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ABO pt 1 > Questions #1 > Flashcards

Questions #1 Flashcards

1
Q

A curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is a characteristic of what?

A

Rotation of the mandible

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2
Q

What are Bjork’s 7 structural signs of mandibular rotation?

A
  1. inclination of the condylar head
  2. curvature of the mandibular canal
  3. shape of the lower border of the mandible
  4. Inclination of symphysis
  5. Interincisal angle
  6. intermolar and interpremolar angles
  7. Anterior facial height
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3
Q

The arch length from mandibular 2nd molar to contralateral 2nd molar should be about what % of that distance in the maxillary arch?

A

91%

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4
Q

1mm increase in mandibular inter molar width results in approximately ___mm increase in arch perimeter.

A

0.25mm

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5
Q

Elastomeric chain decays to 50% in ___ day(s).

A

1

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6
Q

The tongue reaches its maximum size at age ___.

A

8

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7
Q

Type ___ collagen is present in the sutures.

A

3

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8
Q

The muscles of facial expression develop from the ___ branchial arch.

A

second

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9
Q

How many branches does the facial nerve have?

A

5

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10
Q

What foramen does V2 pass through?

A

Rotundum

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11
Q

The facial artery is a branch of the ____

A

external carotid artery

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12
Q

How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose?

A

3

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13
Q

The incus is derived from ___

A

Meckel’s cartilage

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14
Q

Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges?

A

sesamoid bone

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15
Q

Patient with abnormal resorption pattern of primary teeth, delayed eruption of primary teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth, and large tongue. what is the diagnosis?

A

Hypothyroidism

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16
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV patients is…

  • transitory condition
  • caused by human papilloma virus
  • multifocal
  • result of staph infection
A

Multi focal

kaposis sarcoma is caused by herpes simplex virus B

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17
Q

What week inutero does the tongue start forming?

A

4 weeks

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18
Q

Alae of the nose comes from…

  • lateral nasal process
  • median nasal process
  • maxillary process
A

lateral nasal process

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19
Q

Initial tooth displacement occurs within seconds, but actual compression of PDL requires….

  • 5-10 minutes
  • 30-60 minutes
  • 1-3 hours
  • 3-5 hours
A

1-3 hours

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20
Q

Where do odontoclasts come from?

A

blood vessels

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21
Q

Root resorption is influenced by…

  • hypothyroidism
  • nutrition
  • appliance type
A

Hypothyroidism

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22
Q

Where do cells for bone deposition originate?

A

mesenchymal cells

clasts from blood vessels and bone marrow
blasts from PDL (mesenchymal cells)

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23
Q

Which would you NOT see in Treacher Collin’s syndrome?

  • Deficient malar eminence
  • incomplete zygomatic arch
  • ANB < 5 degrees
  • Hearing impairment
A

ANB < 5 degrees

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24
Q

What bone makes up the lateral border of foramen lacerum? What about medial border?

A 
Lateral = temporal
Medial = occipital
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25
Q

What branches does CNVII give off BEFORE the parotid gland?

A

3
Nerve to post. belly digastric
nerve to stylohyoid
posterior auricular nerve (supplies occipitalis)

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26
Q

CNV and its branches pass through all of these foramen except…

  • ovale
  • rotundum
  • spinosum
  • mandibular
  • lacerum
A

lacerum

spinosum = meningeal branch of V3

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27
Q

True or false… sustained high serum calcium level often is a manifestation of hyperthyroidism and malignancy

A

true

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28
Q

True or false… muscle hyperactivity and decreased cardiac output both are results of hypocalcemia.

A

True

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29
Q

How much force is applied when teeth are in contact during swallowing?

A

100g

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30
Q

____ bone allows attachment of tendons/ligaments and has Sharpey’s fibers.

A

bundle

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31
Q

Composite bone is formed by deposition of ___ bone within a ___ bone lattice.

A

lamellar

Woven

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32
Q

Posterior point of anterior cranial base is…

  • sphenoid bone
  • sella turcia
  • basion
A

sella turcica

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33
Q

What is broadbent’s registration point?

A

midway point on line perpendicular from sella to bolton point - nasion plane

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34
Q

Sensitivity is…

  • percentage of persons with the disease
  • true positives/pts with the disease
  • true negatives / pts with the disease
A

true positives / pts with the disease

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35
Q

Specificity is…

  • percentage of persons with the disease
  • true positives / pts with the disease
  • true negatives / pts without the disease
A

true negatives / pts without the disease

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36
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence = number of new individuals who contract disease during particular period of time

prevalence = all individuals affected by disease at a particular time

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37
Q

According to Red Cross, brain cells BEGIN to die in __-___ minutes without oxygen. irreversible brain damage is certain + biological death @ ___ minutes

A

4-6 minutes

10 minutes

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38
Q

In adults, a rescue breath is given every ___ seconds

A

5 seconds

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39
Q

What is adult compression:breath ratio? What about for children?

A

Adults: 30:2

Children: 1 rescuer = 30:2. 2 rescuers = 15:2

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40
Q

AHA currently recommends AB prophylaxis for which of these procedures in cardiac patients:

  • all orthodontic procedures
  • simple orthodontic procedures
  • extensive orthodontic procedures
A
  • extensive orthodontic procedures (ex: breaking mucosa, gingival manipulation, banding (not bonding))
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41
Q

If you know the value of X, then with which test you can find out the value of Y?

A

Regression

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42
Q

How much enamel is removed by etching with 37% phosphoric acid for 30s?

A

3-10 microns

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43
Q

How much enamel is removed by etching with 37% phosphoric acid for 15 seconds?

A

1-2 microns

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44
Q

How long should 37% phosphoric acid be left on the enamel surface for?

A

15-30 seconds

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45
Q

What is the estimated healing time for implant in the maxilla?

A

6-8 months

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46
Q

What type of bone is at the implant/bone interface of a healthy, osseointegrated implant?

A

Lamellar

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47
Q

Presence of what two things histologically can tell you that an implant is failed or failing?

A

Fibrous tissue

woven bone

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48
Q

The rate of remodeling bone near an implant is (higher/lower) compared to basilar bone nearby.

A

Higher

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49
Q

T/F… if during implant placement, implant impinges on adjacent PDL, implant will not be able to osseointegrate

t/F.. when this happens, the adjacent tooth usually ankyloses.

A

false

false

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50
Q

T/F TADs can routinely support larger forces (EX 10N) over a prolonged duration “(1-2 years)

A

false (endosseous implants can do this, not TADs)

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51
Q

T/F remolding of gingival CT is not as rapid as in the PDL

A

True

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52
Q

Slower turnover of gingival collagen fibers explain why these fibers are seen stretched + unremodeled as long as ___ days after experimental tooth rotation.

A

232 days

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53
Q

Subgingival irrigation of ortho banded 1st molars with either CHX or isotonic saline produces:

A

cessation of gingival papillary bleeding

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54
Q

After maxillary tooth extraction in anterior region, ridge width is reduced in BL dimension ___% over the next 6 months.

A

23%

(if no implant placed at edentulous ridge after tooth ext, BL width reduces 23% in first 6 months, then total of 34% over 5 years)

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55
Q

If you have 5mm deep probing on buccal surface of molar and it does not go through furcation, what should you do?

A

GTR

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56
Q

How much can the anterior maxilla be impacted before it becomes unstable?

