QUESTIONS 151-223 Flashcards

1
Q
151
An administrator who focuses an P&L statements and labor reports is using what type of approach towards leadership?
1. VISIONARY
2. TRANSFORMATIONAL
3. TRADITIONAL
4. STATUS QUO
A

TRANSFORMATIONAL

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2
Q
152
An administrator using motivation, empowerment, vision, self confidence and participation is using what type of approach towards leadership?
1. Visionary
2. Transformational
3. Traditional
4. Status Quo
A

Transformational

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3
Q

153
Employees who are fulfilled by learning and teaching create an atmosphere where daily functions are enhanced for the residents.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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4
Q
154
A for profit organization is governed by a what?
1. CEO
2. Board of Directors
3. Governing Body
4.  Board of Trustees
A

Board of Directors

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5
Q
155
A not for profit organization is governed by what?
1. Corporate Board
2. Board of Directors
3. Governing Body
4. Board of Trustees
A

Board of Trustees

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6
Q
156
What type of business entity has no legal separations between the owner and the business?
1. Corporation
2. Sole proprietorship
3. Partnership
4.C-Corporation
A

Sole proprietorship

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7
Q
157
A business entity owned by two or more people who both have unlimited liability is called what?
1. Corporation
2. Sole proprietorship
3. Partnership
4. S-Corporation
A

Partnership

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8
Q

158
Both sole proprietorships and partnerships expire upon the death of the owners.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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9
Q
159
What business entity is set up so that owners and/or stake holders are separate from the business and are not personally liable?
1. Corporation
2. General partners
3. Limited Partners
4. L.L.P.
A

Corporation

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10
Q
160
What is the term used when partners in a partnership are only liable for the amount of their investment?
1. LLP
2. General Partners
3. Limited Partners
4. Joint Partners
A

Limited Partners

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11
Q
161
A member of an LLC personally guaranteeing a loan to the company is what?
1. Not liable for the loan
2. Personally liable
3. Not legally allowed
4. The company is liable
A

Personally liable

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12
Q

162
A LLP as in general partners has unlimited liability but the partners are limited and only liable for personal malpractice acts.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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13
Q
163
Deciding on a primary and secondary market is what step in the marketing plan?
1. Step 1
2. Step 2
3. Step 3
4. Step 4
A

Step 1

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14
Q
164
Monitoring progress to determine the effectiveness of the marketing efforts is what step?
1. Step 3
2. Step 5
3. Step 4
4. Step 2
A

Step 5

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15
Q
165
Deciding how many rehab patients, dementia patients, LTC, etc. is what step in the marketing plan?
1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 2
A

Step 3

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16
Q
166
Analyzing the are population for age, education, and gender is what step in the marketing plan?
1. Step 1
2. Step 2
3. Step 3
4. Step 4.
A

Step 2

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17
Q
167
Implementing the market plan is what step?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
A

Step 4

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18
Q
168
Identifying a solution for each involved party is which step of the guidelines to secure a resolution?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 4
A

Step 3

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19
Q
169
Not able to communicate because of speaking a different language is known as what?
1. Cognitive deficit
2. Sub group allegiance
3. Filter effect
4. Language barrier
A

Language barrier

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20
Q
170
Avoiding to communicate information because it will have a personal negative effect is an example of what?
1. Information overload
2. Selective hearing
3. Hidden agenda
4. Self protection
A

Self protection

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21
Q
171
Authority delegated by a state statute is what?
1. By laws
2. Implied corporate authority
3. Express corporate authority
4. State law
A

Express corporate authority

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22
Q
172
Authority delegated by corporate by laws is called what?
1. State law
2. Implied corporate authority
3. Express corporate authority 
4. DHS
A

Implied corporate authority

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23
Q
173
Making rounds daily and through out the day assisting and directing in the function is called what?
1. MBWA
2. CQI
3. PI
4. TQM
A

MBWA

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24
Q
174
What is it called when happy employees are happy with work place and unhappy employees are not?
1. Theory Z
2. Two factor theory
3. Theory X
4. Theory Y
A

Two factor theory

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25
Q
175
A staff member working hard and excelling assuming they will get a raise for their efforts is supporting what theory?
1. Theory X
2. Theory Y
3. Theory z
4. Expectancy Theory or Equity Theory
A

Expectancy Theory or Equity Theory

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26
Q
176
A manager who believes workers naturally hate work therefore using punishment and punitive means is promoting what theory?
1. Theory X
2. Theory Y
3. Theory Z
4. Two factor theory
A

Theory X

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27
Q
177
Management using positive reinforcement for good work is supporting what theory?
1. Theory X
2. Theory Y
3. Theory Z
4. Two factor theory
A

Theory Y

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28
Q
178
Food, safety, love and self-actuating is known as what?
1. Standard practice
2. Human basic needs
3. Maslow's Hierarchy of need theory
4. HIPPI Theory
A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of need Theory

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29
Q
179
A medical records consultant is an example of what?
1. Staff authority
2. Support services
3. Supervisor
4. Line authority
A

