Questions Flashcards
On June 21, what is the lowest northerly latitude (listed in the Air Almanac) at which the Sun will be above the horizon for 24 hours (all day)?
a. 64N
b. 66N
c. 68N
d. 70N
Answer: b. 66N
What is civil twilight?
a. The period between sunset and the end of evening civil twilight (ECT)
b. The period between the start of morning civil twilight (MCT) and sunrise
c. Related to the position of the center of the Sun being 6° below the sensible horizon
d. A period when it is possible to carry out daylight tasks without artificial lighting
e. Used in the EU-OPS definition of day flying/night flying
f. All of the above
Answer: f. All of the above
An airfield has runways 18/36 and 07/25, all of equal length. The TAF W/V is 310/25. Variation is 20°E. Which will be the best R/W for take-off and landing?
a. 18
b. 36
c. 07
d. 25
Answer: d. 25
Between 60N and 60S, the minimum duration of civil twilight is:
a. 21 minutes
b. 16 minutes
c. 14 minutes
d. 30 minutes
Answer: b. 16 minutes
What is the approximate compression of the Earth?
a. 3%
b. 0.03%
c. 0.3%
d. 1/3000
Answer: c. 0.3%
A Graticule is the name given to:
a. A series of lines drawn on a chart
b. A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c. A selection of small circles as you get nearer to either pole
d. None of the above
Answer: b. A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
The northern vertex of a Great Circle is simply:
a. The point of greatest latitude
b. The most northerly point on that Great Circle
c. The crossing point of the Great Circle and the Equator
d. None of the above
Answer: b. The most northerly point on that Great Circle
The shortest distance between two points on the Earth’s surface is the:
a. Great Circle route
b. Rhumb Line
c. Parallel of Latitude
d. Small Circle
Answer: a. Great Circle route
What is civil twilight?
a. The period between sunset and the end of evening civil twilight
b. The period between the start of morning civil twilight and sunrise
c. Related to the position of the center of the Sun being 6° below the horizon
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?
a. 66.5°N
b. 23.5°N
c. 0°
d. 23.5°S
Answer: b. 23.5°N
What is the main reference for Longitude?
a. The Equator
b. The Prime (or Greenwich) Meridian
c. The North Pole
d. The South Pole
Answer: b. The Prime (or Greenwich) Meridian
Which is the only parallel of latitude that is also a Great Circle?
a. Tropic of Cancer
b. Tropic of Capricorn
c. The Equator
d. Antarctic Circle
Answer: c. The Equator
What is the approximate circumference of the Earth at the Equator?
a. 18,000 NM
b. 21,600 NM
c. 10,800 NM
d. 24,000 NM
Answer: b. 21,600 NM
What is the ICAO definition of a nautical mile?
a. 1852 feet
b. 1852 meters
c. 6080 feet
d. 5400 meters
Answer: b. 1852 meters
What is the definition of Latitude?
a. Angular distance measured east or west of the Prime Meridian
b. Angular distance measured north or south of the Equator
c. A line connecting points of equal longitude
d. The intersection of the Earth’s surface and the celestial sphere
Answer: b. Angular distance measured north or south of the Equator
At what longitude does the Prime Meridian lie?
a. 0°
b. 90°E
c. 90°W
d. 180°
Answer: a. 0°
What does a Great Circle represent?
a. A circle with a center and radius identical to those of the Earth
b. A line of constant direction on the Earth’s surface
c. The shortest route between two points on a map
d. None of the above
Answer: a. A circle with a center and radius identical to those of the Earth
Which of the following defines Longitude?
a. A line connecting all points north of the Equator
b. The angular distance east or west of the Prime Meridian
c. The angular distance north or south of the Equator
d. None of the above
Answer: b. The angular distance east or west of the Prime Meridian
What are the cardinal points?
a. Points at 45° intervals on a compass
b. North, South, East, West
c. Points representing magnetic variation
d. Any points of geographic reference
Answer: b. North, South, East, West
Which system of direction measurement uses cardinal points as a reference and 360 degrees for a full rotation?
a. Quadrantal system
b. Sexagesimal system
c. Graticule system
d. Cartesian system
Answer: b. Sexagesimal system
What is true about the Prime Meridian?
a. It passes through 90°N and 90°S
b. It is the reference line for Longitude
c. It is at 90° latitude
d. It divides the Earth into two equal hemispheres
Answer: b. It is the reference line for Longitude
What is the direction at 090°(T) in the sexagesimal system?