A

9-10mm

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57
Q

Ortho surgery most likely to cause post-op TMJ popping/crepitation is….

A

Mandibular advancement

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58
Q

When asymptomatic non-ectopic impacted mandibular third molars are followed for 20 years, what % are expected to erupt into normal position?

A

33%

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59
Q

Why is orthodontics in the face of periodontal disease so destructive?

A

clasts thrive in an inflammatory environment because they originate in the marrow, a protective site removed from the localized lesion; preosteoclasts are attracted to inflammatory site by cytokines. Vascuallry mediated osteoblast histogenesis, is suppressed strongly by inflammatory disease.

…so when teeth are moved in presence of active periodontal disease, RESORPTION is normal or even enhanced and formation is inhibited.

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60
Q

Sagittal split osteotomy is procedure of choice for mandibular advancement. what are the most common complications?

  • relapse, posterior open bite, numbness of tongue
  • numbness of lower lip, lateral open bite, and class III
  • Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus
  • numbness of lower lip and facial paralysis
A

condylar sagging and post surgical trismus

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61
Q

Moving the maxilla up and/or forward can have what two major deleterious effects on the nose?

A

rotation of the nasal tip upwards (deepening of supra tip depression)

widening of the alar base

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62
Q

What type of bone can you NOT use for ridge augmentation?

  • hydroxyapatite
  • freeze dried demineralized bone graft
  • iliac crest autograft
A

hydroxyapatite

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63
Q

Soft tissue responses after double jaw surgery compared to single jaw:

  • show greater changes with more fullness of lips
  • show fewer changes due to less movement
  • show similar changes
  • show greater reduction in upper and lower lip
A

Show fewer changes due to less movement

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64
Q

The greatest increase in arch perimeter is from…

  • canine expansion
  • incisor advancement
  • molar expansion
  • A and C
A

Incisor advancement

(for every 1mm or 2.5 degrees of proclination you gain 2mm of arch perimeter. when molars expand 1mm you only gain 0.7mm of arch perimeter)

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65
Q

What is the normal physiologic eruptive force of a tooth?

A

2-10g

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66
Q

If you tip maxillary centrals toward each other with springs on a Hawley to close a diastema, where is the center of rotation?

A

Uncontrolled tipping (CoR = 1/2 down the root) Study guide says apical 1/3 of root?

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67
Q

What is the normal maxillary inter molar width in adults?

A

36-39mm

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68
Q

What is normal maxillary inter molar width in adolescents?

A

33-35mm

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69
Q

True or false.. in McNamara’s study, statistically significant differences were found for inter canine and inter molar widths among Cl I, II, and III

A

false. (no significant differences found)

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70
Q

Incisor liability refers to…

A

space needed for mandibular incisors

once centrals and laterals erupt, the maxilla usually has just enough space to accommodate, but the mandible usually has 1.5mm less space than needed.

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71
Q

What are some problems that occur if there is lack of lingual crown torque on mandibular molars?

  • crossbites
  • extrusion of molars
  • extrusion of premolar
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

(If you develop the lower arch without lingual crown torque the molars will upright causing extrusion and thereby extrusion of the premolars too)

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72
Q

post-treatment studies of malocclusions treated with extraction of teeth found by Little found…

A

2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors

(in 10 year post retention cases, approximately 3-0% were clinically acceptable at post retention stage. so that means 70%ish were NOT clinically acceptable and had relapse)

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73
Q

Which is NOT true when extracting primary canine too early?

  • may prevent impaction of teeth
  • teeth may shift
  • increased OJ and OB
A

may prevent impaction of teeth (may cause impaction of teeth)

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74
Q

True or false… peak height velocity for girls usually comes after menstration.

A

false… PVH usually 12 months before menstration

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75
Q

PVH usually occurs ___ months before menstration

A

12

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76
Q

in late maturing girls, PVH occurs:

  • 12-16 months before menstration
  • 18-24 months before menstration
  • more than 24 months before menstration
A

18-24 months

normal is 12 months. in late PVH menstration occurs even later than 12 months from PVH

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77
Q

What is the single best way to determine remaining growth POTENTIAL?

A

hand-wrist

Serial cephs are best fore determining when growth has stopped. hand-wrist is best fore determing growth potential

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78
Q

When do primary teeth start to calcify in the fetus?

A

14 weeks.

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79
Q

Mandibular growth rate in females:

  • twice as larger fo 14-16yos vs 16-20yos
  • similar in 14-16yo vs 16-20yos
  • primarily in mandibular plane area
  • greater in vertical growth than AP
A

Twice as large for 14-16 year olds vs 16-20 year olds (verified by google)

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80
Q

Which growth sites are NOT in the cranium?

  • syndesmoses
  • periosteum
  • synchondroses
  • synostosis
A

synostosis (refers to early fusion, NOT a growth site)

syndesmoses refers to sutures

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81
Q

True or false… patients who are late in their maturation show larger INCREMENTS of growth than those who mature early.

A

false (late maturation will grow slowly but for an extended period of time, not necessarily larger increments)

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82
Q

Where does growth occur to make room for maxillary molars?

A

tuberosity

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83
Q

An exposed radiograph should remain in fixer solution:

  • as long as it remained in the developer
  • until the first film clears
  • for five minutes at 70 degrees
  • for at least 10 minutes
A

5 minutes at 70 degrees

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84
Q

What is the minimum total filtration required by x-ray machine to operate in ranges greater than 70 kVp?

A

2.5mm aluminum

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85
Q

When taking lateral cephs, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce:

A

exposure times

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86
Q

What did Downs use for superimposition?

  • Broadbent registration point
  • bolton point
  • porion
  • Frankfort horizontal
A

Broadbent registration point

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87
Q

Which of the following remains relatively constant with age?

  • Y axis
  • facial axis
  • facial angle
  • mandibular plane angle
A

Facial axis (Ba-N to PT-Gn. 90degrees ideal. no age changes)

(Y axis AKA growth axis is from FH to S-Gn. increases from 8-15 years)

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88
Q

True or false… Anatomic porion correlates to the super portion of the internal auditory meatus.

A

False. anatomical porion correlates to the EXTERNAL auditory meatus. the internal auditory meatus appears smaller radiolucency which is superior and distal to the external meatus.

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89
Q

What ratio is used to see relationship of lower incisors + chin?

A

Holdaway ratio

(according to Holdaway, distance between labial surface of mandibular incisor to NB line and the distance from pogonoin to NB line should be equal.) Should be 4mm each

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90
Q

Most accurate serum indicator for bone turnover during use with bisphosphaonates is ___

A

C telopeptides

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91
Q

What typically happens to L1-MP as we age?

A

Study guide says increase (referring to the fact that during development, permanent lower incisors erupt lingually and then position themselves more labially).

…but I think it may actually decrease as we age due to late mandibular growth.

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92
Q

What is the significance of short posterior cranial base?

  • mandibular prognathism
  • anterior crossbite
  • maxillary retroganthism
  • all of the above
A

All of the above

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93
Q

Is an obtuse or acute cranial base flexure associated with class III skeletal relationship?

A

acute

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94
Q

Pts treated with arch length expansion procedures in mixed dentition:

  • maintain expansion for indefinite period after treatment
  • relapse to original arch length immediately after treatment
  • lose arch length, in majority of cases until less than pre-treatment
  • relapse to original arch length after about 7 years
A

lose arch length in majority of cases, until less than pre-treatmetn

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95
Q

Lateral ceph shows second molars and Es present. how old is the patient most likely?

  • 9
  • 11
  • 13
  • 15
A

13

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96
Q

If you have an open bite patient and elect to treat with HPHG, what adjustment should you make to the outer bow?

A

bend outer long bow downwards (facilitates intrusion and minimizes tipping)

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97
Q

What happens to A-point during RME?

A

maxilla comes forward (and arguably slightly downward)

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98
Q

Define range (mechanical property).

A

Distance the wire will bend elastically before permanent deformation occurs

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99
Q

Define springback

A

ability to undergo large deflections without permanent deformation

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100
Q

Define resilience. where is it found on the graph?

A

energy storage capacity of the wire. it is the area under the curve up to proportional limit.

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101
Q

According to the ADA, a ___ point bending test is appropriate mechanical test of activation and deactivation of beams (ortho wires)

A

3

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102
Q

best bond strength of ceramic brackets was achieved by ___% adhesive filler concentration

  • 30%
  • 55%
  • 80%
A

80%

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103
Q

Hep B can survive outside the body for at least ____

A

7 days

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104
Q

With hep B, what symptoms do patients typically feel during the acute infection phase?

A

none (some patients can have acute illness that lasts weeks and includes jaundice, dark urine, fatigue, and abdominal pain. however most do not have symptoms)

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105
Q

What does it mean if a patient has anti-hbc and anti Hbs, but doesn’t have HBsAg?

A

immune due to natural infection

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106
Q

What does it mean if a patient has anti-HBs, but not anti-HBc or HBsAg?

A

immune due to vaccination

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107
Q

What does it mean if ta patient has HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM c-HBc, but NOT anti-HBs?

A

acutely infected

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108
Q

What does it mean if pt has HBsAg and anti-HBc, but not IgM, anti HBc or anti-HBs?

A

chronically infected

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109
Q

What happens to the female profile over time?

  • becomes straighter
  • stays the same
A

stays the same

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110
Q

What happens to female lips over time?

  • becomes more protrusive
  • becomes more retrusive
  • stays the same
A

stays the same

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111
Q

What happens to the female nose and chin over time?

  • nose increases and chin increases
  • nose increases and chin decreases
  • both stay the same
A

Nose increases, chin decreases

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112
Q

In Ursi, McNamara, and Behrents study “sexual dimorphism in normal CF growth
“, who were their subjects? what did they find about the anterior cranial base of males vs females?

A

Caucasians

larger in males

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113
Q

Overall, laboratory detection of hep B infection focuses on detection of ____

A

Hep B surface antigens (HBsAg)

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114
Q

Acute Hep B infection is characterized by the presence of what three things?

A

HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, anti-HBc

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115
Q

Chronic infection of Hep B is characterized by the presence of __ for at least 6 months.

A

HBsAg

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116
Q

___ is the antigen used to make the hep B vaccine

A

HBsAg

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117
Q

____ appears at the onset of symptoms in acute Hep B infection and persists for life.

A

anti-HBc

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118
Q

What is the most common symptom seen in Hep B?

A

no symptoms

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119
Q

What are the five treatment goals of Ron Roth?

A 
facial esthetics
dental esthetics
functional occlusion
perio health
stability
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120
Q

True or false… balancing side contacts are benign. It only is considered an interference if its affect function or causing injury

A

true

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121
Q

What is the difference between an occlusal balancing contact and an occlusal interference?

A

Balancing contact = when the teeth come together usually without injury; ie without tooth mobility, deflection of the mandible, or effect on the TMJs

Interference = A contact that can force the mandible to deviate from a normal pattern of movement

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122
Q

True or false.. canine protected occlusion has been shown to be better than group function

A

false. Superiority of one functional occlusion more minimizing TMD has NOT been concluded

(group function may be better for a bruxer than CPO because of the exaggerated lateral movements that a bruxer has)

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123
Q

True or false… group function is found in nature more often than canine protected occlusion (CPO)

A

false. there has not been a predominante form of functional occlusion found in nature

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124
Q

____ is the best method for diagnosing anterior disc displacement. ___ is the best method for diagnosing sideways or rotational displacements

A

Arthrography

MRI

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125
Q

The presence of buccal corridors is referred to as [negative/positive] space.

A

negative

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126
Q

Is the smile arc supposed to be parallel with the lower lip in the posed smile or animated smile?

A

posed

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127
Q

True or false… bracket placement emphasized at obtaining canine guidance may be at the expense of smile esthetics resulting in a flat smile arc

A

true

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128
Q

According to Sperry 1982, the center of rotation of the mandible during autorotation is associated with the ___ when cephs are taken in CO rather than CR.

A

Mastoid process

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129
Q

True or false… according to Stephens, if extraction and non extraction patients are treated to the same incisor position and lip line, extraction patients exhibit a sunken in profile

A

false. if extraction and non extraction patients are treated to the same incisor position and lip line, the treatment modality does not affect long-term soft tissue profile changes.

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130
Q

True or false… with age, male lips become relatively more retrusive than females

A

true. especially because of increased nose and chin growth when compared to females

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131
Q

What is the difference between dentin dysplasia type 1 and type 2?

A

Type 1 = underdeveloped roots with obliterated pulp chamber

type 2 = brownish-blue primary teeth and enlarged pulp

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132
Q

According to a study by Tasaki 1996, disk displacement was observed in ___% of TMD patients and ___% of symptom-free volunteers

A

82%

30%

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133
Q

What are the two most common types of disk displacement?

A

anterior

anterolateral

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134
Q

True or false… the pano radiograph is better than PA radiographs and occlusal radiographs in detecting root resorption

A

true

However, “CBCT is more accurate and precise in localizing impacted teeth and for the identification of root resorption” (Tsolakis)

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135
Q

True or false… in Tulloch’s study about early class II treatment, they found no statistically significant difference between the effects of headgear vs functional appliance.

A

True. Approximately 80% of functional appliance and headgear patients had highly favorable skeletal relationship changes after phase 1 when compared to controls.

However, in another study, they showed that in phase two, both the previously treated children and untreated children, early treatment had little effect on the subsequent treatment outcomes measures. (this suggests that 2-phase treatment started before adolescence in the mixed dentition might be no more clinically effective than just a single phase of treatment started during adolescence. Therefore, early class II treatment is effective, but not efficient)

136
Q

What are some indications for phase I early class II treatment?

A

accident potential

psychosocial distress

general convenience to the family

137
Q

Early treatment of class II in children (phase I) results in ___ reduction in average time in fixed appliances during phase 2. It also results in ___ reduction in proportion of complex treatment in phase 2.

A

No

No

138
Q

According to Viglianisi 2010, the results showed that the ___ is effective for controlling mesial movements of molars and lingual tipping of incisors

A

lingual arch

It even causes some backward tip of the molars and anterior tip of the incisors. Meanwhile, in untreated subjects, the molars tip anteriorly and the incisors tip lingually

139
Q

LLHA is an effective appliance for what 7 things? (Viglianisi 2010)

A
  • Maintaining space during eruption of permanent teeth
  • preserving molar anchorage
  • preventing arch length decrease
  • obtaining in some patients an arch length increase
  • preventing molars from tipping mesially
  • preventing mandibular incisors from tipping lingually
  • also can resolve marginal crowding by controlling space use in the mandibular arch
140
Q

According to Wang 2015, incorporating ____ into RMGIC greatly reduced biofilm activity, which in turn could help prevent WSL formation.

