Questions #1 Flashcards
1
Q
A curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is a characteristic of what?
A
Rotation of the mandible
2
Q
What are Bjork’s 7 structural signs of mandibular rotation?
A
- inclination of the condylar head
- curvature of the mandibular canal
- shape of the lower border of the mandible
- Inclination of symphysis
- Interincisal angle
- intermolar and interpremolar angles
- Anterior facial height
3
Q
The arch length from mandibular 2nd molar to contralateral 2nd molar should be about what % of that distance in the maxillary arch?
A
91%
4
Q
1mm increase in mandibular inter molar width results in approximately ___mm increase in arch perimeter.
A
0.25mm
5
Q
Elastomeric chain decays to 50% in ___ day(s).
A
1
6
Q
The tongue reaches its maximum size at age ___.
A
8
7
Q
Type ___ collagen is present in the sutures.
A
3
8
Q
The muscles of facial expression develop from the ___ branchial arch.
A
second
9
Q
How many branches does the facial nerve have?
A
5
10
Q
What foramen does V2 pass through?
A
Rotundum
11
Q
The facial artery is a branch of the ____
A
external carotid artery
12
Q
How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose?
A
3
13
Q
The incus is derived from ___
A
Meckel’s cartilage
14
Q
Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges?
A
sesamoid bone
15
Q
Patient with abnormal resorption pattern of primary teeth, delayed eruption of primary teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth, and large tongue. what is the diagnosis?
A
Hypothyroidism
16
Q
Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV patients is…
- transitory condition
- caused by human papilloma virus
- multifocal
- result of staph infection
A
Multi focal
kaposis sarcoma is caused by herpes simplex virus B
17
Q
What week inutero does the tongue start forming?
A
4 weeks
18
Q
Alae of the nose comes from…
- lateral nasal process
- median nasal process
- maxillary process
A
lateral nasal process
19
Q
Initial tooth displacement occurs within seconds, but actual compression of PDL requires….
- 5-10 minutes
- 30-60 minutes
- 1-3 hours
- 3-5 hours
A
1-3 hours
20
Q
Where do odontoclasts come from?
A
blood vessels
21
Q
Root resorption is influenced by…
- hypothyroidism
- nutrition
- appliance type
A
Hypothyroidism
22
Q
Where do cells for bone deposition originate?
A
mesenchymal cells
clasts from blood vessels and bone marrow
blasts from PDL (mesenchymal cells)
23
Q
Which would you NOT see in Treacher Collin’s syndrome?
- Deficient malar eminence
- incomplete zygomatic arch
- ANB < 5 degrees
- Hearing impairment
A
ANB < 5 degrees
24
Q
What bone makes up the lateral border of foramen lacerum? What about medial border?
A
Lateral = temporal Medial = occipital
25
What branches does CNVII give off BEFORE the parotid gland?
3
Nerve to post. belly digastric
nerve to stylohyoid
posterior auricular nerve (supplies occipitalis)
26
CNV and its branches pass through all of these foramen except...
- ovale
- rotundum
- spinosum
- mandibular
- lacerum
lacerum
| spinosum = meningeal branch of V3
27
True or false... sustained high serum calcium level often is a manifestation of hyperthyroidism and malignancy
true
28
True or false... muscle hyperactivity and decreased cardiac output both are results of hypocalcemia.
True
29
How much force is applied when teeth are in contact during swallowing?
100g
30
____ bone allows attachment of tendons/ligaments and has Sharpey's fibers.
bundle
31
Composite bone is formed by deposition of ___ bone within a ___ bone lattice.
lamellar
Woven
32
Posterior point of anterior cranial base is...
- sphenoid bone
- sella turcia
- basion
sella turcica
33
What is broadbent's registration point?
midway point on line perpendicular from sella to bolton point - nasion plane
34
Sensitivity is...
- percentage of persons with the disease
- true positives/pts with the disease
- true negatives / pts with the disease
true positives / pts with the disease
35
Specificity is...
- percentage of persons with the disease
- true positives / pts with the disease
- true negatives / pts without the disease
true negatives / pts without the disease
36
What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
Incidence = number of new individuals who contract disease during particular period of time
prevalence = all individuals affected by disease at a particular time
37
According to Red Cross, brain cells BEGIN to die in __-___ minutes without oxygen. irreversible brain damage is certain + biological death @ ___ minutes
4-6 minutes
10 minutes
38
In adults, a rescue breath is given every ___ seconds
5 seconds
39
What is adult compression:breath ratio? What about for children?
Adults: 30:2
Children: 1 rescuer = 30:2. 2 rescuers = 15:2
40
AHA currently recommends AB prophylaxis for which of these procedures in cardiac patients:
- all orthodontic procedures
- simple orthodontic procedures
- extensive orthodontic procedures
- extensive orthodontic procedures (ex: breaking mucosa, gingival manipulation, banding (not bonding))
41
If you know the value of X, then with which test you can find out the value of Y?
Regression
42
How much enamel is removed by etching with 37% phosphoric acid for 30s?
3-10 microns
43
How much enamel is removed by etching with 37% phosphoric acid for 15 seconds?
1-2 microns
44
How long should 37% phosphoric acid be left on the enamel surface for?
15-30 seconds
45
What is the estimated healing time for implant in the maxilla?
6-8 months
46
What type of bone is at the implant/bone interface of a healthy, osseointegrated implant?
Lamellar
47
Presence of what two things histologically can tell you that an implant is failed or failing?
Fibrous tissue
woven bone
48
The rate of remodeling bone near an implant is (higher/lower) compared to basilar bone nearby.
Higher
49
T/F... if during implant placement, implant impinges on adjacent PDL, implant will not be able to osseointegrate
t/F.. when this happens, the adjacent tooth usually ankyloses.
false
false
50
T/F TADs can routinely support larger forces (EX 10N) over a prolonged duration "(1-2 years)
false (endosseous implants can do this, not TADs)
51
T/F remolding of gingival CT is not as rapid as in the PDL
True
52
Slower turnover of gingival collagen fibers explain why these fibers are seen stretched + unremodeled as long as ___ days after experimental tooth rotation.
232 days
53
Subgingival irrigation of ortho banded 1st molars with either CHX or isotonic saline produces:
cessation of gingival papillary bleeding
54
After maxillary tooth extraction in anterior region, ridge width is reduced in BL dimension ___% over the next 6 months.
23%
(if no implant placed at edentulous ridge after tooth ext, BL width reduces 23% in first 6 months, then total of 34% over 5 years)
55
If you have 5mm deep probing on buccal surface of molar and it does not go through furcation, what should you do?
GTR
56
How much can the anterior maxilla be impacted before it becomes unstable?
9-10mm
57
Ortho surgery most likely to cause post-op TMJ popping/crepitation is....
Mandibular advancement
58
When asymptomatic non-ectopic impacted mandibular third molars are followed for 20 years, what % are expected to erupt into normal position?
33%
59
Why is orthodontics in the face of periodontal disease so destructive?
clasts thrive in an inflammatory environment because they originate in the marrow, a protective site removed from the localized lesion; preosteoclasts are attracted to inflammatory site by cytokines. Vascuallry mediated osteoblast histogenesis, is suppressed strongly by inflammatory disease.
...so when teeth are moved in presence of active periodontal disease, RESORPTION is normal or even enhanced and formation is inhibited.
60
Sagittal split osteotomy is procedure of choice for mandibular advancement. what are the most common complications?
- relapse, posterior open bite, numbness of tongue
- numbness of lower lip, lateral open bite, and class III
- Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus
- numbness of lower lip and facial paralysis
condylar sagging and post surgical trismus
61
Moving the maxilla up and/or forward can have what two major deleterious effects on the nose?
rotation of the nasal tip upwards (deepening of supra tip depression)
widening of the alar base
62
What type of bone can you NOT use for ridge augmentation?
- hydroxyapatite
- freeze dried demineralized bone graft
- iliac crest autograft
hydroxyapatite
63
Soft tissue responses after double jaw surgery compared to single jaw:
- show greater changes with more fullness of lips
- show fewer changes due to less movement
- show similar changes
- show greater reduction in upper and lower lip
Show fewer changes due to less movement
64
The greatest increase in arch perimeter is from...
- canine expansion
- incisor advancement
- molar expansion
- A and C
Incisor advancement
(for every 1mm or 2.5 degrees of proclination you gain 2mm of arch perimeter. when molars expand 1mm you only gain 0.7mm of arch perimeter)
65
What is the normal physiologic eruptive force of a tooth?
2-10g
66
If you tip maxillary centrals toward each other with springs on a Hawley to close a diastema, where is the center of rotation?
Uncontrolled tipping (CoR = 1/2 down the root) Study guide says apical 1/3 of root?
67
What is the normal maxillary inter molar width in adults?
36-39mm
68
What is normal maxillary inter molar width in adolescents?
33-35mm
69
True or false.. in McNamara's study, statistically significant differences were found for inter canine and inter molar widths among Cl I, II, and III
false. (no significant differences found)
70
Incisor liability refers to...
space needed for mandibular incisors
once centrals and laterals erupt, the maxilla usually has just enough space to accommodate, but the mandible usually has 1.5mm less space than needed.
71
What are some problems that occur if there is lack of lingual crown torque on mandibular molars?
- crossbites
- extrusion of molars
- extrusion of premolar
- all of the above
all of the above
(If you develop the lower arch without lingual crown torque the molars will upright causing extrusion and thereby extrusion of the premolars too)
72
post-treatment studies of malocclusions treated with extraction of teeth found by Little found...
2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors
(in 10 year post retention cases, approximately 3-0% were clinically acceptable at post retention stage. so that means 70%ish were NOT clinically acceptable and had relapse)
73
Which is NOT true when extracting primary canine too early?
- may prevent impaction of teeth
- teeth may shift
- increased OJ and OB
may prevent impaction of teeth (may cause impaction of teeth)
74
True or false... peak height velocity for girls usually comes after menstration.
false... PVH usually 12 months before menstration
75
PVH usually occurs ___ months before menstration
12
76
in late maturing girls, PVH occurs:
- 12-16 months before menstration
- 18-24 months before menstration
- more than 24 months before menstration
18-24 months
| normal is 12 months. in late PVH menstration occurs even later than 12 months from PVH
77
What is the single best way to determine remaining growth POTENTIAL?
hand-wrist
Serial cephs are best fore determining when growth has stopped. hand-wrist is best fore determing growth potential
78
When do primary teeth start to calcify in the fetus?
14 weeks.
79
Mandibular growth rate in females:
- twice as larger fo 14-16yos vs 16-20yos
- similar in 14-16yo vs 16-20yos
- primarily in mandibular plane area
- greater in vertical growth than AP
Twice as large for 14-16 year olds vs 16-20 year olds (verified by google)
80
Which growth sites are NOT in the cranium?
- syndesmoses
- periosteum
- synchondroses
- synostosis
synostosis (refers to early fusion, NOT a growth site)
syndesmoses refers to sutures
81
True or false... patients who are late in their maturation show larger INCREMENTS of growth than those who mature early.
false (late maturation will grow slowly but for an extended period of time, not necessarily larger increments)
82
Where does growth occur to make room for maxillary molars?
tuberosity
83
An exposed radiograph should remain in fixer solution:
- as long as it remained in the developer
- until the first film clears
- for five minutes at 70 degrees
- for at least 10 minutes
5 minutes at 70 degrees
84
What is the minimum total filtration required by x-ray machine to operate in ranges greater than 70 kVp?
2.5mm aluminum
85
When taking lateral cephs, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce:
exposure times
86
What did Downs use for superimposition?
- Broadbent registration point
- bolton point
- porion
- Frankfort horizontal
Broadbent registration point
87
Which of the following remains relatively constant with age?
- Y axis
- facial axis
- facial angle
- mandibular plane angle
Facial axis (Ba-N to PT-Gn. 90degrees ideal. no age changes)
(Y axis AKA growth axis is from FH to S-Gn. increases from 8-15 years)
88
True or false... Anatomic porion correlates to the super portion of the internal auditory meatus.
False. anatomical porion correlates to the EXTERNAL auditory meatus. the internal auditory meatus appears smaller radiolucency which is superior and distal to the external meatus.
89
What ratio is used to see relationship of lower incisors + chin?
Holdaway ratio
(according to Holdaway, distance between labial surface of mandibular incisor to NB line and the distance from pogonoin to NB line should be equal.) Should be 4mm each
90
Most accurate serum indicator for bone turnover during use with bisphosphaonates is ___
C telopeptides
91
What typically happens to L1-MP as we age?
Study guide says increase (referring to the fact that during development, permanent lower incisors erupt lingually and then position themselves more labially).
...but I think it may actually decrease as we age due to late mandibular growth.
92
What is the significance of short posterior cranial base?
- mandibular prognathism
- anterior crossbite
- maxillary retroganthism
- all of the above
All of the above
93
Is an obtuse or acute cranial base flexure associated with class III skeletal relationship?
acute
94
Pts treated with arch length expansion procedures in mixed dentition:
- maintain expansion for indefinite period after treatment
- relapse to original arch length immediately after treatment
- lose arch length, in majority of cases until less than pre-treatment
- relapse to original arch length after about 7 years
lose arch length in majority of cases, until less than pre-treatmetn
95
Lateral ceph shows second molars and Es present. how old is the patient most likely?
- 9
- 11
- 13
- 15
13
96
If you have an open bite patient and elect to treat with HPHG, what adjustment should you make to the outer bow?
bend outer long bow downwards (facilitates intrusion and minimizes tipping)
97
What happens to A-point during RME?
maxilla comes forward (and arguably slightly downward)
98
Define range (mechanical property).
Distance the wire will bend elastically before permanent deformation occurs
99
Define springback
ability to undergo large deflections without permanent deformation
100
Define resilience. where is it found on the graph?
energy storage capacity of the wire. it is the area under the curve up to proportional limit.
101
According to the ADA, a ___ point bending test is appropriate mechanical test of activation and deactivation of beams (ortho wires)
3
102
best bond strength of ceramic brackets was achieved by ___% adhesive filler concentration
- 30%
- 55%
- 80%
80%
103
Hep B can survive outside the body for at least ____
7 days
104
With hep B, what symptoms do patients typically feel during the acute infection phase?
none (some patients can have acute illness that lasts weeks and includes jaundice, dark urine, fatigue, and abdominal pain. however most do not have symptoms)
105
What does it mean if a patient has anti-hbc and anti Hbs, but doesn't have HBsAg?
immune due to natural infection
106
What does it mean if a patient has anti-HBs, but not anti-HBc or HBsAg?
immune due to vaccination
107
What does it mean if ta patient has HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM c-HBc, but NOT anti-HBs?
acutely infected
108
What does it mean if pt has HBsAg and anti-HBc, but not IgM, anti HBc or anti-HBs?
chronically infected
109
What happens to the female profile over time?
- becomes straighter
- stays the same
stays the same
110
What happens to female lips over time?
- becomes more protrusive
- becomes more retrusive
- stays the same
stays the same
111
What happens to the female nose and chin over time?
- nose increases and chin increases
- nose increases and chin decreases
- both stay the same
Nose increases, chin decreases
112
In Ursi, McNamara, and Behrents study "sexual dimorphism in normal CF growth
", who were their subjects? what did they find about the anterior cranial base of males vs females?
Caucasians
larger in males
113
Overall, laboratory detection of hep B infection focuses on detection of ____
Hep B surface antigens (HBsAg)
114
Acute Hep B infection is characterized by the presence of what three things?
HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, anti-HBc
115
Chronic infection of Hep B is characterized by the presence of __ for at least 6 months.
HBsAg
116
___ is the antigen used to make the hep B vaccine
HBsAg
117
____ appears at the onset of symptoms in acute Hep B infection and persists for life.
anti-HBc
118
What is the most common symptom seen in Hep B?
no symptoms
119
What are the five treatment goals of Ron Roth?
```
facial esthetics
dental esthetics
functional occlusion
perio health
stability
```
120
True or false... balancing side contacts are benign. It only is considered an interference if its affect function or causing injury
true
121
What is the difference between an occlusal balancing contact and an occlusal interference?
Balancing contact = when the teeth come together usually without injury; ie without tooth mobility, deflection of the mandible, or effect on the TMJs
Interference = A contact that can force the mandible to deviate from a normal pattern of movement
122
True or false.. canine protected occlusion has been shown to be better than group function
false. Superiority of one functional occlusion more minimizing TMD has NOT been concluded
(group function may be better for a bruxer than CPO because of the exaggerated lateral movements that a bruxer has)
123
True or false... group function is found in nature more often than canine protected occlusion (CPO)
false. there has not been a predominante form of functional occlusion found in nature
124
____ is the best method for diagnosing anterior disc displacement. ___ is the best method for diagnosing sideways or rotational displacements
Arthrography
MRI
125
The presence of buccal corridors is referred to as [negative/positive] space.
negative
126
Is the smile arc supposed to be parallel with the lower lip in the posed smile or animated smile?
posed
127
True or false... bracket placement emphasized at obtaining canine guidance may be at the expense of smile esthetics resulting in a flat smile arc
true
128
According to Sperry 1982, the center of rotation of the mandible during autorotation is associated with the ___ when cephs are taken in CO rather than CR.
Mastoid process
129
True or false... according to Stephens, if extraction and non extraction patients are treated to the same incisor position and lip line, extraction patients exhibit a sunken in profile
false. if extraction and non extraction patients are treated to the same incisor position and lip line, the treatment modality does not affect long-term soft tissue profile changes.
130
True or false... with age, male lips become relatively more retrusive than females
true. especially because of increased nose and chin growth when compared to females
131
What is the difference between dentin dysplasia type 1 and type 2?
Type 1 = underdeveloped roots with obliterated pulp chamber
type 2 = brownish-blue primary teeth and enlarged pulp
132
According to a study by Tasaki 1996, disk displacement was observed in ___% of TMD patients and ___% of symptom-free volunteers
82%
30%
133
What are the two most common types of disk displacement?
anterior
anterolateral
134
True or false... the pano radiograph is better than PA radiographs and occlusal radiographs in detecting root resorption
true
However, "CBCT is more accurate and precise in localizing impacted teeth and for the identification of root resorption" (Tsolakis)
135
True or false... in Tulloch's study about early class II treatment, they found no statistically significant difference between the effects of headgear vs functional appliance.
True. Approximately 80% of functional appliance and headgear patients had highly favorable skeletal relationship changes after phase 1 when compared to controls.
However, in another study, they showed that in phase two, both the previously treated children and untreated children, early treatment had little effect on the subsequent treatment outcomes measures. (this suggests that 2-phase treatment started before adolescence in the mixed dentition might be no more clinically effective than just a single phase of treatment started during adolescence. Therefore, early class II treatment is effective, but not efficient)
136
What are some indications for phase I early class II treatment?
accident potential
psychosocial distress
general convenience to the family
137
Early treatment of class II in children (phase I) results in ___ reduction in average time in fixed appliances during phase 2. It also results in ___ reduction in proportion of complex treatment in phase 2.
No
No
138
According to Viglianisi 2010, the results showed that the ___ is effective for controlling mesial movements of molars and lingual tipping of incisors
lingual arch
It even causes some backward tip of the molars and anterior tip of the incisors. Meanwhile, in untreated subjects, the molars tip anteriorly and the incisors tip lingually
139
LLHA is an effective appliance for what 7 things? (Viglianisi 2010)
- Maintaining space during eruption of permanent teeth
- preserving molar anchorage
- preventing arch length decrease
- obtaining in some patients an arch length increase
- preventing molars from tipping mesially
- preventing mandibular incisors from tipping lingually
- also can resolve marginal crowding by controlling space use in the mandibular arch
140
According to Wang 2015, incorporating ____ into RMGIC greatly reduced biofilm activity, which in turn could help prevent WSL formation.
0.1% NAg (nanoparticles of silver)
141
Orthodontically induced root resorption is unaffected by what three things? (Weltman 2010)
arch wire sequencing
bracket prescription
self-ligation
142
True or false... the evidence supports taking a 2-3 month pause in treatment (passive AW) to decrease total root resorption
true
143
Histological studies show ___% occurrence of orthodontically induced inflammatory root resorption in ortho treated teeth. Normally < ___mm. Severe is defined as >____mm and occurs in ___% of teeth
>90%
Weltman 2010
2.5mm
4mm
1-5%
144
The failure rate of TADs in the anterior palate is low (1-5%). where is the ideal zone with lowest failure rate?
directly posterior to palatal rugae
145
True or false... TAD expanders have little potential for relapse so there is no need for significant molar expansion
true
146
What is the conclusion of the 2013 Wood article titled "factors affecting the accuracy of buccal alveolar bone height measurements from cone-beam computed tomography images."
At an adolescent age, the buccal alveolar bone height measured from the maxillary molar region based on 0.4mm voxel-size CBCT images can have relatively large and frequently inaccurate measurements, possibly due to its thinness. By using 0.2mm voxel-size scans, measurement accuracy might be improved, but only when the overlying facial and gingival tissues are kept intact.
147
True or false... Buccal bone is thinner in the mandible than the maxilla
(Wood 2013)
false. it is thinner in the maxilla than the mandible
(this makes buccal alveolar bone measurements in maxillary region less accurate) Mandibular molar regions, however were generally within 1mm from physical truth
148
According to Wood 2013, 0.2mm voxel may improve accuracy, but only when ____.
overlying facial/gingival tissues are still intact.
lack of soft tissue adds more beam-hardening artifacts
149
Systemic levels of bisphonates is ___ higher when delivered via IV than orally.
12 times
150
What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?
inhibits bone resorption by osteoclasts. once in bloodstream it binds to exposed hydroxyapatite in osseous matrix. it remains inactive in bone until released during bone remodeling at which time it is transported into osteoclasts.
151
Bisphosphonates are analogues of ___. they directly inhibit ___ activity and indirectly inhibit osteoclasts by preventing activating factors such as ___
inorganic pyrophosphates
osteoclastic
RANKL
152
True or false... bisphosphonates exhibit antiangiogenic properties
true. results in less endothelial proliferation and decreased capillary formation
153
Osteonecrosis related to bisphosphonates is more associated with the more potent ___-containing bisphophosphonates
nitrogen
154
Osteonecrosis is irreversible from IV administration. it is only manageable by ___ and ___.
osteonecrosis from oral administration may be reversible with implants or grafts
chlorhexidine rinses
antibiotics
155
true or false... there is an increased risk of osteonecrosis if a pt had bisphosphonates during ortho
false.. but it may manifest slower tooth movement
extractions and surgeries should be avoided in these patients but you can still do ortho, just slowly.
156
What are the four components of CBCT image production?
acquisition configuration
image detection
image reconstruction
image display
157
CBCT provides voxel resolutions that are ____ (meaning equal in all three dimensions)
isotropic
158
_____ allows a CBCT to be converted to a pano
____ allows a CBCT to be converted to a lateral ceph
Curved planar reformation
Ray casting
159
Describe beam hardening in regards to CBCT.
lower energy photons absolved preferentially over higher energy photons which leads to distortion of metallic structures andd streaks or dark bands between two dense objects
160
Define partial volume averaging regarding CBCT.
The voxel displays an average of the densities present; this can make boundaries between densities harder to accurately distinguish.
161
True or false.. with internal resorption the pulp is necrotic coronal to the resorption lacunae but vital apical to it
true
162
A tooth is pink from some type of resorption. which type is it?
cervical resorption (type of external resorption.)
if the resorptive process reaches a supra gingival area of the crown, the well vascularized granulation tissue of the resorption lacuna may be visible through the enamel and the pt will present with a pink tooth
163
True or false... a study by Jiang found that females exhibit more root resorption than males.
false. there is no relation to gender.
164
Is there a correlation between age and root resorption?
There is a positive correlation between age and root resorption of upper incisors, but not any other teeth
165
Incisor proclination with controlled or uncontrolled tipping will cause more arch perimeter?
controlled tipping
166
According to Robertsson and Mohlin 2000, which, prosthetic replacement or canine substitution of missing lateral incisor, is more accepted by patients, doesn't impair TMJ function, and encourages periodontal health?
canine substitution
| important to note, however, that this study did not include implants as prosthetic replacement options
167
About ___% of maxillary lateral incisors are congenitally missing.
1-2%
168
What is the main complaint from patients in canine substitution?
discoloration of the canines
169
According to Schlicher 2012, Consistency in cephalometric landmark location and precision [did/did not] differ significantly among the 9 examiners.
did not
midline landmarks were identified with greater consistency than all bilateral structures
170
According to Schlicher 2012, which cephalometric landmark was identified most consistently?
which landmark was the most inconsistent?
Which landmark was the most imprecise?
Sella Turcica
Porion
orbitale
171
____ppm fluoride is recommended for high caries risk patients.
5000ppm
172
What are the two most common adverse reactions of ankylosis?
impossibility to move the tooth orthdontically]
external cervical resorption
173
True or false... single-implant treatment increases the prevalence and magnitude of gingival recession at the adjacent teeth
true
174
Increased clinical crown height at implant crowns is explained by...
loss of vertical height of the crest before or during implant treatment, or a result of mucosal recession.
175
Bisphosphonates are ___ analogues that inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and directly/specifically target high bone turnover.
pyrophosphate
176
True or false... bisphosphonates significantly alter endochondral ossification of the condyle
true
177
True or false... bisphosphonates makes tooth movement impossible.
false... it is possible, just slower. the outcome is more unpredictable in high-risk patients.
178
What bacteria causes localized juvenile periodontitis?
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
179
There are ___ serotypes of A. actinomycetemcomitans. Serotype ___ is increased in localized juvenile periodontitis.
3
B
180
true or false... a acintomycetemcomitans can invade the gingival connective tissues like ANUG. Therefore mechanical debridement alone is insufficient.
true
181
What is the optimal treatment for localized juvenile periodontitis?
Combination of systemic antibiotics (1g/day oral tetracycline for 3 weeks) and conventional periodontal therapy
182
According to Patel 2010, Internal root resorption is more common in [females/males] and in ___ teeth.
males
autotransplanted
183
___ internal root resorption is commonly associated with a periapical lesion
apical
184
In order for internal root resorption to occur, the ___ and the ___ must be damaged. Additionally, the pulp tissue apical to the resorptive lesion must have ____
outermost protective odontoblast layer
predentin of the canal wall
a viable blood supply to provide clastic cells and their nutrients.
185
A pink tooth is caused by granulation tissue undermining the necrotic area of coronal pulp. it more commonly seen in ___ root resorption.
cervical
186
What is the second most common congenitally missing tooth?
When deciding how to address this missing tooth, what are some important factors to consider?
What is the ideal treatment?
U2
Appropriate option based on malocclusion, specific space requirements, tooth-size relationship, size and shape of canine.
The most conservative option that satisfies functional and esthetic goals.
187
Describe the ideal case for canine sub. Why?
Class II with no crowding in mandibular arch.
or
class I with sufficient crowding of mandibular arch that necessitates extractions.
both of these scenarios allow for anterior group function in lateral excursive movements
188
According to Tarnow, when the crest of bone is 3-5mm away from the interproximal contact point, the papilla is present about ___% of the time. if the bone is 7-10mm away from the contact point the papilla was missing about ___% of the time.
100%
78%
If its 6mm away, its present about 50% of the time.
189
According to Holmgren 1993, Do full-coverage splints stop nocturnal bruxism?
nope.
wear facets reappeared in the same location/pattern as if no splint were in place.
190
Describe the wear pattern found on splints due to nocturnal bruxism (Holmgren, 1993)
Wear facets reappeared in the same location/pattern.
in more than 80% of pts, the wear facets are due to lateral mandibular movements. (the action in nocturnal bruxism is grinding instead of clenching.
the wear facets showed that the mandible moved laterally far beyond edge-to-edge relationship of canines
191
According to Holmgren, 1993. Occlusal splints improved signs/symptoms in ___% of patients.
78%
192
According to Brooks 1997, what are the most useful views in plain film radiography to image the TMJ?
oblique transcranial
transmaxillary
submental-vertex
Transpharyngeal?
Note that these radiographs still cannot determine disk positions!
193
Describe the transcranial view. What is it used for?
X-ray beam parallel to long axis of condyle.
Checks for fractures with marked dislocation and gross arthritic changes (especially the lateral part of the joint)
194
Describe the trans maxillary view.
what is it used for?
Modified AP projection with beam approximately perpendicular to long axis of condyle. Lower jaw should be protruded to avoid superimposition of condyle onto base of the skull.
Allows for visualization of superior surface of condyle and inferior surface of eminence. can check for fractures with medial displacement of condylar head, neoplasms, anomalies, and severe degenerative joint diseases.
195
Describe the submental-vertex view.
What is it used for?
projected through chin parallel to posterior border of ascending ramus.
checks for facial asymmetries, condylar displacement and rotation.
196
Describe the trans pharyngeal view.
what is it used for?
sometimes used instead of transcrainal view. X-ray beam through sigmoid notch, opposite TMJ. Mouth must be open.
checks for destructive changes in condyle, fractures of condylar neck
197
A panoramic radiograph only shows ___-___% agreement with lateral tomogram for osseous changes.
60-70%
Thte pano can only evaluate lateral slope and central parts of condyle. it is not adequate for diagnosis of anything other than gross changes.
198
What is the major advantage of conventional tomography over plain film radiography?
What is the major disadvantage?
it provides multiple thin sections through region of interest. which largely eliminates problems of superimposition.
Lacks visualization of soft-tissues of joint
199
True or false... conventional tomography provides a more accurate representation of condylar position compared to transcranial plain radiography
true
however.... condylar position doesn't reliably predict disk position. and there is high variability in condylar position in both sympatic and asymptomatic patients.
200
true or false... there are few, if any, correlations between clinical and radiographic findings in regards to condylar position (overall, not just tomography)
true
patients can have radiographically normal joints, but have pain.
patients can have clear signs of bone abnormalities, but no pain.
tomography has little effect on the diagnosis or treatment plan of patients with TMD
201
How is computed tomography better than conventional tomography?
can highlight either hard or soft tissue
Good for diagnosis of bony abnormalities
202
____ can evaluate disk displacement, disk perforation, capsular tears, and disk adhesions. however it cannot determine lateral and rotational disk displacements
arthrography
accompanied by synovial fluid sampling
203
____ can evaluate location of the disk in both open and closed mouth positions, bone marrow changes, muscle irregularities, soft tissue ingrowths, fibrosis, joint effusion, disk destruction. It can also determine lateral and rotational displacements
MRI
(although MRI is better in determining the location of the disk, arthrography is better for finding disk perforations and capsular tears)
204
Which is best for determining disk displacements. MRI or arthrography?
MRI
205
If you suspect the patient has juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, what imaging should you take?
hard tissue imaging of joint in at least two planes
and MRI
206
What kind of imaging should you take if there is disk displacement with reduction and no symptoms other than clicking?
no imaging.
You would take a MRI only if there is pain/dysfunction
207
What are the three open-eruption techniques?
window technique
Full flap open procedure
apically repositioned flap
208
What are the three closed-eruption techniques?
minimal exposure technique
maximal exposure technique
tunnel approach
209
Describe the window technique
| open-eruption
labial impaction = simplest method
palatal impaction = thick tissue + follicle, difficult to isolate for bonding, may need surgical pack, possibility of autonomous eruption
210
Describe the full flap procedure (open-eruption)
reflect full thickness flap, remove bone around tooth, replace flap (after making punch in tissue overlying the tooth)
211
Describe the apically repositioned flap technique (open-eruption).
Indicated when labially impacted tooth is above the MGJ
212
Describe the minimal exposure technique (closed-eruption)
full thickness flap is reflected, minimal bone removed, an eyelet is bonded, and exits through the sutured edge of the flap
orthodontic traction should start immediately
213
Describe the maximal exposure technique (closed-eruption)
complete bony exposure and enucleation of follicle
214
Describe the tunnel approach (closed-eruption)
the canine is pulled down through the primary canine socket (simultaneous extraction)
indication = high canines in close proximity to the line of the arch
215
Why are open exposure techniques contraindicated in high-impacted teeth?
created large defect
exposes adjacent tooth roots to oral environment
loss of access due to mucosal healing
(>1mm of KT must remain if window technique is used)
216
If a canine is resorbing the roots of an incisor, why can't you do an open exposure? what should you do instead?
it would expose the incisor root
extract one of the teeth. or leave the canine to resorb through the root. or do minimal exposure closed technique at the most distal part of the canine to avoid exposing the incisor root)
217
According to buschang 2002, a simple open-bite (non-skeletal) in young patients will spontaneously correct ___% of the time
80%
218
In a typical hyperdivergent open-bite patient, the problems are in all three planes in both jaws, but most of dysmorphology occurs in the ____
Describe the changes seen in this jaw
mandible
Shorter ramus (decreased posterior facial height)
Glenoid fossa positioned more superior relative to sella turcica
increased dentoalveoalr heights
increased LAFH (steeper MPA, larger gonial angle)
219
describe the dysmorphology in the maxilla in a hyper divergent open-bite patient.
anterior and posterior dentoalveolar heights increased
decreased anterior upper facial height
maxilla shorter and slightly recessive
transverse deficient with increased incidence of posterior crossbite
220
Describe the etiologic factors behind a skeletal hyper divergent open-bite patient.
Abnormal muscles (smaller, less active muscles and weaker bite force)
Habits (finger, thumb, tongue)
Airway obstructions (accompanied by lower tongue position. these problems can spontaneously correct after adenoidectomy)
All these things leads to a lowered mandibular posture
221
Describe 5 treatment modalities for patients with hyper divergent skeletal open bite.
HPHG - holds maxilla sutural growth and vertical dentoalveolar development
Extractions - molars move forward and autorotates mandible. however it may actually cause supra eruption of mandibular molars which worsens down/back rotation of mandible
Posterior bite blocks - increases gonial angle
vertical chin cup - redirects growth horizontally. only appliance shown to effectively alter Mandible shape. increases posterior facial heights, redirects condylar growth, decreases gonial angle.
Relative intrusion - prevent eruption of incisors while growth provides vertical space into which the posterior teeth erupt
222
If treatment mechanics of long face individuals require orthopedic modification, when should treatment be initiated?
before the adolescent spurt
223
____ was shown to be more important than mandibular rotation in determining overbite changes (Bushang, 2002)
Vertical mandibular growth
224
____ as an adjunctive treatment for HPHG and PRE in young children with hyper divergent open bite has shown to increase true mandibular autorotation and produce significant reductions in the ANB and gonial angles
clenching exercises
there is also some benefit to lip seal exercises
225
Forces of <80g can produce __mm of extrusion per month
1-2mm
226
Extruded teeth (for purpose of developing alveolus for implant placement) should be stabilized for ___ months prior to extraction with immediate implant placement and properly contoured immediate provisional crowns in order to prevent undesired resorption of newly formed bone and remodeling of gingival tissues.
4-6 months
227
What are the four options for managing mandibular asymmetry in skeletally immature patients?
Orthodontics/orthopedics(good for minor-moderate problems)
surgery at skeletal maturity (waiting is best for patients with no significant functional or psychosocial issues)
orthodontics/orthopedics during facial growth years followed by surgery at growth cessation
Surgery during growth. Then surgery again if necessary at skeletal maturity. (best for patients with negative functional, psychosocial, and esthetics)
228
What is the maximum amount of mandibular lengthening with BSSO that is considered stable?
8-10mm
229
According to the Golden ratio, the U2 should be ___ the width of U1
2/3rds (normally 5.5-6.7mm)
230
How wide are mandibular second premolars?
7-8mm
231
BL width of the alveolar ridge is reduced by ___% within the first 6 months. then an additional ___% over 5 years.
23%
11%
232
If the alveolar ridge is < ___mm thick, augmentation is required before implant placement
<4mm
233
Bone graft needs ___ months to be stable enough for implant placement.
9 months
234
Overdentures and FPD have a ___% stability rate over a 20 year follow up.
Single implants have a ___% stability rate over a 5 year follow up.
95%
90%
235
The ____ directs sound energy from pharynx into oral cavity during speech.
velopharyngeal valve
236
Velopharyngeal dysfunction can be caused by structural abnormalities (termed _____), neurophysiolgogical disorders (termed ____), or articulation errors (termed ____)
velopharyngeal insufficiency
velopharyngeal incompetence
Velopharyngeal mislearning
237
According to Neelapu 2017, there is an increased rate of what craniofacial features in OSA patients in comparison to controls?
reduced pharyngeal airway space
inferiorly placed hyoid bone
increased facial heights (vertical growth pattern)
238
What are four potential risk factors for OSA?
increased age
male
obese
anatomical abnormalities of the craniofacial region and upper airway
239
The coexistence of bimaxillary retrusion and ____ cranial base angle may result in reduced AP dimension of pharyngeal airway in OSA patients
acute
240
What is the purpose of the ball-and-socket design in a Motion appliance on the molar pad?
Allows tipping and rotation of the molar
| Carriere's claim = distal rotational movement of the maxillary first molars around their palatal roots
241
In the Areepong 2020 article about Motion appliance, what strength of elastics were used for the first month? What strength of elastics after the first month?
First = 1/4" 6oz
Second = 3/16" 8oz
242
In the Areepong 2020 article about the Motion appliance, the mean treatment time in correcting class II was ___ months.
4.6 months
243
Describe the movements of the canines seen using a Motion appliance. (Areepong 2020)
Maxillary canine = distal movement with distal tipping, distal rotation, extrusion. (manufacturer claims distal movement without tipping. This is shown to be incorrect)
244
Describe the movements of the maxillary first molars seen using a Motion appliance. (Areepong 2020)
Distal movement with distal tipping and rotation. (confirms manufacturer's claim that it produces distal rotation around the palatal root)
245
Describe the movements of the mandibular first molars seen using a Motion appliance (Areepong 2020)
Mesial movement with mesial tipping and extrusion
246
Describe the movements of the upper and lower incisors seen using a Motion appliance (Areepong 2020)
Lower incisors = proclination (even with the use of an Essix)
Upper incisors = proclination more evident in skeletal class II patients than in skeletal class I patients
247
According to the Cacciatore 2014 article, what are the four results from Forsus treatment?
Significant restriction of sagittal maxillary growth (HG effect)
Significant correction of OJ (-3.8mm), OB (-1.5) and molar relationship (+3.7mm)
No significant sagittal or vertical skeletal changes long term
Mandibular incisor proclination of 5.6 degrees (even with cinch-back)
248
The Forsus is effective in correcting class II malocclusion mainly at the ___ level. There is no significant sagittal or vertical skeletal changes long term.
dentoalveolar
249
About ___% more root resorption due to impacted canines is seen when taken with a CT compared with conventional radiographic methods
50%
250
In the D'Amico 2003 article, they found that while only 4/61 patients were not satisfied with the esthetic result of previously impacted canines, ___% of orthodontists judged the result as esthetically unacceptable.
56%
251
Periodontal conditions and occlusal function between sides with previously impacted canines and sides with normally erupted canines were similar. However, what did they find that was different between the two? (D'Amico, 2003)
Canine rise occurred more often on working sides with normal erupted canines than with impacted canines. (this is because the inclination is different between the two sides)
252
Both the maxilla and mandible achieve their maximum growth rate [before/after] statuary height growth peak
after
253
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 1?
Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis: third finger-proximal phalanx
254
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 2?
Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis:
| third finger-middle phalanx
255
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 3?
Width of epiphysis as wide as diaphysis:
Fifth finger - middle phalanx
256
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 4?
Ossification of adductor sesamoid of thumb
257
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 5?
Capping of epiphysis:
Third finger - distal phalanx
258
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 6?
Capping of epiphysis:
third finger - middle phalanx
259
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 7?
Capping of epiphysis:
fifth finger - middle phalanx
260
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 8?
Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:
third finger - distal phalanx
261
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 9?
Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:
Third finger - proximal phalanx
262
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 10?
Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:
third finger - middle phalanx
263
Hand-wrist radiograph:
What is SMI 11?
Fusion of epiphysis and diaphysis:
Radius
264
Females have greater growth velocities and earlier maturation in ___ and in the ___, while males have greater ___ velocities
stature
maxilla
mandibular
265
True or false... TADs are known to be frequently associated with higher failure rates among adolescents when compared to adults. Why or why not?
true
It is speculated that it may be due to thinner cortical layers and immature bone qualities in adolescents
266
The study done by Han in 2012 took ___ radiographs from 60 adolescents and 60 adults and measured the ____ at specific intervals from ___ and ___.
CBCT
bone density
mid palatal suture and incisive foramen
267
According to the study by Han 2012, [adolescents/adults] displayed significantly higher bone density than adolescents. [males/females] had higher bone densities than the other sex. Moving AP and ML in the palate had [no effect / a significant effect] on bone density.
Adults
Females
no effect
268
According to Han 2012, the ____ palatal area has been recommended for TADs due to sufficient ____ and adequate ___.
paramedian
cortical bone amount
keratinized tissue
269
According to Han 2012, palatal cortical bone density showed a tendency to [increase/decrease] laterally and posteriorly. Therefore, the best bone is located where?
decrease
Best bone = 15mm posterior to incisive foramen (second premolar area) and 2-4mm lateral to the palatal suture)
270
Han 2012 concluded that palatal bone densities were significantly higher in adults than in adolescents, and the densities of the ___ palate in adolescents were of similar value to those of the __ palate in adults. therefore, when placing TADs in adolescents you should try to place the TAD more ____
anterior
posterior
anteriorly
271
Proffit and Ackerman presented a theoretical model of the limitation of orthodontic correction in the form of three concentric "_____". The inner envelope represents the limits of ____. the middle, _____; and the outer, ____.
envelopes of discrepancy
orthodontic tooth movement
changes that are passive with growth
limits that can be achieved via orthognathic surgery
272
Describe the study design of the Handelman 1996 article.
Hypothesis: as teeth are repositioned at their anatomical limits, the occurrences and severity of iatrogenic phenomena is enhanced.
Methods: took pre-treatment lateral cephs divided by facial type. Took bone width measurements around the apex of U and L 1 roots (anterior, posterior, and apical)
273
According to the Handelman 1996 study, bone levels superior to the maxillary incisor apex and inferior to the mandibular incisor apex were greater in the class ___ group than the class I group. Meanwhile, the bone level lingual to the mandibular incisor apex was [wider/narrower] in the class III group than in class I or II groups
III
narrower
274
According to Handelman 1996, the width of bone lingual to the maxillary incisor and mandibular incisor apices was [narrower/wider] in the low SN-MP group than in the average or high SN-MP groups.
wider
275
According to Handelman 1996, the width of bone labial to the mandibular incisor apex was [narrower/greater] in the high SN-MP group than in the average or low SN-MP groups.
narrower
276
According to Handelman 1996, the total width of the mandibular alveolus was significantly wider in the ____ group and narrowest in the ___ group. The height of the alveolus apical to the incisor apices is greater in the ___ group than in the other groups.
low SN-MP
high SN-MP
high SN-MP
277
According to Handelman 1996, the ____ incisors are most frequently the limiting factor in treatment because of their thinness of their alveolar housing. A thin alveolus may be encountered in any skeletal type but is most frequently encountered in patients with ____ face heights and severe ___
mandibular
long lower
bimaxillary protrusion
278
According to Handelman 1996, a narrow alveolus was frequently noted around the ____ in high SN-MP groups and in the class III average group.
A thin alveolus was often noted ___ to the maxillary incisor apex in the class II high SN-MP group.
mandibular incisors
lingual
279
According to Hodges, [adults/adolescents] demonstrated more lip retraction compared to the [adults/adolescents] group with ext of U/L 4s
adults
adolescents
280
According to Hodges, ext of U/L4s had what effect on lower lip taper and lower lip thickness in adolescents and adults?
no effect
281
According to the article "Maxillofacial characteristics affecting chin deviation between mandibular recursion and prognathism patients" (Kim), subjects in the study showed predominately ___ side deviation regardless of the group (mandibular retrusion or prognathism) and the degree of mentor deviation did not reveal significant differences between groups.
left
282
The main takeaway from the Kim article regarding mandibular asymmetry is that...
Based on the same degree of chin deviation in mandibular prognathism and recursion, chin deviation is expressed easily in ___, whereas it occurs only with significant right-left differences in individuals with mandibular ____
prognathism
retrusion
(in other words, chin deviation is expressed more easily in mandibular prognathism. If a retruded mandible were to have chin deviation, there must have been dramatic mandibular asymmetry)
283
Define biohostability
the ease with which a material will culture bacteria, virus or spores
284
What does chromium do in SS?
What does nickel do?
What metal makes up the rest of the alloy in SS
Forms an oxide layer which passivates the surface, rendering it "stainless"
Nickel enhances corrosion resistance
iron
285
What other metal is in Elgiloy?
Elgiloy has a similar stiffness to ___. the wire can be heat treated after being shaped, which is called ____. This allows you to bend easier in more formable state, then heat treat it to then decrease formability.
Cobalt
SS
Precipitation hardening
286
True or false... stabilized martensite (conventional Nitinol) undergoes intraoral phase transformations
false
287
What is the composition of beta-titanium alloys (TMA)?
80% titanium
11.5% molybdenum
6% zirconium
4.5% tin
288
According to McNamara 2003, 1mm of transpalatal width increase with RPE will result in an increase of ___mm of arch perimeter.
0.7mm
289
In the McNamara 2003 article, a ___ type expander was used for a total of 10.5mm expansion. This resulted in __mm overall net gain in maxillary arch perimeter and ___mm overall net gain in mandibular arch perimeter
Haas
6mm
4.5mm
290
What are the first and second steps when evaluating the cervical vertebral maturation?
1 = look at the inferior borders for notching
2 = evaluate shape of C3 and C4 (trapezoidal, rectangular, square, or rectangular vertical)
291
Describe cervical stage 1 landmarks
inferior borders of C2-C4 are flat
3rd and 4th vertebrae are trapezoidal (posterior border taller than anterior border)
292
Describe the growth implications of CV1.
occurs from approximately the time of eruption of primary dentition until about 2 years before peak growth
293
What are the clinical applications for CV1?
ideal time to intervene with reverse-pull facemark with RPE.
294
Describe cervical stage 2 landmarks.
visible concavity/notch along inferior border of C2. lower borders of C3 and C4 are flat.
both C3 and C4 are still trapezoidal
295
What are the growth implications of CV2?
considered the "get-ready" stage
peak interval of mandibular growth should begin within 1 year
296
Describe the cervical stage 3 landmarks.
Visible concavity/notch along inferior borders of C2 and C3. Inferior border of C4 remains flat
most C3 and C4 bodies are still trapezoidal at this stage. sometimes, however they can have a more rectangular horizontal stage.
297
What are the growth implications of CV3?
Maximum craniofacial growth velocity occurs at this stage
298
Describe the cervical stage 4 landmarks.
visible concavities along C2, C3, and C4.
more importantly, BOTH C3 and C4 are rectangular horizontal ("bar of soap stage")
299
What are the growth implications of CV4?
Continued accelerated craniofacial growth is anticipated
300
Describe cervical stage 5 landmarks.
CV5 can be differentiated from CV4 on the basis of shape of C3 and C4. At least one, C3 or C4, are now SQUARE
"Marshmallow stage"
301
What are the growth implications of CV5?
Most substantial craniofacial growth has been achieved
302
Describe the cervical stage 6 landmarks.
at least one of the 3rd or 4th vertebrae are rectangular VERTICAL
Cortical bone appears better delineated than in the other stages.
303
What are the growth implications of CV6?
pts can be evaluated for corrective jaw surgery or the placement of endosseous implants
304
What is considered the gold standard for determining the continuation or cessation of significant craniofacial growth in all orthodontic patients?
the evaluation of 2 lateral head films taken 6-12 months apart
(serial cephs)
305
According to Rossini 2015, ___ was the most difficult movement to control with CAT (___% of accuracy) followed by ___ movement.
extrusion
30%
Rotation
306
According to Rossini 2015, CAT is most predictable (___%) with ____ when a bodily movement of at least 1.5mm was prescribed.
88%
upper molar distalization
307
What is the least accurate tooth movement with CAT?
extrusion
308
True or false.. with CAT, teeth with rounded crowns are more difficult to rotate. Therefore, you should plan over-corrections and reduce staging to less than ___ degrees per aligner
true
1.5 degrees
309
According to Siara 2010, the MARA appliance temporarily restricts maxillary growth. It affects the mandible [more/less] than twin block or Herbst
less
310
According to Siara 2010, the SNB is increased most and occlusal plane changed most significantly with what two appliances?
Twin block and Herbst
311
According to Siara 2010, which class II corrector has the best control of vertical but causes significant flaring of lower incisors?
Twin block
312
True or false... according to Siara 2010, significant long term skeletal differences were observed in patients treated with class II correctors.
false. No significant long term skeletal differences were observed between the various treatment groups and matched controls
313
According to Siara 2010, the ___ and ___ appliances significantly restricted maxillary growth and produced a steeper occlusal plane. The ___ appliance is most effective in controlling the vertical but also caused the most flaring of lower incisors.
Herbst and MARA
Twin block
314
According to Stroud 1998, inter proximal enamel is significantly thicker on the ___ than on the ____
enamel is significantly thicker on distal than on the mesial
315
According to Stroud 1998, assuming 50% enamel reduction, the mandibular premolars and molars should provide ___mm of additional space for realignment of mandibular teeth.
9.8mm
316
According to Stroud 1998, ____ can prevent need for extractions and allow the transverse arch dimension and anterior inclinations to be maintained.
posterior IPR
317
According to Stroud 1998, there [are/are not] significant sex differences in mandibular posterior enamel thickness. The molar enamel is [thicker/thinner] than premolar enamel. Distal enamel is [thicker/thinner] than mesial enamel.
Are not
thicker
thicker
318
According to Farkas (new article), by year 1 of age, the width of the mandible was highly developed (___%) and the height reached ___% of eventual adult size. In 1-5 years, the mandible's height and width showed significant development while the face height, upper face height, face width, and the two face depth measurements exhibited continuous gradual growth AFTER ___ years of age.
80. 2%
66. 6%
5
319
According to Farkas, at ___ years of age, the upper face height, the mandible height, and the width of the face reached their mature size in females.
12
320
According to Farkas, at ___ years of age, the upper face height, the mandible height, and the width of the face reached their mature size in males.
15
321
____ are the second most commonly impacted teeth after third molars
maxillary canines
322
Impacted canines occurs in ___% of the population. it is ___ times more common in females than males, and it is ___ times more common in the maxilla than the mandible.
2%
2
2
323
Impacted canines occurs bilaterally ___% of the time.
Of maxillary canines, approximately ___% are impacted labially whereas ___% are impacted palatally
8%
33%
66%
324
According to Ericson et al., extracting the primary canine before the patent is of age ___ would normalize the erupting position of the permanent canine in ___% of the cases if the crown were [mesial/distal] to the midline of the lateral incisor root. The success rate decreases to ___% if the permanent canine crown is [mesial/distal] to the midline of the lateral incisor root.
11
91%
distal
64%
mesial
325
When the vertical angulation of an impacted maxillary canine exceeds ___ degrees, the chance of normal eruption after extraction significantly decreases.
31 degrees
326
What is the minimum vertical space required for a cement-retained implant?
7-8mm
327
According to the new ABO article by Ker AJ, lay people can tolerate up to ___mm maxillary midline to facial midline discrepancy
3mm
328
true or false... a young child with a tongue thrust swallow is most likely to have just not yet learned the adult pattern.
true
329
true or false... most of the time, tongue thrust behavior does NOT cause malocclusion
true, it does not
any affect that the tongue has in contributing to malocclusions seems related to RESTING POSTURE as it affects the eruption of teeth
330
true or false... posterior tongue posturing can be a result of airway problems.
false... anterior tongue positioned can result from airway problems
prominent tonsils are found in 8-10 year olds.
331
the tongue follows the growth curve established for the ___ tissues of the body. it reaches its maximum size near age __.
Meanwhile, the mandible follows the ___ growth curve. why is this significant?
neural
8
general body
the growth difference creates the tendency for the large tongue to be positioned relatively high and forward in the early years of growth
332
When is the adult swallow typically learned?
2-12 years. Tongue thrusts evolved to a normal swallow pattern around 8-12 without any therapy most of the time.
333
Describe the infantile swallow
Jaws are apart with the tongue filling the space between the gum pads; the lips are active in sucking movements; the tongue is placed out between the dental ridges in contact with the lower lip and beneath the nipple
334
What is the role of myofunctional therapy if there is tongue thrust alone?
not necessary
335
What is the role of myofunctional therapy if a tongue thrust is accompanied with speech problems?
speech therapy is suggested
336
What is the role of my-functional therapy if a tongue thrust is accompanied by malocclusion but no speech problem?
best to treat the malocclusion first (tongue thrust will usually fix itself if malocclusion is fixed).
therapy is not needed until after puberty if adult swallow is still not learned
337
According to Proffit 1975, up to ___% of children who have a tongue thrust and anterior open bite at age 8 will show improvement without any therapy by age 12
80%
