CHOICES
A. An “L” symbol following the elevation under the airport name means the runway lights are in operation sunset to sunrise.
B. An “L” symbol followed by a star symbol indicates lighting is part time or on request.
C. An “L” symbol followed by multiple asterisks indicates that pilot-controlled lighting is available and the asterisks correspond to the number of clicks required to activate the lighting.
D. None of the above.

Answer 9

C. An “L” symbol followed by multiple asterisks indicates that pilot-controlled lighting is available and the asterisks correspond to the number of clicks required to activate the lighting.

Question 10

A full authority electronic engine control is a system that receives all the necessary data for engine operation and:
CHOICES
A. Adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
B. Develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
C. Controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure and humidity.
D. None of the above.

Answer 10

B. Develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.

Question 11

During planning for a cross-country flight you notice a box around the airport name on the FAA sectional chart. The box indicates that:
A. This is an FAR Part 93 airport where fixed-wing special visual flight rules operations are prohibited.

B. This is an FAR Part 93 airport with special air traffic rules and airport traffic patterns, or obstacles in the flightpath.

C. This airspace requires aircraft to have an operating mode-C transponder.

D. All of the above.

Answer 11

B. This is an FAR Part 93 airport with special air traffic rules and airport traffic patterns, or obstacles in the flightpath.

Question 12

The purpose of an undercurrent relay in an aircraft’s starter/generator system is to:

A. Provide a backup for the starter relay.

B. Avoid excessive charge and resultant heat within the electrical system.

C. Disconnect power from the starter/generator and ignition when sufficient engine operating speed is achieved.

D. Keep current flow to the starter/generator under the circuit capacity maximum.

Answer 12

C. Disconnect power from the starter/generator and ignition when sufficient engine operating speed is achieved.

Question 13

To establish the allowable takeoff weight for a transport-category aircraft, at any airfield, all of the following must be considered EXCEPT:
A. Maximum brake energy.

B. Airfield pressure altitude.

C. Headwind component.

D. Obstacles in the flightpath.

Answer 13

A. Maximum brake energy.

Question 14

Low oil pressure can be detrimental to internal engine components. However, high oil pressure:

A. Should be limited to the recommendations of the engine manufacturer.

B. Has a negligible effect.

C. Will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings.

D. Will not occur because of the oil breather system.

Answer 14

A. Should be limited to the recommendations of the engine manufacturer.

Question 15

Charted visual flight procedures (CVFP) are established for particular environmental and/or safety reasons. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding CVFPs?
A. CVFPs are designed for the use of all categories/classes of aircraft.

B. ATC may clear an aircraft for a CVFP when the weather minimums are at or above circling minima for the airport.

C. CVFPs will be used only at airports with operating control towers.

D. CVFPs are similar to instrument approaches and have a published missed approach procedure.

Answer 15

C. CVFPs will be used only at airports with operating control towers.

Question 16

When the switch is OFF in an aircraft battery ignition system, the primary circuit is:

Answer 16

Open

Question 17

What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow compressor in a turbine aircraft engine?
CHOICES

A. Higher frontal area for cooler operating temperatures.

B. Relatively less expensive.

C. Greater pressure ratios are possible.

D. None of the above.

Answer 17

C. Greater pressure ratios are possible.

Question 18

What is the average time of useful consciousness (TUC) in an aircraft flying at 40,000 feet during a sudden depressurization?
CHOICES

A. 30 to 40 seconds.

B. 20 to 30 seconds.

C. 15 to 20 seconds.

D. Less than 10 seconds.

Answer 18

C. 15 to 20 seconds.

Question 19

During preflight, you notice that the aircraft’s wing has an accumulation of frost similar in thickness and feel to 40-grit sandpaper. What would be the resulting degradation of lift and increase in drag if you attempted to takeoff without de-icing?
CHOICES

A. Between 30 and 40 percent.

B. Between 40 and 50 percent.

C. Between 50 and 60 percent.

Answer 19

A. Between 30 and 40 percent.

Question 20

What is the meteorological definition of mist (BR)?