Staff authority

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30
Q
180
A charge nurse giving directive to his/her CNA's is an example of what?
1. Organization chart
2. Staff authority
3. Line authority
4. Supervisor
A

Line authority

31
Q
181
The number of employees that a manager can effectively manage is know as what?
1. Unit
2. Span of management
3. Supervisor unity
4. Charge unit
A

Span of Management

32
Q
182
The idea that employees report to one supervisor is known as what?
1. Delegating
2. Unity of command
3. Span of Management
4. Organizational chart
A

Unity of command

33
Q
183
What was the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)previously known as?
1. ACHA
2. Health Care Facilities Association
3. HCFA
4. CAHF
A

HCFA

34
Q

184
Minors under the age of 16 must obtain a temporary permit from the department of labor before starting work.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

35
Q
185
Empowering staff members to make decisions to improve quality of care is an example of what?
1. TQM
2. MBWA
3. CQI
4. PI
A

TQM

36
Q
186
Small tasks being completed by individual departments is an example of what?
1. TQM
2. MBWA
3. CQI
4. PI
A

PI

37
Q
187
Constantly working towards improved customer satisfaction and quality of care always involving the administrator and top management would be an example of what?
1. PI
2. CQI
3. TQM
4. MBWA
A

CQI

38
Q
188
Resident rights, quality of life, accuracy of assessment, adequacy of care plan, quality of care and physical environment are all a focus of what type of care?
1. Person centered
2. Employee centered
3. Resident centered
4. Resident care
A

Resident centered

39
Q

189
Which of the following is true regarding food under Federal guidelines?
1. Home prepared food is considered safe
2. Home preserved food is considered safe
3. Both A & B
4. Food from resident’s families must be stored in a separate refrigerator

A

Food from residents families must be stored in a separate refrigerator

40
Q

190
Which of the following is not acceptable in liberalizing a diet?
1. Change or remove NAS
2. Change or remove NCS
3. Change or remove texture
4. Resident preference for holiday and/or celebration meals

A

Change or remove texture

41
Q

191
Which of the following is the exception to the rule that all food must be covered, labeled and dated by staff?
1. Employee break room refrigerator
2. Kitchen dry storage
3. Kitchen walk in freezer and refrigerator
4. Unopened food still in manufacturers packaging

A

Unopened food still in manufacturers packaging

42
Q

192
What makes the difference between activities staff encouraging a resident to an activity versus coercing a resident?
1. The activity must be care planned
2. The resident is alert
3. A confused resident refuses
4. The activity is not care planned but the resident agrees to attend the activity

A

The activity must be care planned

43
Q

193
Federal law regarding the retaining of clinical records refers to what as a first priority?
1. Records must be retained 5 years from discharge date
2. State law
3. There is no Federal law only State
4. For minors 3 years after legal age

A

State law

44
Q
194
When considering the use of 9 or more medications for a given resident, which of the following is not included?
1. Blood pressure medicine
2. Anti-psychotics
3. Vitamins
4. None of the above
A

None of the above

45
Q

195
What are the basic concepts imbedded in the regulations for nursing home care?
1. “The facility must”
2. “Resident has a right”
3. “Resident rights”
4. “The facility Must” and “resident has a right”

A

“The facility Must” and “resident has a right”

46
Q

196
According to Federal law who in the facility must be notified of any abuse allegations?
1. No staff is legally required to be notified
2. Administrator
3. The primary physician
4. The responsible party

A

Administrator

47
Q
197
The administrator, in order to maximize the outcome of the residents' quality of life and quality of care must do what?
1. Listen, analyzed, resolve and note
2. Listen, look, act, document
3. Listen, change, enhance and repeat
4. Listen, look, act, maintain
A

Listen, look, act, document

48
Q

198
What is the goal of a facility compliance program?
1. All departments be in compliance with State and Federal regulations
2. To be compliant
3. with facility policy
4. To be determined by the facilityNo such requirements

A

All departments be in compliance with State and Federal regulations

49
Q
199
Which of the following approach is associated to potentially having an adverse impact in the new hire process?
1. Disparate impact
2. Statistical
3. Clinical
4. Discrimination
A

Statistical

50
Q
200
At a minimum, how often must performance evaluations be performed?
1. Every 6 months
2. Annually
3. Quarterly
4. As needed
A

Annually

51
Q

201
Which of the following is true regarding OSHA statistics comparing non fatal work injuries in a nursing facility to private industry?
1. Two times the injuries and illness per 100 employees
2. It has declined since 2002
3. They are the same
4. Both A&B

A

Two times the injuries and illness per 100 employees
AND
It has declined since 2002

52
Q

202
Under what umbrella is the Lock Out/Tag Out program under?
1. OSHA
2. General duty clause
3. Hazardous energy
4. Identifying sources of electrical hazards

A

General duty clause

53
Q

203
Which of the following is not true regarding the reporting of injuries and illness?
1. Must be occupation related
2. Does not apply where there is more than 10 employees
3. Minor injuries must also be reported
4. Work injuries and illness must be posted at the end of the year