a. North
b. East
c. South
d. West
Answer: b. East
What is the definition of a Rhumb Line?
a. A line of constant direction
b. A circle with the same radius as the Earth
c. A line connecting the poles
d. A parallel of latitude
Answer: a. A line of constant direction
What is the main difference between a Great Circle and a Rhumb Line?
a. A Rhumb Line is shorter than a Great Circle
b. A Great Circle is a straight line, while a Rhumb Line is curved
c. A Rhumb Line has a constant direction, while a Great Circle does not
d. There is no difference
Answer: c. A Rhumb Line has a constant direction, while a Great Circle does not
What is a small circle on the surface of the Earth?
a. A circle with a radius less than that of the Earth
b. A line connecting two poles
c. A parallel of latitude
d. Both a and c
Answer: d. Both a and c
Which chart projection represents Rhumb Lines as straight lines?
a. Mercator projection
b. Polar stereographic projection
c. Lambert conformal projection
d. Gnomonic projection
Answer: a. Mercator projection
What is the primary characteristic of the Lambert Conformal Chart?
a. Equal area representation
b. Rhumb Lines are straight
c. Conformal representation of the Earth’s surface
d. No distortions
Answer: c. Conformal representation of the Earth’s surface
What does the 1 in 60 rule help determine?
a. Wind direction
b. Deviation from track
c. Change in latitude
d. Angular distance between two points
Answer: b. Deviation from track
What is the term for the line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern hemispheres?
a. Prime Meridian
b. Tropic of Cancer
c. Tropic of Capricorn
d. Equator
Answer: d. Equator
What is a graticule?
a. The grid of latitude and longitude lines on a globe or chart
b. A navigation tool for altitude calculation
c. A device for correcting magnetic variation
d. A measurement unit
Answer: a. The grid of latitude and longitude lines on a globe or chart
What is the position of the Sun on June 21 at the Tropic of Cancer?
a. Directly overhead
b. 23.5° south
c. At the horizon
d. 90° below the Equator
Answer: a. Directly overhead
What does “track made good” refer to?
a. The magnetic heading of the aircraft
b. The actual path of the aircraft over the ground
c. The distance between two waypoints
d. The predicted route of the flight
Answer: b. The actual path of the aircraft over the ground
What is the approximate distance of 1 degree of latitude?
a. 30 NM
b. 60 NM
c. 90 NM
d. 120 NM
Answer: b. 60 NM
What is the angle of the Earth’s axis relative to its orbit around the Sun?
a. 23.5°
b. 0°
c. 90°
d. 66.5°
Answer: a. 23.5°
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Gnomonic projection?
a. Great Circles appear as straight lines
b. Rhumb Lines appear as straight lines
c. All areas are equally represented
d. Conformal and cylindrical
Answer: a. Great Circles appear as straight lines
What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle?
a. 90°N
b. 23.5°N
c. 66.5°N
d. 60°N
Answer: c. 66.5°N
Q1. The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth’s surface where? (a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical. (b) A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal. (c) A position where horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is a maximum. (d) The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees.
(a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical.
Q2. The direction of True North for any observer is? (a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole. (b) The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation. (c) The direction of the Greenwich meridian to the North Pole. (d) The direction of the observer’s magnetic north corrected for local variation.
(a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole.
Q3. If the Compass Heading is 265 degrees, variation is 33 degrees West and deviation is 3 degrees East, what is True Heading? (a) 229 degrees. (b) 295 degrees. (c) 235 degrees. (d) 301 degrees.
(c) 235 degrees.
Q4. Given: Compass Heading = 233. True Track = 256. Drift angle = 10 degrees right. Deviation = -3 degrees. What is the variation? (a) 16 degrees East. (b) 36 degrees East. (c) 10 degrees West. (d) 20 degrees West.
(c) 10 degrees West.
Q5. The fix of the aircraft position is determined by radials from three VOR stations. The measurements contain small random errors known as known systematic errors and unknown systematic errors. The measured radials are corrected for known systematic errors and are plotted on a navigation chart. The results are shown in the diagram. What is the most probable position of the aircraft? (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.
(c) 3.
Q6. An NDB is located at position (N55 26 W005 42). The variation at the NDB is 9W. The position of the aircraft is (56 00N 010 00W). The variation at the aircraft position is 11W. The initial TT of the great circle from the aircraft position to the NDB position is 101.5 degrees. What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB from the aircraft? (a) 108.5. (b) 114.5. (c) 110.5. (d) 112.5.