A

0.1% NAg (nanoparticles of silver)

141
Q

Orthodontically induced root resorption is unaffected by what three things? (Weltman 2010)

A

arch wire sequencing

bracket prescription

self-ligation

142
Q

True or false… the evidence supports taking a 2-3 month pause in treatment (passive AW) to decrease total root resorption

A

true

143
Q

Histological studies show ___% occurrence of orthodontically induced inflammatory root resorption in ortho treated teeth. Normally < ___mm. Severe is defined as >____mm and occurs in ___% of teeth

A

> 90%

Weltman 2010

2.5mm

4mm
1-5%

144
Q

The failure rate of TADs in the anterior palate is low (1-5%). where is the ideal zone with lowest failure rate?

A

directly posterior to palatal rugae

145
Q

True or false… TAD expanders have little potential for relapse so there is no need for significant molar expansion

A

true

146
Q

What is the conclusion of the 2013 Wood article titled “factors affecting the accuracy of buccal alveolar bone height measurements from cone-beam computed tomography images.”

A

At an adolescent age, the buccal alveolar bone height measured from the maxillary molar region based on 0.4mm voxel-size CBCT images can have relatively large and frequently inaccurate measurements, possibly due to its thinness. By using 0.2mm voxel-size scans, measurement accuracy might be improved, but only when the overlying facial and gingival tissues are kept intact.

147
Q

True or false… Buccal bone is thinner in the mandible than the maxilla

(Wood 2013)

A

false. it is thinner in the maxilla than the mandible

(this makes buccal alveolar bone measurements in maxillary region less accurate) Mandibular molar regions, however were generally within 1mm from physical truth

148
Q

According to Wood 2013, 0.2mm voxel may improve accuracy, but only when ____.

A

overlying facial/gingival tissues are still intact.

lack of soft tissue adds more beam-hardening artifacts

149
Q

Systemic levels of bisphonates is ___ higher when delivered via IV than orally.

A

12 times

150
Q

What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?

A

inhibits bone resorption by osteoclasts. once in bloodstream it binds to exposed hydroxyapatite in osseous matrix. it remains inactive in bone until released during bone remodeling at which time it is transported into osteoclasts.

151
Q

Bisphosphonates are analogues of ___. they directly inhibit ___ activity and indirectly inhibit osteoclasts by preventing activating factors such as ___

A

inorganic pyrophosphates

osteoclastic

RANKL

152
Q

True or false… bisphosphonates exhibit antiangiogenic properties

A

true. results in less endothelial proliferation and decreased capillary formation

153
Q

Osteonecrosis related to bisphosphonates is more associated with the more potent ___-containing bisphophosphonates

A

nitrogen

154
Q

Osteonecrosis is irreversible from IV administration. it is only manageable by ___ and ___.

osteonecrosis from oral administration may be reversible with implants or grafts

A

chlorhexidine rinses

antibiotics

155
Q

true or false… there is an increased risk of osteonecrosis if a pt had bisphosphonates during ortho

A

false.. but it may manifest slower tooth movement

extractions and surgeries should be avoided in these patients but you can still do ortho, just slowly.

156
Q

What are the four components of CBCT image production?

A

acquisition configuration

image detection

image reconstruction

image display

157
Q

CBCT provides voxel resolutions that are ____ (meaning equal in all three dimensions)

A

isotropic

158
Q

_____ allows a CBCT to be converted to a pano

____ allows a CBCT to be converted to a lateral ceph

A

Curved planar reformation

Ray casting

159
Q

Describe beam hardening in regards to CBCT.

A

lower energy photons absolved preferentially over higher energy photons which leads to distortion of metallic structures andd streaks or dark bands between two dense objects

160
Q

Define partial volume averaging regarding CBCT.

A

The voxel displays an average of the densities present; this can make boundaries between densities harder to accurately distinguish.

161
Q

True or false.. with internal resorption the pulp is necrotic coronal to the resorption lacunae but vital apical to it

A

true

162
Q

A tooth is pink from some type of resorption. which type is it?

A

cervical resorption (type of external resorption.)

if the resorptive process reaches a supra gingival area of the crown, the well vascularized granulation tissue of the resorption lacuna may be visible through the enamel and the pt will present with a pink tooth

163
Q

True or false… a study by Jiang found that females exhibit more root resorption than males.

A

false. there is no relation to gender.

164
Q

Is there a correlation between age and root resorption?

A

There is a positive correlation between age and root resorption of upper incisors, but not any other teeth

165
Q

Incisor proclination with controlled or uncontrolled tipping will cause more arch perimeter?

A

controlled tipping

166
Q

According to Robertsson and Mohlin 2000, which, prosthetic replacement or canine substitution of missing lateral incisor, is more accepted by patients, doesn’t impair TMJ function, and encourages periodontal health?

A

canine substitution

important to note, however, that this study did not include implants as prosthetic replacement options

167
Q

About ___% of maxillary lateral incisors are congenitally missing.

A

1-2%

168
Q

What is the main complaint from patients in canine substitution?

A

discoloration of the canines

169
Q

According to Schlicher 2012, Consistency in cephalometric landmark location and precision [did/did not] differ significantly among the 9 examiners.

A

did not

midline landmarks were identified with greater consistency than all bilateral structures

170
Q

According to Schlicher 2012, which cephalometric landmark was identified most consistently?

which landmark was the most inconsistent?

Which landmark was the most imprecise?

A

Sella Turcica

Porion

orbitale

171
Q

____ppm fluoride is recommended for high caries risk patients.

A

5000ppm

172
Q

What are the two most common adverse reactions of ankylosis?

A

impossibility to move the tooth orthdontically]

external cervical resorption

173
Q

True or false… single-implant treatment increases the prevalence and magnitude of gingival recession at the adjacent teeth

A

true

174
Q

Increased clinical crown height at implant crowns is explained by…

A

loss of vertical height of the crest before or during implant treatment, or a result of mucosal recession.

175
Q

Bisphosphonates are ___ analogues that inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and directly/specifically target high bone turnover.

A

pyrophosphate

176
Q

True or false… bisphosphonates significantly alter endochondral ossification of the condyle

A

true

177
Q

True or false… bisphosphonates makes tooth movement impossible.

A

false… it is possible, just slower. the outcome is more unpredictable in high-risk patients.

178
Q

What bacteria causes localized juvenile periodontitis?

A

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

179
Q

There are ___ serotypes of A. actinomycetemcomitans. Serotype ___ is increased in localized juvenile periodontitis.

A

3

B

180
Q

true or false… a acintomycetemcomitans can invade the gingival connective tissues like ANUG. Therefore mechanical debridement alone is insufficient.

A

true

181
Q

What is the optimal treatment for localized juvenile periodontitis?

A

Combination of systemic antibiotics (1g/day oral tetracycline for 3 weeks) and conventional periodontal therapy

182
Q

According to Patel 2010, Internal root resorption is more common in [females/males] and in ___ teeth.

A

males

autotransplanted

183
Q

___ internal root resorption is commonly associated with a periapical lesion

A

apical

184
Q

In order for internal root resorption to occur, the ___ and the ___ must be damaged. Additionally, the pulp tissue apical to the resorptive lesion must have ____

A

outermost protective odontoblast layer

predentin of the canal wall

a viable blood supply to provide clastic cells and their nutrients.

185
Q

A pink tooth is caused by granulation tissue undermining the necrotic area of coronal pulp. it more commonly seen in ___ root resorption.

A

cervical

186
Q

What is the second most common congenitally missing tooth?

When deciding how to address this missing tooth, what are some important factors to consider?

What is the ideal treatment?

A

U2

Appropriate option based on malocclusion, specific space requirements, tooth-size relationship, size and shape of canine.

The most conservative option that satisfies functional and esthetic goals.

187
Q

Describe the ideal case for canine sub. Why?

A

Class II with no crowding in mandibular arch.

or

class I with sufficient crowding of mandibular arch that necessitates extractions.

both of these scenarios allow for anterior group function in lateral excursive movements

188
Q

According to Tarnow, when the crest of bone is 3-5mm away from the interproximal contact point, the papilla is present about ___% of the time. if the bone is 7-10mm away from the contact point the papilla was missing about ___% of the time.

A

100%

78%

If its 6mm away, its present about 50% of the time.

189
Q

According to Holmgren 1993, Do full-coverage splints stop nocturnal bruxism?

A

nope.

wear facets reappeared in the same location/pattern as if no splint were in place.

190
Q

Describe the wear pattern found on splints due to nocturnal bruxism (Holmgren, 1993)

A

Wear facets reappeared in the same location/pattern.

in more than 80% of pts, the wear facets are due to lateral mandibular movements. (the action in nocturnal bruxism is grinding instead of clenching.

the wear facets showed that the mandible moved laterally far beyond edge-to-edge relationship of canines

191
Q

According to Holmgren, 1993. Occlusal splints improved signs/symptoms in ___% of patients.

A

78%

192
Q

According to Brooks 1997, what are the most useful views in plain film radiography to image the TMJ?

A

oblique transcranial

transmaxillary

submental-vertex

Transpharyngeal?

Note that these radiographs still cannot determine disk positions!

193
Q

Describe the transcranial view. What is it used for?

A

X-ray beam parallel to long axis of condyle.

Checks for fractures with marked dislocation and gross arthritic changes (especially the lateral part of the joint)

194
Q

Describe the trans maxillary view.

what is it used for?

A

Modified AP projection with beam approximately perpendicular to long axis of condyle. Lower jaw should be protruded to avoid superimposition of condyle onto base of the skull.

Allows for visualization of superior surface of condyle and inferior surface of eminence. can check for fractures with medial displacement of condylar head, neoplasms, anomalies, and severe degenerative joint diseases.

195
Q

Describe the submental-vertex view.

What is it used for?

A

projected through chin parallel to posterior border of ascending ramus.

checks for facial asymmetries, condylar displacement and rotation.

196
Q

Describe the trans pharyngeal view.

what is it used for?

A

sometimes used instead of transcrainal view. X-ray beam through sigmoid notch, opposite TMJ. Mouth must be open.

checks for destructive changes in condyle, fractures of condylar neck

197
Q

A panoramic radiograph only shows ___-___% agreement with lateral tomogram for osseous changes.

A

60-70%

Thte pano can only evaluate lateral slope and central parts of condyle. it is not adequate for diagnosis of anything other than gross changes.

198
Q

What is the major advantage of conventional tomography over plain film radiography?

What is the major disadvantage?

A

it provides multiple thin sections through region of interest. which largely eliminates problems of superimposition.

Lacks visualization of soft-tissues of joint

199
Q

True or false… conventional tomography provides a more accurate representation of condylar position compared to transcranial plain radiography

A

true

however…. condylar position doesn’t reliably predict disk position. and there is high variability in condylar position in both sympatic and asymptomatic patients.

200
Q

true or false… there are few, if any, correlations between clinical and radiographic findings in regards to condylar position (overall, not just tomography)

A

true

patients can have radiographically normal joints, but have pain.

patients can have clear signs of bone abnormalities, but no pain.

tomography has little effect on the diagnosis or treatment plan of patients with TMD

201
Q

How is computed tomography better than conventional tomography?

A

can highlight either hard or soft tissue

Good for diagnosis of bony abnormalities

202
Q

____ can evaluate disk displacement, disk perforation, capsular tears, and disk adhesions. however it cannot determine lateral and rotational disk displacements

A

arthrography

accompanied by synovial fluid sampling

203
Q

____ can evaluate location of the disk in both open and closed mouth positions, bone marrow changes, muscle irregularities, soft tissue ingrowths, fibrosis, joint effusion, disk destruction. It can also determine lateral and rotational displacements

A

MRI

(although MRI is better in determining the location of the disk, arthrography is better for finding disk perforations and capsular tears)

204
Q

Which is best for determining disk displacements. MRI or arthrography?

A

MRI

205
Q

If you suspect the patient has juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, what imaging should you take?

A

hard tissue imaging of joint in at least two planes

and MRI

206
Q

What kind of imaging should you take if there is disk displacement with reduction and no symptoms other than clicking?

A

no imaging.

You would take a MRI only if there is pain/dysfunction

207
Q

What are the three open-eruption techniques?

A

window technique

Full flap open procedure

apically repositioned flap

208
Q

What are the three closed-eruption techniques?

A

minimal exposure technique

maximal exposure technique

tunnel approach

209
Q

Describe the window technique

open-eruption

A

labial impaction = simplest method

palatal impaction = thick tissue + follicle, difficult to isolate for bonding, may need surgical pack, possibility of autonomous eruption

210
Q

Describe the full flap procedure (open-eruption)

A

reflect full thickness flap, remove bone around tooth, replace flap (after making punch in tissue overlying the tooth)

211
Q

Describe the apically repositioned flap technique (open-eruption).

A

Indicated when labially impacted tooth is above the MGJ

212
Q

Describe the minimal exposure technique (closed-eruption)

A

full thickness flap is reflected, minimal bone removed, an eyelet is bonded, and exits through the sutured edge of the flap

orthodontic traction should start immediately

213
Q

Describe the maximal exposure technique (closed-eruption)

A

complete bony exposure and enucleation of follicle

214
Q

Describe the tunnel approach (closed-eruption)

A

the canine is pulled down through the primary canine socket (simultaneous extraction)

indication = high canines in close proximity to the line of the arch

215
Q

Why are open exposure techniques contraindicated in high-impacted teeth?

A

created large defect

exposes adjacent tooth roots to oral environment

loss of access due to mucosal healing

(>1mm of KT must remain if window technique is used)

216
Q

If a canine is resorbing the roots of an incisor, why can’t you do an open exposure? what should you do instead?

A

it would expose the incisor root

extract one of the teeth. or leave the canine to resorb through the root. or do minimal exposure closed technique at the most distal part of the canine to avoid exposing the incisor root)

217
Q

According to buschang 2002, a simple open-bite (non-skeletal) in young patients will spontaneously correct ___% of the time

A

80%

218
Q

In a typical hyperdivergent open-bite patient, the problems are in all three planes in both jaws, but most of dysmorphology occurs in the ____

Describe the changes seen in this jaw

A

mandible

Shorter ramus (decreased posterior facial height)

Glenoid fossa positioned more superior relative to sella turcica

increased dentoalveoalr heights

increased LAFH (steeper MPA, larger gonial angle)

219
Q

describe the dysmorphology in the maxilla in a hyper divergent open-bite patient.

A

anterior and posterior dentoalveolar heights increased

decreased anterior upper facial height

maxilla shorter and slightly recessive

transverse deficient with increased incidence of posterior crossbite

220
Q

Describe the etiologic factors behind a skeletal hyper divergent open-bite patient.

A

Abnormal muscles (smaller, less active muscles and weaker bite force)

Habits (finger, thumb, tongue)

Airway obstructions (accompanied by lower tongue position. these problems can spontaneously correct after adenoidectomy)

All these things leads to a lowered mandibular posture

221
Q

Describe 5 treatment modalities for patients with hyper divergent skeletal open bite.

A

HPHG - holds maxilla sutural growth and vertical dentoalveolar development

Extractions - molars move forward and autorotates mandible. however it may actually cause supra eruption of mandibular molars which worsens down/back rotation of mandible

Posterior bite blocks - increases gonial angle

vertical chin cup - redirects growth horizontally. only appliance shown to effectively alter Mandible shape. increases posterior facial heights, redirects condylar growth, decreases gonial angle.

Relative intrusion - prevent eruption of incisors while growth provides vertical space into which the posterior teeth erupt

222
Q

If treatment mechanics of long face individuals require orthopedic modification, when should treatment be initiated?

A

before the adolescent spurt

223
Q

____ was shown to be more important than mandibular rotation in determining overbite changes (Bushang, 2002)

A

Vertical mandibular growth

224
Q

____ as an adjunctive treatment for HPHG and PRE in young children with hyper divergent open bite has shown to increase true mandibular autorotation and produce significant reductions in the ANB and gonial angles

A

clenching exercises

there is also some benefit to lip seal exercises

225
Q

Forces of <80g can produce __mm of extrusion per month

A

1-2mm

226
Q

Extruded teeth (for purpose of developing alveolus for implant placement) should be stabilized for ___ months prior to extraction with immediate implant placement and properly contoured immediate provisional crowns in order to prevent undesired resorption of newly formed bone and remodeling of gingival tissues.

A

4-6 months

227
Q

What are the four options for managing mandibular asymmetry in skeletally immature patients?

A

Orthodontics/orthopedics(good for minor-moderate problems)

surgery at skeletal maturity (waiting is best for patients with no significant functional or psychosocial issues)

orthodontics/orthopedics during facial growth years followed by surgery at growth cessation

Surgery during growth. Then surgery again if necessary at skeletal maturity. (best for patients with negative functional, psychosocial, and esthetics)

228
Q

What is the maximum amount of mandibular lengthening with BSSO that is considered stable?

A

8-10mm

229
Q

According to the Golden ratio, the U2 should be ___ the width of U1

A

2/3rds (normally 5.5-6.7mm)

230
Q

How wide are mandibular second premolars?

A

7-8mm

231
Q

BL width of the alveolar ridge is reduced by ___% within the first 6 months. then an additional ___% over 5 years.

A

23%

11%

232
Q

If the alveolar ridge is < ___mm thick, augmentation is required before implant placement

A

<4mm

233
Q

Bone graft needs ___ months to be stable enough for implant placement.

A

9 months

234
Q

Overdentures and FPD have a ___% stability rate over a 20 year follow up.

Single implants have a ___% stability rate over a 5 year follow up.

A

95%

90%

235
Q

The ____ directs sound energy from pharynx into oral cavity during speech.

A

velopharyngeal valve

236
Q

Velopharyngeal dysfunction can be caused by structural abnormalities (termed _____), neurophysiolgogical disorders (termed ____), or articulation errors (termed ____)

A

velopharyngeal insufficiency

velopharyngeal incompetence

Velopharyngeal mislearning

237
Q

According to Neelapu 2017, there is an increased rate of what craniofacial features in OSA patients in comparison to controls?

A

reduced pharyngeal airway space

inferiorly placed hyoid bone

increased facial heights (vertical growth pattern)

238
Q

What are four potential risk factors for OSA?

A

increased age

male

obese

anatomical abnormalities of the craniofacial region and upper airway

239
Q

The coexistence of bimaxillary retrusion and ____ cranial base angle may result in reduced AP dimension of pharyngeal airway in OSA patients

A

acute

240
Q

What is the purpose of the ball-and-socket design in a Motion appliance on the molar pad?

A

Allows tipping and rotation of the molar

Carriere’s claim = distal rotational movement of the maxillary first molars around their palatal roots

241
Q

In the Areepong 2020 article about Motion appliance, what strength of elastics were used for the first month? What strength of elastics after the first month?

A

First = 1/4” 6oz

Second = 3/16” 8oz

242
Q

In the Areepong 2020 article about the Motion appliance, the mean treatment time in correcting class II was ___ months.

A

4.6 months

243
Q

Describe the movements of the canines seen using a Motion appliance. (Areepong 2020)

A

Maxillary canine = distal movement with distal tipping, distal rotation, extrusion. (manufacturer claims distal movement without tipping. This is shown to be incorrect)

244
Q

Describe the movements of the maxillary first molars seen using a Motion appliance. (Areepong 2020)

A

Distal movement with distal tipping and rotation. (confirms manufacturer’s claim that it produces distal rotation around the palatal root)

245
Q

Describe the movements of the mandibular first molars seen using a Motion appliance (Areepong 2020)

A

Mesial movement with mesial tipping and extrusion

246
Q

Describe the movements of the upper and lower incisors seen using a Motion appliance (Areepong 2020)

A

Lower incisors = proclination (even with the use of an Essix)

Upper incisors = proclination more evident in skeletal class II patients than in skeletal class I patients

247
Q

According to the Cacciatore 2014 article, what are the four results from Forsus treatment?

A

Significant restriction of sagittal maxillary growth (HG effect)

Significant correction of OJ (-3.8mm), OB (-1.5) and molar relationship (+3.7mm)

No significant sagittal or vertical skeletal changes long term

Mandibular incisor proclination of 5.6 degrees (even with cinch-back)

248
Q

The Forsus is effective in correcting class II malocclusion mainly at the ___ level. There is no significant sagittal or vertical skeletal changes long term.

A

dentoalveolar

249
Q

About ___% more root resorption due to impacted canines is seen when taken with a CT compared with conventional radiographic methods

A

50%

250
Q

In the D’Amico 2003 article, they found that while only 4/61 patients were not satisfied with the esthetic result of previously impacted canines, ___% of orthodontists judged the result as esthetically unacceptable.

A

56%

251
Q

Periodontal conditions and occlusal function between sides with previously impacted canines and sides with normally erupted canines were similar. However, what did they find that was different between the two? (D’Amico, 2003)

A

Canine rise occurred more often on working sides with normal erupted canines than with impacted canines. (this is because the inclination is different between the two sides)

252
Q

Both the maxilla and mandible achieve their maximum growth rate [before/after] statuary height growth peak

A

after

253
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 1?

A

Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis: third finger-proximal phalanx

254
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 2?

A

Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis:

third finger-middle phalanx

255
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 3?

A

Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis:

Fifth finger - middle phalanx

256
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 4?

A

Ossification of adductor sesamoid of thumb

257
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 5?

A

Capping of epiphysis:

Third finger - distal phalanx

258
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 6?

A

Capping of epiphysis:

third finger - middle phalanx

259
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 7?

