QUESTIONS 51-100 Flashcards

1
Q

51 Using specific types of testing scores to predict whether a job candidate will be successful is called what?

  1. Participatory approach
  2. Statistical approach
  3. Autocratic approach
  4. Clinical approach
A

Statistical approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

52 By law how long must employee applications be kept?

  1. 1 year
  2. 3 years
  3. 2 years
  4. 5 years
A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

53 What type of on the job training program uses a person who is not the employee’s superior and/or is external to the organization?

  1. Rotations
  2. Coaching
  3. Internship
  4. Mentoring
A

Coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

54 A supervisor never gives excellent ratings even if the employee deserves it rather they consistently give all employees a mediocre rating to avoid conflict is called?

  1. Halo effect
  2. The leniency error
  3. Error of central tendency
  4. Global rating
A

Error of central tendency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

55 What is it called when a supervisor rates an employee in the presence or absence of only one trait?

  1. The leniency error
  2. Dysfunctional
  3. Halo effect
  4. Error of central tendency
A

Halo effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

56 What is it called when a supervisor rates all employees with high scores, whether they deserve it or not to avoid conflict?

  1. Error of central tendency
  2. Halo effect
  3. Leniency error
  4. Nepotism
A

Leniency error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

57 What group of workers will negotiate with the union?

  1. Top management
  2. Bargaining unit
  3. Administrator
  4. Governing body
A

Bargaining unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

58 What percentage is needed within a facility to start a union?

  1. Half the population
  2. 49%+
  3. 50%+1
  4. 75%
A

50% + 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

59 Who is eligible to form a union?

  1. Professionals
  2. Non-professionals
  3. Physicians
  4. Everyone
A

Everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

60 How much of the labor force in force in the US is unionized?

  1. 30%
  2. More than 20%
  3. Less than 20%
  4. 50%
A

Less than 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

61 Which of the following work environments do not favor unionization?

  1. Poor supervision
  2. High staff moral
  3. Low wages
  4. Lack of grievance procedures
A

High staff moral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

62 Disparate impact and treatment are types of what?

  1. Fair management practice
  2. Favoritism
  3. Discrimination
  4. Nepotism
A

Discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

63 Accidental death must be reported to OSHA within what time frame?

  1. 24 hours
  2. 6 hours
  3. 8 hours
  4. 12 hours
A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

64 OSHA specifically applies to whom?

  1. Residents and family
  2. Risk management for contracted vendors
  3. Employees in nursing facilities
  4. All visitors to the facility
A

Employees in nursing facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

65 Employees must receive health exams how often?

  1. Initially and yearly
  2. As needed
  3. Initially and as needed
  4. Every two years
A

Initially and yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

66 What is the penalty for falsifying OSHA records?

  1. Up to $10,000
  2. A maxim of $70,000
  3. $50-$250 per violation
  4. A maximum of $50,000
A

A maximum of $70,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

67 Who is responsible for the employee if they ignore or refuse safety requirements?

  1. The employer
  2. DSD
  3. The employee
  4. Safety Committee
A

The employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

68 About how much revenue for the nursing home industry comes from Medicaid?

  1. 75%
  2. About 50%
  3. 80%
  4. 60%
A

About 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

69 A budgeting process where the administrator gets input from each department head in creating the budget for that department is known as what?

  1. Capital budget
  2. Participatory
  3. Autocratic
  4. Working capital
A

Participatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

70 What best defines an operating budget?

  1. Current assets minus current liabilities
  2. Patient services revenues
  3. All planned revenues and all planned expenses
  4. Equipment and improvements to be made during the year
A

All planned revenues and all planned expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

71 What best defines Capital budget?

  1. Planned revenues and expenses
  2. Equipment and improvements to be made during the year
  3. Operating and non operating revenues
  4. Current assets divided by current liabilities
A

Equipment and improvements to be made during the year

22
Q

72 What best defines cash budget?

  1. Operating revenues and non operating revenues
  2. Planned revenues and planned expenses
  3. Current assets minus current liabilities
  4. Cash available to pay current liabilities
A

Cash available to pay current liabilities

23
Q

73 Items costing more than $500.00 with a useful life of one or more years is a part of what budget?

  1. Revenue budget
  2. Cash budget
  3. Capital budget
  4. Operating budget
A

Capital budget

24
Q

74 An improvement to be made costing less than $500.00 goes into what account?

  1. Supplies or minor equipment
  2. Repairs and maintenance
  3. Capital expenditures
  4. Capital budget
A

Repairs and maintenance

25
Q

75 A needed piece of equipment costing less than $500.00 goes into what account?

  1. Supplies or minor equipment
  2. Repairs and maintenance
  3. Capital expenditures
  4. Capital budget
A

Supplies or minor equipment

26
Q

76 A budget that is concerned with a “lag time” is what budget?

  1. Capital budget
  2. Cash budget
  3. Revenue budget
  4. Operating budget
A

Cash budget

27
Q

77 What best defines a revenue budget?

  1. Planned revenues and expenses
  2. Equipment to be made during the year
  3. Operating and non operating revenues, patient service revenues
  4. Cash available to pay current liabilities
A

Operating and non operating revenues, patient service revenues

28
Q

78 Stakeholders receive how many financial reports?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
A

Four (4)

29
Q

79 What financial report best shows a “snap shot” of a facility fiscal health?

  1. Statement of cash flow
  2. Balance sheet
  3. Statement and changes in fund balance
  4. Statement of revenues and expenses
A

Balance sheet

30
Q

80 Which statement shows assets, liabilities and owners equity?

  1. Statement of cash flow
  2. Balance sheet
  3. Statement and changes in fund balance
  4. Statement of revenues and expenses
A

Balance sheet

31
Q

81 What financial statement reports revenues by source and expenses by category?

  1. Statement of cash flow
  2. Balance sheet
  3. Statement of revenues and expenses
  4. Changes in fund balance
A

Statement of revenues and expenses

32
Q

82 From what book of accounts does all information come from in order to prepare the financial reports?

  1. Chart of accounts
  2. General ledger
  3. Journal sheets
  4. Balance sheets
A

General ledger

33
Q

83 What best defines double entry accounting?

  1. Journal entries
  2. Accrual basis
  3. Cash basis
  4. Debit and credits alway balance zero
A

Debits and credits always balance zero

34
Q

84 A report showing sources and uses of cash for the year would be what?

  1. Changes in fund balance
  2. Statement of cash flow
  3. Balance sheet
  4. State of revenues and expenses
A

Statement of cash flow

35
Q

85 A report showing increases and decreases in owners equity or fund balance during the year would be what?

  1. Statement of changes in fund balance
  2. Statement of cash flow
  3. Balance sheet
  4. Statement of revenues and expenses
A

Statement of changes in fund balance

36
Q

86 Facilities are required to maintain their financial records using what method?

  1. Accrual basis
  2. GAAP
  3. Cash basis
  4. Objectivity
A

Accrual basis

37
Q

87 An example of the accrual basis would be what?

  1. Revenues and expenses recorded when earned and owed
  2. GAAP
  3. Revenues and expenses recorded when money is literally received and paid
  4. General ledger
A

Revenues and expenses recorded when earned and owed

38
Q

88 An example of cash basis would be what?

  1. Revenues and expenses recorded when money is literally received and paid
  2. GAAP
  3. Revenues and expenses recorded when earned and owed
  4. General ledger
A

Revenues and expenses recorded when money is literally received and paid

39
Q

89 An example of a contingent liability would be what?

  1. Pending new account
  2. Pending law suit
  3. Pending capital budget
  4. Pending working capital
A

Pending law suit

40
Q

90 What government program requires facilities to use the accrual basis for keeping financial records?

  1. Medicare and private pay
  2. Medicare and Medicaid
  3. Federal and State
  4. DHS and licensing agency
A

Medicare and Medicaid

41
Q

91 An MCO is concerned with the number of days per admission whereas the facility is concerned with what?

  1. Number of days per admission also
  2. Cost of service per patient per day
  3. Number of private pay residents
  4. Case Mix
A

Cost of service per patient per day

42
Q

92 What is the formula for payback period?

  1. (Historical cost minus scrap value) divided by useful life
  2. Current liabilities divided by current assets
  3. Total investment divided by annual savings
  4. Current assets minus current liabilities
A

Total investment divided by annual saving

43
Q

93 Medicare requires what type of depreciation method?

  1. Straight line depreciation
  2. Annual depreciation
  3. Funded depreciation
  4. Monthly depreciation
A

Straight line depreciation

44
Q

94 What type of facility would be most apt or able to use funded depreciation method?

  1. A facility in the red
  2. A facility breaking even
  3. A facility with a current ratio of 100
  4. An assisted living
A

A facility with a current ratio of 100

45
Q

95 In developing capital budgets what tool would most likely be used?

  1. Creative financing
  2. Debt financing or equity financing
  3. Increased marketing budget
  4. Solicit investors
A

Debt financing or equity financing

46
Q

96 A facility paying for the care of a resident who is not able to pay would be called what?

  1. Cutting losses
  2. Charity care
  3. A state regulation
  4. A federal regulation
A

Charity care

47
Q

97 An HMO contracted with a facility paying a daily rate lower than what can be collected through billing Medicare direct for the same services would be an example of what?

  1. Charity care
  2. Contractual discount
  3. Third party discount
  4. Good business
A

Contractual discount

48
Q

98 When a facility notifies a resident that they no longer need services being paid for by Medicare or a third party insurance and the resident refuses insisting the skilled services be continued…is known as what?

  1. Contractual agreement
  2. Demand billing
  3. Denial
  4. Lumetra
A

Demand billing

49
Q

99 In a nursing facility what are the groups called that categorize residents into their distinct groups defined in terms of selected information from the MDS?

  1. DRG’s
  2. RUG’s
  3. PPS
  4. Case Mix
A

RUG’s

50
Q

100 What is associated to each RUB representing the average daily cost of nursing care in that group compared to the other residents?

  1. RUG’s
  2. Case mix
  3. PPS
  4. DRG
A

Case Mix