(a) 108.5.
Q7. Given: True Track 245 degrees, Drift 5 degrees right, Variation 3 east, Compass Heading 242. Calculate the deviation? (a) 5 degrees west. (b) 5 degrees east. (c) 1 degree west. (d) 1 degree east.
(d) 1 degree east.
Q8. Deviation on the standby compass is? (a) Positive if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North. (b) Independent of the latitude of the aircraft’s position. (c) Dependent on the heading of the aircraft. (d) Zero on the magnetic equator.
(c) Dependent on the heading of the aircraft.
Q9. Which of the following variables affect deviation? 1. Magnetic latitude. 2. Aircraft heading. 3. Aircraft altitude. 4. Aircraft electronic equipment. (a) 1, 2 and 4. (b) 1, 2 and 3. (c) 2 and 3. (d) 2 and 4.
(a) 1, 2 and 4.
Q10. Given: True Track = 245. Drift = 5 degrees right. Variation = 3 degrees East. Compass heading = 242 degrees. Magnetic heading =? (a) 237 degrees. (b) 247 degrees. (c) 243 degrees. (d) 253 degrees.
(b) 247 degrees.
Q11. Given: Variation = 6W. Signal lines Jan 2002. Average annual increase 10 minutes. Calculate the Variation in 2005? (a) 6.5 degrees west. (b) 6.3 degrees west. (c) 5.5 degrees east. (d) 5.5 degrees west.
(d) 5.5 degrees west.
Q12. Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct? (a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature, and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent. (b) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a non-permanent nature. (c) Hard iron magnetism is non-permanent in nature, and soft iron magnetism is permanent. (d) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a permanent nature.
(a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature, and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent.
Q13. The direction of magnetic north at a certain position coincides with the direction of? (a) The isogonal to the magnetic north pole. (b) The great circle between the position and the magnetic north pole. (c) The direction of the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at that position. (d) The compass north at that position, corrected for variation.
(a) The isogonal to the magnetic north pole.
Q14. The long term periodic change in the Earth’s Magnetic Field? (a) Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles. (b) Is caused by the westward movement of the geographic North Pole. (c) Acts mainly on compass deviation. (d) Is caused by sunspot activity.
(a) Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles.
Q15. The directive force is? (a) Angle of dip. (b) Directive force. (c) Total magnetic force of the Earth’s magnetic field. (d) Vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
(b) Directive force.
Q16. Near the magnetic pole? (a) The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of MAGNETISM & COMPASSES. (b) The angle of dip is maximal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully horizontally aligned. (c) The angle of dip is minimal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully vertically aligned. (d) The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of MAGNETISM & COMPASSES.
(a) The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of MAGNETISM & COMPASSES.
Q17. A definition of a magnetic track angle is? (a) The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north. (b) The direction of the longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north. (c) The direction of a line referenced to isogonic line to the magnetic north pole. (d) The direction of the longitudinal axis of an aircraft to magnetic north.
(a) The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north.
Q18. With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the? (a) Angle of dip. (b) Directive force. (c) Total magnetic force of the Earth’s magnetic field. (d) Vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
(b) Directive force.
Q19. When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? (a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. (b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north. (c) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. (d) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.
(b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.
Q20. The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field? (a) Is minimum at the magnetic equator. (b) Is very small close to the magnetic poles. (c) Is maximum at the magnetic poles. (d) Increases with an increase in magnetic latitude.
(a) Is minimum at the magnetic equator.
Q21. The fix of the aircraft position is determined by radials from three VOR stations? (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.
(c) 3.
Q22. An NDB is located at position N55 26 W005 42. The magnetic bearing is? (a) 108.5. (b) 114.5. (c) 110.5. (d) 112.5.
(a) 108.5.
Q23. When flying near the magnetic equator, which direction will the compass point to magnetic north? (a) To the east. (b) To the west. (c) Straight ahead. (d) Nowhere.
(a) To the east.
Q1. Radio Navigation charts (Jeppesen) use: a) Lambert’s conformal conic projection; b) Mercator’s projection; c) IMPP
a) Lambert’s conformal conic projection
Q2. A rhumb line is a straight line. This applies to: a) Mercators; b) Lamberts; c) IMPP
a) Mercators
Q3. Meridians and parallels intersect at right angles. This applies to: a) Mercators; b) Lamberts; c) Both
c) Both
Q4. On a Mercator’s chart: a) Distortion increases away from the Equator; b) Distortion increases away from the Pole; c) Parallels of latitude are not straight lines
a) Distortion increases away from the Equator
Q5. The scale on a Lambert’s projection is correct only along: a) The standard parallels; b) The equator; c) The end parallels of latitude and 2 degrees on either side of the central meridian
a) The standard parallels
Q6. Charts are used only for: a) Flying overseas; b) Dead reckoning navigation; c) Polar navigation
b) Dead reckoning navigation
Q7. In an orthomorphic projection: a) Meridians and parallels intersect at right angles; b) Meridians and parallels are straight lines; c) Both the above
a) Meridians and parallels intersect at right angles
Q8. The chart generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a: a) Lambert’s Conformal projection; b) Transverse Mercator projection; c) Stereographical projection
c) Stereographical projection
Q9. On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the convergence of the meridians is: a) The same as Earth convergency at the parallel of origin; b) The same as the scale; c) Most accurate at the standard parallels
c) Most accurate at the standard parallels
Q10. On a Lambert conformal conic projection with two standard parallels, the scale is: a) Correct only along the parallel of origin; b) Correct only along the standard parallels; c) Correct only at the poles
b) Correct only along the standard parallels
Q34. On Jeppesen charts, the scale is given in the following manner: a) Representative fraction; b) Graduated scale and statement in words; c) All of the above
c) All of the above
Q35. Nautical mile is more than a statute mile. Statute mile is more than a kilometer: a) Both statements are correct; b) Only kilometer is more than a nautical mile; c) Only statute mile is more than a nautical mile
a) Both statements are correct
Q36. 1000 meters equals: a) 1 nm; b) 0.545 nm; c) 0.545 km
b) 0.545 nm
Q37. Contours are lines drawn on a map or chart joining: a) Places of equal elevation; b) Equal pressure; c) Equal variation
a) Places of equal elevation
Q38. Maps indicate the details of the topography. Pilots can use this for: a) Contact navigation; b) Instrument flying; c) Dead reckoning navigation
a) Contact navigation
Q39. Graticule is the network of meridians and parallels on: a) Earth; b) Maps; c) Both
c) Both
Q40. The scale of a chart is shown as 1:1 million. This means that: a) 1 inch on the chart equals 1 million inches on the Earth; b) 1 cm on the chart represents 1 million centimeters on the Earth; c) Both
c) Both
Q41. Representation of high ground on a projection can be in the form of: a) Contours and form lines; b) Spot heights and layer tinting; c) All the above
c) All the above
Q42. Map distance = 10”. Earth distance = 120 nm. Find scale:
Scale = 1:775,520
Q43. Map distance = 13.2”. Earth distance = 350 nm. Find scale:
Scale = 1:1,934,545
Q44. On a map, 3 cm represents an Earth distance of 200 statute miles. Find the scale of the map:
Scale = 1:10,728,960
Q45. On a map with a scale of 1:2x10⁶, how many km are represented by a line 4.2” long?
213.36 km
Q46. On a map with a scale of 1:1x10⁶, how many inches are represented by a ground distance of 400 km?
15
Q1. Sun will appear at the same latitude: (a) Once a year (b) Twice a year (c) Once a day
(b) Twice a year
Q2. Seasons are due to the: (a) Earth’s elliptical orbit around the Sun (b) Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane (c) Earth’s rotation on its polar axis
(b) Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
Q3. At what approximate date is the Earth furthest from the Sun (aphelion)? (a) Beginning of January (b) End of December (c) Beginning of July
(c) Beginning of July
Q4. At what approximate date is the Earth closest to the Sun (perihelion)? (a) End of June (b) Beginning of July (c) Beginning of January
(c) Beginning of January
Q5. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the Sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at some time during the year? (a) 23° (b) 45° (c) 66°
(a) 23°
Q6. Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the Sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? (a) 72° (b) 68° (c) 66°
(c) 66°
Q7. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of the equator is approximately: (a) 66.5° (b) 23.5° (c) 27.5°
(b) 23.5°
Q8. In its path around the Sun, the axis of the Earth has an inclination: (a) Of 66° 33’ with the plane of the path. (b) Varying between zero and 23° 27’ with the plane of the path. (c) Varying with the season of the year.
(a) Of 66° 33’ with the plane of the path.
Q9. The mean sun: (a) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation. (b) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator. (c) Is the middle position of the sun.
(b) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator.
Q10. The direction of the Earth’s rotation on its axis is such that: (a) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise. (b) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward. (c) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
(a) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.
Q11. When the length of the day is measured with reference to the passage of the apparent sun: (a) The length of the day will be the same once every month. (b) The length of the day will vary with the latitude of the observer. (c) The length of the day will vary in the course of the year.
(c) The length of the day will vary in the course of the year.
Q12. All heavenly bodies rise: (a) In the East. (b) In the West. (c) Some in the East and some in the West depending upon the hemisphere.
(a) In the East.
Q13. The term Aphelion is used to describe: (a) The relative position between the Earth and the Moon. (b) The situation when the distance between the Sun and the Earth is at its longest. (c) The relationship between the length of the day and the length of the night.
(b) The situation when the distance between the Sun and the Earth is at its longest.
Q14. Civil twilight is defined by: (a) Sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon. (b) Sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizon. (c) Sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon.
(c) Sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon.
Q15. The duration of civil twilight is the time: (a) Needed by the Sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°. (b) Between sunset and when the center of the Sun is 12° below the true horizon. (c) Between sunset and when the center of the Sun is 6° below the true horizon.
(c) Between sunset and when the center of the Sun is 6° below the true horizon.
Q16. Atmospheric refraction: (a) Causes the sunrise to occur earlier and the sunset to occur later. (b) Causes the sunrise and the sunset to occur earlier. (c) Causes the sunrise to occur later and the sunset to occur earlier.
(a) Causes the sunrise to occur earlier and the sunset to occur later.
Q17. The times given for sunrise, sunset, morning, and evening twilight in the air almanac: (a) Are given in UTC. (b) Are given in standard time. (c) Are given in LMT.
(a) Are given in UTC.
Q18. Civil twilight is defined by: (a) Sun upper edge tangential to the horizon. (b) Sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon. (c) Sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon.
(b) Sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon.
Q19. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate? (a) Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit around the Sun. (b) Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year. (c) Because the Earth’s orbital speed around the Sun varies according to the time of the year.
(a) Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit around the Sun.
Q20. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the: (a) Relative speed of the Sun along the ecliptic. (b) Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator. (c) Earth’s rotation.
(b) Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator.
Q1. Calculate the d’long between position A 165°W and position B 103°W. Aircraft is flying from A to B: a) 62°E b) 62°W c) 62°N
a) 62°E
Q2. Calculate the d’long between A 165°W and B 170°E. Aircraft is flying from A to B: a) 25°E b) 25°W c) 20°W
b) 25°W
Q3. The distance around the Earth along the Equator and around the meridian and antemeridian is: a) Exactly the same b) Along the Equator is more c) Around the Poles (meridian and its antemeridian) is more
c) Around the Poles (meridian and its antemeridian) is more
Q4. The Earth rotates about its: a) Polar diameter b) Equatorial diameter c) Sometimes around the Polar and sometimes around the Equatorial diameter depending upon the season
a) Polar diameter
Q5. The cardinal points are: a) North, West b) South, East c) All the above
c) All the above
Q6. Graticule is the network of meridians and parallels on: a) Earth b) Maps c) Both
c) Both
Q7. The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about: a) 0° north and south (equator) b) 90° north and south c) 45° north and south
c) 45° north and south
Q8. The ratio of the ellipticity of the earth is 1/297, if the major axis is 6956 km at the equator, what is the minor axis (poles)? a) 6879 km b) 6862 km c) 6932 km
b) 6862 km
Q9. A great circle is any circle on the surface of the Earth whose: a) Radius is the same as that of the Earth b) Plane passes through the center of the Earth c) Both
c) Both
Q10. The shortest distance between any two points on the Earth is defined by: a) A straight line joining the two places on a map b) The shorter arc of the great circle joining the two places c) The rhumb line joining the two places
b) The shorter arc of the great circle joining the two places
Q11. A meridian is a: a) Semi-great circle b) Line joining places of the same latitude c) Semi-great circle joining places of the same longitude
c) Semi-great circle joining places of the same longitude
Q12. For measuring latitude, the datum used is: a) Equator b) Prime meridian c) The Pole
a) Equator
Q13. Latitude is expressed in degrees, minutes, and seconds to the North or South of: a) The Pole b) Equator c) Greenwich meridian
b) Equator
Q14. Place A on 57°N 176°W & Place B 60°N 177°E. Calculate dlong and approximate heading from B to A? a) 351° and 310° b) 7° and 130° c) 7° and 310°
c) 7° and 310°
Q15. The only line on the Earth which is both a Great Circle and a rhumb line is: a) Meridians b) Equator c) Both
b) Equator
Q16. The datum for measuring Longitude is called: a) The Prime Meridian b) The Prime Latitude c) The Equator
a) The Prime Meridian
Q17. The maximum Latitude can be as much as: a) 90° b) 180° c) 360°
a) 90°
Q18. Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of longitude on the Earth: a) Can be distinctly identified when map reading b) Are only imaginary lines and so are not marked on the Earth c) Only global satellites can identify them on the Earth
b) Are only imaginary lines and so are not marked on the Earth
Q19. Point A is 20°30’N and point B 41°30’S. If an aircraft is traveling from A and B, what is the d’lat? a) 21° b) 61° c) 62°
b) 61°
Q20. Earth is a: a) Planet b) Satellite c) Asteroid
a) Planet
Q10. On a Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels the scale is?
a) Correct only along the parallel of origin.
b) Correct only at the poles.
c) Correct only along the standard parallels.
c) Correct only along the standard parallels
Q11. On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the?
a) Meridian of tangency.
b) Prime meridian.
c) Standard latitudes.
a) Meridian of tangency
Q12. On lamberts conical projection, the given scale is correct at _____ and convergence is correct at _____.
a) Latitude of origin, latitude of origin.
b) Latitude of origin, standard Parallels.
c) Standard Parallels, latitude of origin.
b) Latitude of origin
Q13. While measuring track at Lambert conical projection protractor is to be placed at:
a) Latitude of departure.
b) Latitude of arrival.
c) Midway longitude.
c) Midway longitude
Q14. The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal to?
a) Departure angle.
b) Map convergence.
c) Secant of ½ latitude.
b) Map convergence
Q15. On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are?
a) Parallel, equally spaced, horizontal straight lines.
b) Converging curved lines.
c) Parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines.
c) Parallel
Q16. On which of the following chart projections is it not possible to represent the north or south poles?
a) Polar Stereographic.
b) Direct Mercator.
c) Lambert’s Conical.
b) Direct Mercator
Q17. Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct?
a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator.
b) Straight lines.
c) Curves concave to the nearest pole.
a) With the exception of meridians and the equator
Q18. On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart?
a) Increases between and reduces outside of the standard parallels.
b) Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels.
c) Is constant between the standard parallels.
b) Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels
Q19. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole?
a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line.
b) The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to straight line.
c) Never approximate to straight lines.
a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
Q20. Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a polar stereographic chart?
a) Straight lines.
b) Curves concave to the pole.
c) Approximately straight lines.
b) Curves concave to the pole
Q21. What is the value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart?
a) 2.0.
b) 1.5.
c) 1.0.
c) 1.0
Q22. On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are?
a) Straight lines.
b) Curves concave to the nearest pole.
c) Curves convex to the nearest pole.
a) Straight lines
Q23. A perfectly straight line on a Lamberts chart is?
a) A parallel of latitude.
b) A rhumb line.
c) A meridian of longitude.
b) A rhumb line
Q24. Which of the following statements best describes how scale varies on a Mercator chart?
a) It is correct on the standard parallels, but expands outside them, and contracts within them.
b) Expands directly with the secant of the latitude.
c) Expands as the secant (½ x co-latitude).
b) Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
Q25. On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates?
a) 1 : 3,500,000.
b) 1 : 5,000,000.
c) 1 : 4,000,000.
b) 1 : 5
Q26. Where is the convergency correct on a Transverse Mercator chart?
a) At the datum meridian and the Equator.
b) Only at the Equator and poles.
c) Only at the datum meridian.
a) At the datum meridian and the Equator
Q27. In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one of the poles?
a) Stereographic.
b) Direct Mercator.
c) Transverse Mercator.
a) Stereographic
Q28. The scale on a Lambert’s conformal conic chart?
a) Is constant.
b) Is constant along a parallel of latitude.
c) Is constant along a meridian of longitude.
b) Is constant along a parallel of latitude
Q29. The scale is correct on a transverse Mercator chart?
a) Along the datum meridian and meridians at 90° to it.
b) At the prime meridian.
c) Along the great circle of tangency.
a) Along the datum meridian and meridians at 90° to it
Q30. The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the?
a) Scale at the standard parallels.
b) Scale at the parallel of origin.
c) Scale at the poles.
a) Scale at the standard parallels
Q31. What type of projection is generally used for charts used for navigation in North and South polar areas?
a) Lambert’s conformal.
b) Polar stereographical projection.
c) Direct Mercator.
b) Polar stereographical projection
Q32. On a Lambert Conformal conic chart great circle that are not meridians are?
a) Curves concave to the pole of projection.
b) Straight lines within the standard parallels.
c) Curves concave to the parallel of origin.
c) Curves concave to the parallel of origin
Q33. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are?
a) Rhumb lines.
b) Complex curves.
c) Great circle.
a) Rhumb lines
Q24. Sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is? (a) Proportional to the vertical component of the magnetic field of the earth. (b) Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the earth. (c) Inversely proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth. (d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth.
(d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth
Q25. When turning right from 320° (C) to 050° (C) in the Southern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will? (a) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. (b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. (c) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect. (d) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect.
(b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
Q26. An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern hemisphere from 330°C to 040°C. After the turn has been stopped but before the direct indicating magnetic compass settles down, will the compass (1) over-read or under-read, and (2) is this error increased or decreased by liquid swirl? (a) (1) over-read (2) increased. (b) (1) over-read (2) decreased. (c) (1) under-read (2) increased. (d) (1) under-read (2) decreased.
(b) (1) over-read (2) decreased.
Q27. What is magnetic variation? (a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North. (b) The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North. (c) The angle between the direction indicated on the compass and Magnetic North. (d) The angle between True North and Compass North.
(a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North
Q28. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read? (a) 060°. (b) More than 060°. (c) More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used. (d) Less than 060°.
(c) More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used.
Q29. At the magnetic equator? (a) Deviation is zero. (b) The isogonal is an agonic line. (c) Dip is zero. (d) Variation is zero.
(c) Dip is zero
Q30. Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass? (a) T 130 V 2E M 128 -1 D 127. (b) T 130 2E 128 -1 129. (c) T 130 2E 132 -1 133. (d) T 130 2E 132 -1 131.
(a) T 130 V 2E M 128 -1 D 127.
Q31. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field? (a) Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles. (b) Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole. (c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°. (d) Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50° N and 50° S.
(a) Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles.
Q32. What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism? (a) 45°. (b) 60°. (c) 90°. (d) 180°.
(c) 90°.
Q33. Which of the following is correct when the variation is West? (a) True North is East of Magnetic North. (b) Magnetic North is West of Compass North. (c) True North is West of Magnetic North. (d) Compass North is West of Magnetic North.
(a) True North is East of Magnetic North.
Q34. A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an? (a) Agonic line. (b) Aclinic line. (c) Isogonal. (d) Isotach.
(a) Agonic line.
Q35. How is the direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or dead beat? (a) Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly. (b) Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass. (c) Using short magnets. (d) Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires.
(b) Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass.
Q36. Isogonals converge at the? (a) Magnetic equator. (b) North magnetic pole only. (c) North and South magnetic poles only. (d) North and South geographic and magnetic poles.
(d) North and South geographic and magnetic poles.
Q37. Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time? (a) Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase. (b) Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase or decrease. (c) Increases in the magnetic field, cause it to increase. (d) Reductions in the magnetic field, cause it to decrease.
(b) Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase or decrease.
Q38. What is the compass heading if true track is 348°, drift is 17° left, variation is 32° W, and deviation is 4° E? (a) 009°. (b) 033°. (c) 339°. (d) 337°.
(c) 339°.
Q39. The value of magnetic variation? (a) Must be 0° at the magnetic equator. (b) Varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West. (c) Cannot exceed 90°. (d) Has a maximum of 180°.
(d) Has a maximum of 180°.
Q40. At what point on the earth is a magnetic compass most effective? (a) At the geographic equator. (b) Close to the magnetic North Pole. (c) Close to the magnetic South Pole. (d) Approximately midway between the magnetic poles.
(a) At the geographic equator.
Q41. Which of the following is true of the value of magnetic variation? (a) It is 0° at the magnetic equator. (b) It varies between 45° East and 45° West. (c) It cannot exceed 90°. (d) It cannot exceed 180°.
(d) It cannot exceed 180°.