A

Minor injuries must also be reported

54
Q

204
What are the time frames for posting work related illness and injuries?
1. Within “reasonable” time at the end of the year
2. 30 days after the year ends
3. February 1st thru April 30th
4. All year long

A

February 1st thru April 30th

55
Q
205
Who requires a Sharps Inquiry Log?
1. State regulation 
2.OBRA
3. OSHA
4. Risk liability companies
A

OSHA

56
Q

206
Which of the following does not have to be reported on an internal incident report form?
1. A resident accidentally pinching their hand in between their
2. Staff member falls but do not injure themselves
3. Incident requiring only first aid
4. None of the above

A

None of the above

57
Q

207
Which of the following is not true regarding the reporting requirements of OSHA form 300?
1. Not applicable to non working related injuries/illness or resident illness/injury
2. Form 300 is transferred to form 300 A at the end of the year for posting
3. Injuries requiring only first aid are not reportable
4. Minor injuries involving temporary unconsciousness

A

Minor injuries involving temporary unconsciousness

58
Q

208
Which of the following is true if Federal minimum wage is higher than the State minimum wage?
1. State wage prevails
2. The higher wage takes precedence
3. Use the most recent minimum wage whether it is Federal or State
4. See minimum wage grid that calculates the average between the Federal and State minimum wage

A

The higher wage takes precedence

59
Q

209
Health institutions have the option to pay their employees over time on a 14 day basis rather than a 7 days basis under what conditions?
1. They have assigned agreement with the employer
2. It is a requirement of the Fair Labor Standards Act with no other requirement or contingency
3. Must have a prior agreement that hours in excess of 8 hours in a 24 hour period and hours in excess of 80 hours in a 14 day period is considered over time
4. Absolute over time requirements with no contingencies

A

Must have a prior agreement that hours in excess of 8 hours in a 24 hour period and hours in excess of 80 hours in a 14 day period is considered over time

60
Q
210
Which of the following are not exempt from the minimum wage and over time requirements?
1. Administrator
2. DON
3. Executive Director
4. Non-management
A

Non-management

61
Q

211
Which of the following is not true regarding applicants credit reports?
1. Applicants must be advised
2. It is illegal to request applicants credit report
3. Applicants must be given the name of the agency
4. Applicants must be given the address of the agency

A

It is illegal to request applicants credit report

62
Q

212
According to the National Labor Relation Act, health care workers going on strike must do what?
1. Must give the employers 10 days notice
2. Health care and non health care workers have the same requirements
3. Give a 91 day notice
4. Give a 120 day notice

A

Must give the employers 10 days notice

63
Q

213
Which of the following must an Administrator not discuss with hi/her staff who are attempting to organize a union?
1. Give personal opinion of labor unions
2. Discuss the pro’s and con’s of a union
3. Clarify false and/or misleading statements about unions
4. Ask staff if they have attended a union meeting

A

Ask staff if they have attended a union meeting

64
Q
214
Capital budgets are usually prepared how far in advance?
1. 2-3 years plus
2. 1 year beyond the budget period
3. 1 year prior
4. 1 years
A

2-3 years plus

65
Q
215
What is another name for the cash budget?
1. Cash flow projection
2. Cash flow forecast
3. Cash out flow
4. There is no other common name
A

Cash flow forecast

66
Q

216
What is the difference between RUG levels in an urban facility versus RUG levels in a rural facility?
1. Real Estate
2. Geographic
3. Geographic wage differences
4. RUGS are exactly the same regardless of area

A

Geographic wage difference

67
Q

217
Which of the following may be regarded as Medicare abuse or fraud?
1. “RUG” creep
2. Up coding and “RUG” creep
3. Utilizing ultra highs when they are justified
4. Utilizing RMX when appropriate

A

Up coding and “RUG” creep

68
Q

218
A facilities failure to submit a notice of non-coverage to a resident may result in what?
1. Absorb the cost of non covered services
2. There is no such thing as a notice of non-coverage
3. This failure to give notice has no consequences
4. “NON coverage” is referring to Medicare

A

Absorb the cost of non covered services

69
Q

219
A person/resident who requests and voluntarily receives non covered serves may have to personally pay for those services.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

70
Q
220
Which of the following pertains to demand billing?
1. Medicare guidelines
2. Beneficiary notices
3. Notice of non coverage and Exhaustion
4. All the above
A

All the above

71
Q
221
Charging a private pay resident a higher rate that exceeds actual costs is called what?
1. Budget versus actual
2. Cost shifting 
3. Illegal
4. Good business
A

Cost shifting

72
Q

222
Cost shifting is used to do what?
1. Off set the money loss from Medi-Cal daily rate
2. Cover the money gap between Medi-Cal rate and actual cost
3. Both A, B, & D
4. Earn extra money in one area that was lost in another

A

All the answers are correct

73
Q

223
A SNF which has a high number of Medicare patients on daily basis is a guarantee for a positive margin.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE