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ABO pt 1 > Questions #2 > Flashcards

Questions #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the success rate for autotransplantation in ideal conditions?

A

90%

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2
Q

Whats the most often autrotransplanted teeth in children?

A

Maxillary premolars to mandibular premolars

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3
Q

What is considered the “gold standard” for OSA treatment? If this doesn’t work well, what is the best surgical treatment?

A

CPAP

MMA (mandibular, maxillary advancement)

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4
Q

in OSA patients, is the hyoid positioned superiorly or inferiorly?

A

inferiorly (and posteriorly)

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5
Q

After using class II correctors, what three things contribute to relapse?

A

neuromuscular positioned mandible

maxillary teeth move forward

maxillary growth

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6
Q

To remodel the alveolus for a congenitally missing lateral incisor, what should you do?

A) extract c and b and encourage U3 to erupt into U2space

B) extract c and b and allow canine to erupt in its normal place

C) extract B only and encourage canine to erupt into lateral space. then only extract C when about to distalize U3

A

C

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7
Q

True or false… fibrous dysplasia is premalignant

A

false

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8
Q

True or false… acromegaly is genetic in nature

A

false

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9
Q

Which is most transmissible:

HIV

Hep B

Hep A

Hep C

A

Hep B

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10
Q

What is the ethical reason for informed consent?

  • beneficence
  • nonmaleficence
  • autonomy
  • Justice
A

autonomy

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11
Q

A patient is bi-max protrusive and you only extract U4s with some lower IPR. Will you change her profile?

A

Nope. In order to address profile you needed to ext 4 premolars

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12
Q

How much root formation is necessary for autotransplantation to be successful?

A

3/4

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13
Q

What percentage of class III cases not treated will need 2-jaw surgery later in life?

A

65%

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14
Q

what is the anatomical limitation to how far you can expand with SARPE?

A

Coronoid process

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15
Q

True or false… the omohyoid elevates the hyoid bone

A

false

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16
Q

Does the twin-block appliance cause long-term mandibular growth changes?

A

no

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17
Q

At what point in development do cleft lips occur?

A

during formation of organ systems (Day 28-38)

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18
Q

True or false… bone is deposited on the anterior surface of the zygomatic process during growth.

A

false. the anterior surface of zygomatic process is thus used for maxillary superimpositions

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19
Q

What percentage of flush terminal plane will result in class I relationship?

A

56%

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20
Q

Patients with a skeletal anterior open bite tend to have ___ posterior cranial bases

A

short

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21
Q

What percentage of skeletal class II cases are due to mandibular retrognathia instead of maxillary prognathism?

A

75%

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22
Q

What percentage of condyles grow normally after trauma?

A

75%

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23
Q

What is the first sign of osteoarthritis in the TMJ?

A

Crepitation (Stiffness of the jaw may appear before crepitation. but crepitation will appear before open bite appears)

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24
Q

Where does the U6 DL cusp occlude on the lower arch?

A

distal marginal ridge of L6

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25
Q

Do using opioids cause your pupils to constrict or dilate?

A

constrict

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26
Q

What does NOT occur when using a Forsus?

A) mesialization of L6s

B) Distalization of U6s

C) Proclination of L2-2

D) Decrease of ANB

A

D

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27
Q

The masseter muscle originates on the ____. It has two heads; Where do they insert?

A

Zygomatic process of maxilla

Superficial head = angle of mandible and lateral ramus

Deep head = ramus of mandible and coronoid process

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28
Q

the masseteric nerve goes through the _____

A

sigmoid notch

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29
Q

True or false… Neural crest cells give rise to ameloblasts and odontoblasts

A

false.

They give rise to odontoblasts but NOT ameloblasts

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30
Q

A stem cell is able differentiate into at least ___ different cell types

A

3

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31
Q

Why is there a greater break down of bone in patients with gingival inflammation?

A

higher levels of prostaglandins

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32
Q

Why do patients with active periodontitis have more bone loss with ortho treatment?

A) Higher bone turnover
B) Osteoblasts cannot function in an inflammatory environment
C) Osteoclast activity is increased

A

Study guide says B. But C is also true.

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33
Q

True or false… osteoclasts are present in the hyalinized zone within the PDL in undermining resorption.

A

false. The osteoclasts are in the bone marrow spaces ADJACENT to the PDL

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34
Q

True or false… IL-1 affects the gingival response and fibroblasts.

True or false… Interferon gamma is found during gingival turnover

A

false

false

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35
Q

Which of the following does NOT increase during tooth movement?

TNF-beta

Neocytokine

A

Neocytokine

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36
Q

According to Edwards 1988 is the collagen in the PDL elastic or inelastic? What about in the supracrestal tissue?

A

both are INELASTIC

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37
Q

Which fibers are responsible for orthodontic relapse?

Which fibers do you cut in CSF to prevent relapse?

A

supracrestal

transeptal

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38
Q

The tongue comes from which branchial arches?

A

1 (anterior 2/3rds)

3 and 4 (posterior 2/3rds)

The 2nd branchial arch is NOT involved in formation of the tongue!!!

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39
Q

The frontonasal process’s median nasal process gives rise to…

the lateral nasal process gives rise to…

A

philtrum of the U lip

alae of the nose

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40
Q

The primary palate is formed by the fusion of the __ and ___ process

The secondary palate is formed by the fusion of the ____

A

maxillary and medial nasal

maxillary shelves/processes

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41
Q

A study found that pregnant women supplemented with 0.4mg folic acid displayed ___% decrease in occurrence of cleft lip/palate?

A

33%

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42
Q

The nasolacrimal duct is formed by the joining of what two processes?

A

lateral nasal process

maxillary process

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43
Q

What ligament comes from Meckel’s cartilage?

A

sphenomandibular

44
Q

True or false… both the maxilla and mandible arise from the first branchial arch

A

true

45
Q

The mandible is formed via intramembranous ossification ___ to Meckel’s cartilage

A

lateral (not medial, superior, or inferior!)

46
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is considered the primary cartilage in the mandible. What cartilage is considered the secondary cartilage?

A

condylar

47
Q

What age does the mandibular symphysis fuse?

A

6-9 months after birth

48
Q

The most stable area of the maxilla during growth is the ___ surface of the zygomatic process. Do not superimpose onto ____, which models ___ and ___. Also do not superimpose on the ___, which models __ and ___. Meanwhile, the nasal floor remodels __ and ___

A

anterior

key ridge
down and back

orbital rim
upwards and forwards

downwards

49
Q

Is sutural growth unidirectional or bidirectional?

A

bidirectional

50
Q

when do each of the following fuse?

Intersphenoid

anterior and posterior occipital

spheno-ethmoidal

spheno-occipital

A

inter sphenoid = at birth

anterior and posterior occipital = 3-5 years

spheno-ethmoidal = 7-8 years

spheno-occipital = 15-20 years

51
Q

Which gland initiates puberty?

hypothalamus

pituitary

adrenal

ovaries/testes

A

hypothalamus

52
Q

which bone allows others to slide past each other during growth?

A

lacrimal

53
Q

Which is the most common primary molar relationship?

A

flush terminal plane

54
Q

which of the following is NOT true?

A) Agenesis of third molars is 20%

B) Agenesis of unilateral 2nd premolars is 3%

C) Agenesis of third molar associated with 13x chance of also missing other teeth

D) Agenesis of third molar is NOT related to the crown shape of lateral and premolars

E) Agenesis of upper laterals is 2.2%

A

D

Agenesis of 3rd molars actually IS related to the crown shape of other teeth. they are more likely to be small or shaped weird. (verified this on google. and found the article that says that third molar is associated with 13x chance of also missing other teeth)

55
Q

True or false… transposition of teeth is associated with a tooth-size arch-length discrepancy

A

false.

56
Q

Acromegaly is associated with which enlarged sinus?

A

enlarged frontal sinus

57
Q

Hypertelorism is associated with which type of clefting?

A

midline/midfacial

58
Q

True or false… hemifacial microsomia is associated with delayed tooth eruption

A

false

59
Q

Wormian bones are found in ____

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

(conflicting info… study guide says cleidocranial dysostosis. which is true according to google, but it is more common in osteogenesis imperfecta)

60
Q

what is the most common bloodborne pathogens in the US? is there a vaccine?

A

Hep C

No

61
Q

Which cyst is associated with a congenitally missing tooth but arises from dental lamina?

A

OKC / primordial cyst

62
Q

Are unicystic or polycystic ameloblastomas more common?

A

polycystic

63
Q

How do you treat an ameloblastoma?

A

unicystic = enucleate and curettage

polycystic = marginal/block resection

(Do not do radical dissection)

64
Q

what is the most common tumor of odontogenic origin?

A

Odontoma

65
Q

what is the most common salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

66
Q

If you cannot use heat to sterilize the instrument you should use___

A

Ethylene oxide

or Vaporized hydrogen peroxide

(Ethylene oxide was not a choice in 2018 but vaporized hydrogen peroxide was)

67
Q

What do you do when you are finishing a case with a CO-CR slide less than 2mm with coincident midlines?

A

occlusal equilibration

68
Q

True or false… occlusal interferences cause bruxism

A

false

69
Q

If a patient is undergoing splint therapy, when should they start weaning off the splint?

A

3 months

70
Q

Patient with closed lock, what is restricted?

A

limited lateral movement toward unaffected side. deviation toward affected side upon opening

71
Q

true or false… capsulitis is not associated with jaw sounds

A

true. it is not associated with jaw sounds (popping/clicking)

72
Q

What is used for detecting active growth? why?

A

Tech-99 bone scan (Taken up by osteoblasts)

73
Q

How do you monitor condylar hyperplasia?

tech-99 bone scan

PA cephalometric superimpositions

serial lateral ceph

serial CBCT

A

Tech-99 bone scan

74
Q

Why does using a smaller voxel size cause more radiation?