A

Capping of epiphysis:

fifth finger - middle phalanx

260
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 8?

A

Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:

third finger - distal phalanx

261
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 9?

A

Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:

Third finger - proximal phalanx

262
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 10?

A

Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:

third finger - middle phalanx

263
Q

Hand-wrist radiograph:

What is SMI 11?

A

Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:

Radius

264
Q

Females have greater growth velocities and earlier maturation in ___ and in the ___, while males have greater ___ velocities

A

stature
maxilla

mandibular

265
Q

True or false… TADs are known to be frequently associated with higher failure rates among adolescents when compared to adults. Why or why not?

A

true

It is speculated that it may be due to thinner cortical layers and immature bone qualities in adolescents

266
Q

The study done by Han in 2012 took ___ radiographs from 60 adolescents and 60 adults and measured the ____ at specific intervals from ___ and ___.

A

CBCT

bone density

mid palatal suture and incisive foramen

267
Q

According to the study by Han 2012, [adolescents/adults] displayed significantly higher bone density than adolescents. [males/females] had higher bone densities than the other sex. Moving AP and ML in the palate had [no effect / a significant effect] on bone density.

A

Adults

Females

no effect

268
Q

According to Han 2012, the ____ palatal area has been recommended for TADs due to sufficient ____ and adequate ___.

A

paramedian

cortical bone amount

keratinized tissue

269
Q

According to Han 2012, palatal cortical bone density showed a tendency to [increase/decrease] laterally and posteriorly. Therefore, the best bone is located where?

A

decrease

Best bone = 15mm posterior to incisive foramen (second premolar area) and 2-4mm lateral to the palatal suture)

270
Q

Han 2012 concluded that palatal bone densities were significantly higher in adults than in adolescents, and the densities of the ___ palate in adolescents were of similar value to those of the __ palate in adults. therefore, when placing TADs in adolescents you should try to place the TAD more ____

A

anterior

posterior

anteriorly

271
Q

Proffit and Ackerman presented a theoretical model of the limitation of orthodontic correction in the form of three concentric “_____”. The inner envelope represents the limits of ____. the middle, _____; and the outer, ____.

A

envelopes of discrepancy

orthodontic tooth movement

changes that are passive with growth

limits that can be achieved via orthognathic surgery

272
Q

Describe the study design of the Handelman 1996 article.

A

Hypothesis: as teeth are repositioned at their anatomical limits, the occurrences and severity of iatrogenic phenomena is enhanced.

Methods: took pre-treatment lateral cephs divided by facial type. Took bone width measurements around the apex of U and L 1 roots (anterior, posterior, and apical)

273
Q

According to the Handelman 1996 study, bone levels superior to the maxillary incisor apex and inferior to the mandibular incisor apex were greater in the class ___ group than the class I group. Meanwhile, the bone level lingual to the mandibular incisor apex was [wider/narrower] in the class III group than in class I or II groups

A

III

narrower

274
Q

According to Handelman 1996, the width of bone lingual to the maxillary incisor and mandibular incisor apices was [narrower/wider] in the low SN-MP group than in the average or high SN-MP groups.

A

wider

275
Q

According to Handelman 1996, the width of bone labial to the mandibular incisor apex was [narrower/greater] in the high SN-MP group than in the average or low SN-MP groups.

A

narrower

276
Q

According to Handelman 1996, the total width of the mandibular alveolus was significantly wider in the ____ group and narrowest in the ___ group. The height of the alveolus apical to the incisor apices is greater in the ___ group than in the other groups.

A

low SN-MP

high SN-MP

high SN-MP

277
Q

According to Handelman 1996, the ____ incisors are most frequently the limiting factor in treatment because of their thinness of their alveolar housing. A thin alveolus may be encountered in any skeletal type but is most frequently encountered in patients with ____ face heights and severe ___

A

mandibular

long lower

bimaxillary protrusion

278
Q

According to Handelman 1996, a narrow alveolus was frequently noted around the ____ in high SN-MP groups and in the class III average group.

A thin alveolus was often noted ___ to the maxillary incisor apex in the class II high SN-MP group.

A

mandibular incisors

lingual

279
Q

According to Hodges, [adults/adolescents] demonstrated more lip retraction compared to the [adults/adolescents] group with ext of U/L 4s

A

adults

adolescents

280
Q

According to Hodges, ext of U/L4s had what effect on lower lip taper and lower lip thickness in adolescents and adults?

A

no effect

281
Q

According to the article “Maxillofacial characteristics affecting chin deviation between mandibular recursion and prognathism patients” (Kim), subjects in the study showed predominately ___ side deviation regardless of the group (mandibular retrusion or prognathism) and the degree of mentor deviation did not reveal significant differences between groups.

A

left

282
Q

The main takeaway from the Kim article regarding mandibular asymmetry is that…

Based on the same degree of chin deviation in mandibular prognathism and recursion, chin deviation is expressed easily in ___, whereas it occurs only with significant right-left differences in individuals with mandibular ____

A

prognathism

retrusion

(in other words, chin deviation is expressed more easily in mandibular prognathism. If a retruded mandible were to have chin deviation, there must have been dramatic mandibular asymmetry)

283
Q

Define biohostability

A

the ease with which a material will culture bacteria, virus or spores

284
Q

What does chromium do in SS?

What does nickel do?

What metal makes up the rest of the alloy in SS

A

Forms an oxide layer which passivates the surface, rendering it “stainless”

Nickel enhances corrosion resistance

iron

285
Q

What other metal is in Elgiloy?

Elgiloy has a similar stiffness to ___. the wire can be heat treated after being shaped, which is called ____. This allows you to bend easier in more formable state, then heat treat it to then decrease formability.

A

Cobalt

SS

Precipitation hardening

286
Q

True or false… stabilized martensite (conventional Nitinol) undergoes intraoral phase transformations

A

false

287
Q

What is the composition of beta-titanium alloys (TMA)?

A

80% titanium

11.5% molybdenum

6% zirconium

4.5% tin

288
Q

According to McNamara 2003, 1mm of transpalatal width increase with RPE will result in an increase of ___mm of arch perimeter.

A

0.7mm

289
Q

In the McNamara 2003 article, a ___ type expander was used for a total of 10.5mm expansion. This resulted in __mm overall net gain in maxillary arch perimeter and ___mm overall net gain in mandibular arch perimeter

A

Haas

6mm

4.5mm

290
Q

What are the first and second steps when evaluating the cervical vertebral maturation?

A

1 = look at the inferior borders for notching

2 = evaluate shape of C3 and C4 (trapezoidal, rectangular, square, or rectangular vertical)

291
Q

Describe cervical stage 1 landmarks

A

inferior borders of C2-C4 are flat

3rd and 4th vertebrae are trapezoidal (posterior border taller than anterior border)

292
Q

Describe the growth implications of CV1.

A

occurs from approximately the time of eruption of primary dentition until about 2 years before peak growth

293
Q

What are the clinical applications for CV1?

A

ideal time to intervene with reverse-pull facemark with RPE.

294
Q

Describe cervical stage 2 landmarks.

A

visible concavity/notch along inferior border of C2. lower borders of C3 and C4 are flat.

both C3 and C4 are still trapezoidal

295
Q

What are the growth implications of CV2?

A

considered the “get-ready” stage

peak interval of mandibular growth should begin within 1 year

296
Q

Describe the cervical stage 3 landmarks.

A

Visible concavity/notch along inferior borders of C2 and C3. Inferior border of C4 remains flat

most C3 and C4 bodies are still trapezoidal at this stage. sometimes, however they can have a more rectangular horizontal stage.

297
Q

What are the growth implications of CV3?

A

Maximum craniofacial growth velocity occurs at this stage

298
Q

Describe the cervical stage 4 landmarks.

A

visible concavities along C2, C3, and C4.

more importantly, BOTH C3 and C4 are rectangular horizontal (“bar of soap stage”)

299
Q

What are the growth implications of CV4?

A

Continued accelerated craniofacial growth is anticipated

300
Q

Describe cervical stage 5 landmarks.

A

CV5 can be differentiated from CV4 on the basis of shape of C3 and C4. At least one, C3 or C4, are now SQUARE

“Marshmallow stage”

301
Q

What are the growth implications of CV5?

A

Most substantial craniofacial growth has been achieved

302
Q

Describe the cervical stage 6 landmarks.

A

at least one of the 3rd or 4th vertebrae are rectangular VERTICAL

Cortical bone appears better delineated than in the other stages.

303
Q

What are the growth implications of CV6?

A

pts can be evaluated for corrective jaw surgery or the placement of endosseous implants

304
Q

What is considered the gold standard for determining the continuation or cessation of significant craniofacial growth in all orthodontic patients?

A

the evaluation of 2 lateral head films taken 6-12 months apart

(serial cephs)

305
Q

According to Rossini 2015, ___ was the most difficult movement to control with CAT (___% of accuracy) followed by ___ movement.

A

extrusion

30%

Rotation

306
Q

According to Rossini 2015, CAT is most predictable (___%) with ____ when a bodily movement of at least 1.5mm was prescribed.

A

88%

upper molar distalization

307
Q

What is the least accurate tooth movement with CAT?

A

extrusion

308
Q

True or false.. with CAT, teeth with rounded crowns are more difficult to rotate. Therefore, you should plan over-corrections and reduce staging to less than ___ degrees per aligner

A

true

1.5 degrees

309
Q

According to Siara 2010, the MARA appliance temporarily restricts maxillary growth. It affects the mandible [more/less] than twin block or Herbst

A

less

310
Q

According to Siara 2010, the SNB is increased most and occlusal plane changed most significantly with what two appliances?

A

Twin block and Herbst

311
Q

According to Siara 2010, which class II corrector has the best control of vertical but causes significant flaring of lower incisors?

A

Twin block

312
Q

True or false… according to Siara 2010, significant long term skeletal differences were observed in patients treated with class II correctors.

A

false. No significant long term skeletal differences were observed between the various treatment groups and matched controls

313
Q

According to Siara 2010, the ___ and ___ appliances significantly restricted maxillary growth and produced a steeper occlusal plane. The ___ appliance is most effective in controlling the vertical but also caused the most flaring of lower incisors.

A

Herbst and MARA

Twin block

314
Q

According to Stroud 1998, inter proximal enamel is significantly thicker on the ___ than on the ____

A

enamel is significantly thicker on distal than on the mesial

315
Q

According to Stroud 1998, assuming 50% enamel reduction, the mandibular premolars and molars should provide ___mm of additional space for realignment of mandibular teeth.

A

9.8mm

316
Q

According to Stroud 1998, ____ can prevent need for extractions and allow the transverse arch dimension and anterior inclinations to be maintained.

A

posterior IPR

317
Q

According to Stroud 1998, there [are/are not] significant sex differences in mandibular posterior enamel thickness. The molar enamel is [thicker/thinner] than premolar enamel. Distal enamel is [thicker/thinner] than mesial enamel.

A

Are not

thicker

thicker

318
Q

According to Farkas (new article), by year 1 of age, the width of the mandible was highly developed (___%) and the height reached ___% of eventual adult size. In 1-5 years, the mandible’s height and width showed significant development while the face height, upper face height, face width, and the two face depth measurements exhibited continuous gradual growth AFTER ___ years of age.

A
  1. 2%
  2. 6%

5

319
Q

According to Farkas, at ___ years of age, the upper face height, the mandible height, and the width of the face reached their mature size in females.

A

12

320
Q

According to Farkas, at ___ years of age, the upper face height, the mandible height, and the width of the face reached their mature size in males.

A

15

321
Q

____ are the second most commonly impacted teeth after third molars

A

maxillary canines

322
Q

Impacted canines occurs in ___% of the population. it is ___ times more common in females than males, and it is ___ times more common in the maxilla than the mandible.

A

2%

2

2

323
Q

Impacted canines occurs bilaterally ___% of the time.

Of maxillary canines, approximately ___% are impacted labially whereas ___% are impacted palatally

A

8%

33%

66%

324
Q

According to Ericson et al., extracting the primary canine before the patent is of age ___ would normalize the erupting position of the permanent canine in ___% of the cases if the crown were [mesial/distal] to the midline of the lateral incisor root. The success rate decreases to ___% if the permanent canine crown is [mesial/distal] to the midline of the lateral incisor root.

A

11

91%

distal

64%

mesial

325
Q

When the vertical angulation of an impacted maxillary canine exceeds ___ degrees, the chance of normal eruption after extraction significantly decreases.

A

31 degrees

326
Q

What is the minimum vertical space required for a cement-retained implant?

A

7-8mm

327
Q

According to the new ABO article by Ker AJ, lay people can tolerate up to ___mm maxillary midline to facial midline discrepancy

A

3mm

328
Q

true or false… a young child with a tongue thrust swallow is most likely to have just not yet learned the adult pattern.

A

true

329
Q

true or false… most of the time, tongue thrust behavior does NOT cause malocclusion

A

true, it does not

any affect that the tongue has in contributing to malocclusions seems related to RESTING POSTURE as it affects the eruption of teeth

330
Q

true or false… posterior tongue posturing can be a result of airway problems.

A

false… anterior tongue positioned can result from airway problems

prominent tonsils are found in 8-10 year olds.

331
Q

the tongue follows the growth curve established for the ___ tissues of the body. it reaches its maximum size near age __.

Meanwhile, the mandible follows the ___ growth curve. why is this significant?

A

neural

8

general body

the growth difference creates the tendency for the large tongue to be positioned relatively high and forward in the early years of growth

332
Q

When is the adult swallow typically learned?

A

2-12 years. Tongue thrusts evolved to a normal swallow pattern around 8-12 without any therapy most of the time.

333
Q

Describe the infantile swallow

A

Jaws are apart with the tongue filling the space between the gum pads; the lips are active in sucking movements; the tongue is placed out between the dental ridges in contact with the lower lip and beneath the nipple

334
Q

What is the role of myofunctional therapy if there is tongue thrust alone?

A

not necessary

335
Q

What is the role of myofunctional therapy if a tongue thrust is accompanied with speech problems?

A

speech therapy is suggested

336
Q

What is the role of my-functional therapy if a tongue thrust is accompanied by malocclusion but no speech problem?

A

best to treat the malocclusion first (tongue thrust will usually fix itself if malocclusion is fixed).

therapy is not needed until after puberty if adult swallow is still not learned

337
Q

According to Proffit 1975, up to ___% of children who have a tongue thrust and anterior open bite at age 8 will show improvement without any therapy by age 12

A

80%

ABO pt 1 (2 decks)

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