A. Prevailing visibility between 1,000 and 5,000 meters coupled with relative humidity of 95 percent or greater.

B. Prevailing visibility less than 1,000 meters and relative humidity of 95 percent or greater.

C. Prevailing visibility between 1,000 and 5,000 meters coupled with relative humidity of 95 percent or less.

D. Prevailing visibility less than 1,000 meters and relative humidity of 95 percent or less.

Answer 20

A. Prevailing visibility between 1,000 and 5,000 meters coupled with relative humidity of 95 percent or greater.

Question 21

Why is it necessary to check the oil level of an aircraft turbine engine at a certain time interval after shutdown?
CHOICES

A. Warm oil will be at a higher level than cold oil.

B. Oil foaming can occur during engine operation.

C. The oil can seep into to the accessory gearbox after shutdown.

D. All of the above.

Answer 21

D. All of the above.

Question 22

What is the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors are constant and airspeed is doubled?
CHOICES

A. Four times greater.

B. Two times greater.

C. All forces remain constant; as speed increases lift and drag increase equally.

Answer 22

A. Four times greater.

Question 23

When an aircraft experiences “coffin corner,” the appropriate corrective action is to:
CHOICES

A. Reduce thrust.

B. Increase thrust.

C. Initiate a constant speed climb.

D. Initiate a constant speed descent.

Answer 23

D. Initiate a constant speed descent.

Question 24

Under what conditions can an IFR flight plan be filed to an airport without an instrument approach?
CHOICES

A. You cannot file an IFR flight plan to an airport without an instrument approach.

B. If the weather is forecast to be at least VFR at the expected time of arrival.

C. If the airport is within Class E surface-based airspace.

D. If you file an alternate airport.

Answer 24

D. If you file an alternate airport.

Question 25

As the center of gravity of an airplane is displaced aft during flight, it will become:
CHOICES

A.More maneuverable, with no change in stability.

B. Less maneuverable, with no change in stability.

C. More maneuverable, but less stable in all axes.

D. More stable, but less maneuverable in all axes.

Answer 25

C. More maneuverable, but less stable in all axes.

Question 26

How far from the source is a localizer usable and suitable for course guidance through the descent path to the runway threshold?

A. To 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18 nm from the antenna.

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B. From 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 nm.

C. From 1,000 feet agl up to and including 12,000 feet agl at radial distances out to 25 nm.

D. Both A and B are correct.

Answer 26

D. Both A and B are correct.

Question 27

How is the difference between local and remote source altimeter settings adjusted to determine minimum descent altitude/height (MDA(H)) for Jeppesen approach charts?
CHOICES

A. Remote altimeters are greater than five miles from the airport reference point.

B. Distance to remote
altimeter.

C. Elevation distance between the landing airport and the remote altimeter.

D. All of the above.

Answer 27

D. All of the above.

Question 28

What is the purpose of the anhedral ventral fins, which are mounted under the empennage?
CHOICES
A. They add stability during high speed flight at high pitch angles.

B. They are added to compensate for poor controllability due to vertical stabilizer and rudder effects.

C. They provide a vertical surface for the OEM logo and aircraft data plate.

D. They provide directional stability when the vertical stabilizer is masked during high angle of attack maneuvering.

Answer 28

D. They provide directional stability when the vertical stabilizer is masked during high angle of attack maneuvering.

Question 29

What are the dangers and results of an improperly inflated aircraft tire?
CHOICES

A. There is little danger as tire inflation does not affect aircraft performance.

B. An improperly inflated tire can lead to a tire failure.

C. Temperature plays a major role in tire pressure, so tires may only be checked at a constant temperature.

D. Only an overinflated tire will lead to tire failure; this is not an issue with underinflated tires.

Answer 29

B. An improperly inflated tire can lead to a tire failure.

Question 30

An aircraft is displaced into a nose-high attitude then naturally pitches down to a nose-low attitude. This continues with the same magnitude of displacement without any control input. What is the most accurate description of the aircraft’s stability?
CHOICES

A. Neutral static stability with neutral dynamic stability around the lateral axis.

B. Positive static stability and neutral dynamic stability around the lateral axis.

C. Positive static stability and positive dynamic stability around the longitudinal axis.

D. Neutral static stability and neutral dynamic stability around the longitudinal axis.

Answer 30

B. Positive static stability and neutral dynamic stability around the lateral axis.

Question 31

An A&P mechanic is performing an annual inspection of your aircraft and informs you that he has discovered a bad magneto. What is the function of the magneto?
CHOICES

A. To align the magnetic compass to the magnetic pole.

B. To create a magnetic field for the coil of the starter generator.

C. To energize the sparkplugs of a piston engine.

Answer 31

C. To energize the sparkplugs of a piston engine.

Question 32

What is the effect of uphill slope on takeoff distance?
CHOICES

A. Uphill slope will increase takeoff distance to greater than the accelerate/stop distance.

B. Uphill slope will decrease the accelerate/stop distance only.

C. Uphill slope will decrease the takeoff distance only.

D. Uphill slope will decrease the allowable takeoff weight.

Answer 32

A. Uphill slope will increase takeoff distance to greater than the accelerate/stop distance.

Question 33

As a flight crew (approved for RNAV GPS approaches only) arrives at their destination they see that their database shows an RNAV (RNP) Y approach. Are they allowed to fly this approach?
CHOICES

A. Yes, as long as the approach comes from a current database, no special training is required.

B. The crew must be trained and approved to conduct RNP AR approaches due to reduced lateral and vertical clearance.

C. The aircraft must have special approval and might require capability to fly an RF leg and/or a missed approach, which requires RNP less than 1.0 nm.

D. Both B and C are correct.

Answer 33

D. Both B and C are correct.

Question 34

What is the average maximum RPM of the compressor stage (N2) of a modern large turbofan jet engine?
CHOICES

A. 1,000 RPM.

B. 3,000 RPM.

C. 5,000 RPM.

D. 11,000 RPM.

Answer 34

D. 11,000 RPM.

Question 35

What causes the appearance of a white colored mist that sometimes emanates from the wing tips of large jet aircraft when flying at slow speeds (usually on an approach)?
CHOICES

A. High static pressures at the wingtip.

B. Low dynamic pressures at the wingtip.

C. High rotational velocities in the wingtip vortex.

D. Condensation on wing surfaces when fuel temperatures are cold

Answer 35

C. High rotational velocities in the wingtip vortex.

Question 36

What is adverse yaw?
CHOICES

A. Yaw tendency during turns due to wingtip flex.

B. Yaw tendency in the same direction of turns due to vertical stabilizer bending moment.

C. Yaw tendency in the opposite direction of turns due to aileron movement.

D. Yaw tendency during level turns due to horizontal stabilizer bending moment.

Answer 36

C. Yaw tendency in the opposite direction of turns due to aileron movement.

Question 37

Which of the following determines when a wing stalls?
CHOICES

A. Angle of attack, flaps/slats setting, airspeed.

B. Angle of attack, center of gravity, density altitude.

C. Angle of attack, flaps/slats setting, Mach number.

D. Angle of attack, density altitude, gross weight.

Answer 37

C. Angle of attack, flaps/slats setting, Mach number.

Question 38

During preflight, you miss the fact that a pitot tube has been blocked by nesting insects. What would likely be seen on your flight instruments during takeoff and climbout?

A. Unusually slow or no acceleration during takeoff, followed by erroneously low climb indications on the barometric altimeter and vertical speed indicators.

B. Unusually slow or no acceleration during takeoff, followed by erroneously increasing airspeed during climb.

C. Unusually slow or no acceleration during takeoff, followed by erroneously decreasing airspeed during climb until zero airspeed is displayed.

D. Unusually slow or no acceleration during takeoff, followed by stall warning indications.

Answer 38

B. Unusually slow or no acceleration during takeoff, followed by erroneously increasing airspeed during climb.

Question 39

You are operating an aircraft with Fadec-controlled turbofan engines using EPR as the primary thrust measurement and notice a slowing of airspeed with maximum power selected. What should be your immediate action?
CHOICES

A. Request lower altitude from ATC and descend to maintain proper airspeed.

B. Select a non-EPR based engine mode.

C. Increase power as needed up to maximum RPM.

D. All of the above.

Answer 39

D. All of the above.

Question 40

While at high cruise altitude in your head-up display (HUD) equipped aircraft, you notice that the actual outside horizon is significantly below the HUD horizon line (zero pitch reference line). What does this indicate?
CHOICES

A. Normal operations.

B. Optical illusions due to light refracting at high altitude.

C. Misalignment of HUD symbology.

D. HUD combiner not firmly in its flight detent.

Answer 40

A. Normal operations.

Question 41

What is a somatogravic illusion?
CHOICES

A. A visually disorienting illusion in low light due to angled clouds producing a false horizon.

B. A sensory disorienting illusion where acceleration is perceived as climbing.

C. A sensory disorienting illusion where deceleration is perceived as descending.

D. Both B and C are correct.

Answer 41

D. Both B and C are correct.

Question 42

During flight in your low-horizontal-stabilizer, swept-wing jet, you experience a massive structural failure of the vertical stabilizer and it departs the aircraft. What could you do to increase the stability of the aircraft in this situation?
CHOICES

A. Disengage the yaw damper(s).

B. Extend the landing gear.

C. Extend leading-edge slats and trailing-edge flaps.

D. Decrease speed and decrease altitude.

Answer 42

B. Extend the landing gear.

Question 43

Why can HF radio communications be heard from far greater distances than VHF radio communication?
CHOICES

A. The lower-frequency waves from HF radios are able to bounce off the Ionosphere and propagate around the Earth’s curvature.

B. HF radio waves are “line of sight” waves, where VHF radio waves are not.

C. HF radio waves operate at a much higher amplitude, which increases their distance capability.

D. HF radio communications cannot be from heard further away than VHF radios.

Answer 43

A. The lower-frequency waves from HF radios are able to bounce off the Ionosphere and propagate around the Earth’s curvature.

Question 44

You’re executing an ILS approach to a high altitude airport on a very cold day and captured the glideslope from the final intercept altitude well inside the final approach fix. What has gone wrong?

A. The glide slope is erroneous and should not be used.

B. You might have set the wrong local altimeter setting.

C. The very cold temperatures are giving you an erroneously high altitude readout.

D. Both B and C are correct.

Answer 44

D. Both B and C are correct.

Question 45

Which of the following statements is true regarding aircraft descent performance?
CHOICES

A. An aircraft at its lighter weights will not be capable of descending as rapidly as the aircraft at its heavier weights.

B. An aircraft at its heavier weights will not be capable of descending as rapidly as the aircraft at its lighter weights.

C. Aircraft weight does not affect descent performance.

D. None of the above.

Answer 45

B. An aircraft at its heavier weights will not be capable of descending as rapidly as the aircraft at its lighter weights.

Question 46

What missed approach path should you fly?
Your arrival airport ATIS shows ILS 28R approach in use. You brief and prepare the cockpit for the ILS 28R approach. When you contact approach control and advise them you have the airport in sight, ATC clears you for the visual approach Runway 28R. Due to an unstable approach, you execute a go-around. What missed approach path should you fly?

CHOICES

A. Fly the published missed approach for ILS 28R.

B. Climb to pattern altitude and enter downwind for Runway 28R.

C. Fly the lateral path of the published missed approach for ILS 28R, but do not climb into IFR conditions without ATC clearance

D. Maintain visual conditions and contact ATC for missed approach instructions.

Answer 46

D. Maintain visual conditions and contact ATC for missed approach instructions.