A

more photons

75
Q

Which of the following is false about radiation?

A) equivalent does is measured in mSv

B) absorbed dose is in mGy

C) absorbed dose does not take into consideration the organ being irradiated

D) equivalent dose does not take into consideration the organ being irradiated

A

D (equivalent dose does take the organ being irradiated into consideration)

76
Q

is a 0.4 voxel size better at showing vertical height or BL thickness of bone?

A

height > thickness

77
Q

Define opisthion

A

the most posterior point of the foramen magnum

78
Q

True or false… Nasion is stable for superimposition of the cranial base

A

false

79
Q

What is the primary and secondary sites for maxillary superimposition?

A

primary = anterior border of zygomatic process

secondary = maxillo-zygomatico-temporal sulcus

80
Q

What are the primary (saggital and vertical) sites and secondary sites for superimposition of the cranial base?

A

primary (sagittal) = contour of anterior wall of sella turcica. and contour of greater wing of sphenoid

primary (vertical) = vertical intersection of anterior wall of sella and anterior clinoid process (walker’s point), and cribriform plate.

Secondary = planum sphenoidale, and cerebral surface of orbital part of frontal bone

*The occiput is not stable but can aid in orientation

81
Q

What are the primary and secondary sites for superimposition of the mandible?

A

primary = contour of chin just below pogonion, inner contour of cortical plate at lower border of symphysis, and contour of alveolar canals

secondary = lower contour of 3rd molar buds

82
Q

What is a side effect of prolonged use of amphetamines?

A

constricted vasculature

83
Q

What percentage of sodium fluoride should orthodontic patients rinse with daily?

A

0.05%

84
Q

Fluoride prevents caries in developing by ___%

A

20-40%

85
Q

What is springback?

A

The ability to be activated (exert clinically useful force when bent) beyond yield point.

Wire deflected beyond yield strength will not return to original shape but clinically useful springbuck will occur unless failure point is reached

86
Q

What allows a wire to have high deflection but low force?

A

phase transformation

87
Q

What type of wire delivered the most consistent type of force, A-NiTi or M-NiTi?

A

A-NiTi

88
Q

What is the most important factor of a wire when leveling?

A

load deflection

89
Q

According to Gianelly, LLHA can resolve ___% of crowding

A

68% (typically 4-5mm)

90
Q

True or false… Class II correctors have a tendency to deepen the bite

A

false

91
Q

When intruding anterior teeth with a round arch wire, what is the best way to prevent molar tipback?

A

High pull HG with short outer bow and TPA

92
Q

When using class II elastics that goes anterior to the center of resistance of the maxilla and distal to the center of rotation of the mandible, what does it do to the planes?

A

steepens the occlusal planes

93
Q

If a canine erupts in place of a missing lateral incisor space and the C is retainers, how much alveolar bone is lost?

A

<1%

94
Q

Which do patients complain about the most about canine substitution, color or shape?

A

color

95
Q

True or false… in the early mixed dentition you need to treat a skeletal open bite because you can treat it easier at this stage

A

true

96
Q

True or false.. in a serial extraction case, you get more retroclined lower incisors

A

true

97
Q

When does the ABO score third molars?

  • always
  • when they are in functional occlusion
  • when they are substituting for second molars
A

when they are substituting for second molars

98
Q

Which are NOT acceptable records to evaluate an ortho patient with perio problems?

  • PSR
  • FMX
  • letter from dentist
  • Pano, PAs, BWs
A

PSR

PSR = perio screening record. it is not a thorough exam and cannot be used for diagnostic purposes

99
Q

___% of open bites treated surgically are stable. ___% of open bites treated non surgically are stable.

A

82%

75%

100
Q

When impacting the maxilla, how do you decide where to place the upper incisors. based on incisal display at rest, posed smile, or animated smile?

A

incisal display at rest

101
Q

What is the relationship of maxillary incisors to stomion superiors in a patient with skeletal anterior open bite?

What if it was a dental open bite?

A

Below (meaning that incisors are normally positioned vertically relative to the lip.)

Above if dental open bite

102
Q

What surgery may be considered in a 15-year old girl with mandibular prognathism to make sure she doesn’t have any more growth?

A

high condylectomy

103
Q

What is the best type of mandibular setback for class III patients with TMD problems? should you use rigid fixation?

A

IVRO (not BSSO)

study guide says don’t do RIF with these patients

104
Q

After specification with CaOH, there is an increased risk of…

  • external root resorption
  • internal root resorption
  • root fracture
  • ankylosis
A

root fracture

105
Q

If you have a missing maxillary lateral incisor that you want to place an implant, what percentage of space relative to the U1 should you leave?

A

75%

106
Q

In the anterior maxilla, after extraction ___% of BL bone is lost within the first 6 months.

In the posterior mandible, after extraction ___% of BL bone is lost within the first 6 months

A

23%

30%

ABO pt 1 (2 decks)

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