Q42. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read? (a) 225°. (b) Less than 225°. (c) More or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used. (d) More than 225°.
(c) More or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used.
Q43. When using a direct reading magnetic compass in the northern hemisphere? (a) A longitudinal acceleration on a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the South. (b) A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the North. (c) A longitudinal acceleration on a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the North. (d) A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the South.
(b) A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the North.
Q44. What is the main cause of permanent magnetism in aircraft? (a) Electrical currents in internal wiring and electrical storms. (b) Exposure to the terrestrial magnetic field during normal operation. (c) The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the terrestrial magnetic field. (d) Hammering, and the effect of the earth’s magnetic field, whilst under construction.
(d) Hammering, and the effect of the earth’s magnetic field, whilst under construction.
Q45. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? (a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north. (b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. (c) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. (d) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.
(b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
Q46. What is the main advantage of a remote indicating compass compared to a direct reading compass is that it? (a) Has less moving parts. (b) It requires less maintenance. (c) It magnifies the earth’s magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy. (d) It senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian.
(d) It senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian.
Q47. Where do the isogonal lines converge? (a) At the both the North and South Geographic Poles. (b) At both the North and South Magnetic Poles. (c) Only at the Magnetic equator. (d) Only at the Magnetic North Pole.
(b) At both the North and South Magnetic Poles.
Q48. When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? (a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north. (b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south. (c) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south. (d) Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
(a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
Q49. Why are the detector units in slaved gyro compasses usually fitted in or close to the wingtips of an aircraft? (a) In order to isolate the detector unit from the terrestrial magnetic field. (b) In order to reduce or eliminate turning and acceleration errors. (c) Having one detector in each wingtip, cancels out compass deviation. (d) In order to isolate the detector unit from the aircraft deviation sources.
(b) In order to reduce or eliminate turning and acceleration errors.
Q50. Which of the following statements is true of the Earth’s magnetic field? (a) It may be permanent, temporary, transient. (b) It does not affect aircraft deviation. (c) It acts like a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada. (d) The dip angle is between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
(d) The dip angle is between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
Q51. In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by? (a) Positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft. (b) Using a vertically mounted gyroscope. (c) Mounting the detector unit in the wingtip. (d) The use of repeater cards.
(b) Using a vertically mounted gyroscope.
Q52. What is the angle between True North and Magnetic North? (a) Drift. (b) Variation. (c) Dip. (d) Deviation.
(b) Variation.
Q53. An aircraft using a direct reading magnetic compass in the Northern hemisphere starts a Rate 1 turn to the right from 145°C. What will be the indicated heading if it rolls out of the turn after 30 seconds? (a) It is not possible to answer this question using the information given. (b) Greater than 235°. (c) Less than 235°. (d) 235°.
(a) It is not possible to answer this question using the information given.
Q54. The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies? (a) Inversely with the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field. (b) Directly with the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. (c) Directly with the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field. (d) Inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth’s magnetic field.
(b) Directly with the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
Q55. An aircraft’s compass must be swung? (a) If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times. (b) If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering. (c) Every maintenance inspection. (d) After a change of theatre of operations which leads to a change of magnetic longitude.
(d) After a change of theatre of operations which leads to a change of magnetic longitude.
Q56. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole? (a) 90°. (b) 0°. (c) 180°. (d) 64°.
(a) 90°.
Q57. At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct reading compass? a) Under reads. b) The heading indicates a turn to the south. c) Indicates the correct heading. d) Overreads the heading.
a) Under reads.
Q58. What is the name for a line of equal magnetic variation? a) An isocline. b) An isogonal. c) An isogriv. d) An isovar.
b) An isogonal.
Q59. The agonic line? a) Is midway between the magnetic North and South Poles. b) Follows the geographic equator. c) Is the shortest distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South Poles. d) Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe and the other through the USA.
d) Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe and the other through the USA.
Q60. Isogirves are lines that connect positions that have? a) The same variation. b) 0° magnetic dip. c) The same gravitation. d) The same horizontal magnetic field strength.
d) The same horizontal magnetic field strength.
Q61. Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct? a) An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip. b) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic connects places with the same magnetic field strength. c) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip. d) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dip.
c) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip.
Q62. An aircraft is accelerating in the Northern hemisphere heading West. Will a direct reading magnetic compass (1) over-read or under-read and (2) indicate a turn to the north or to the south? a) (1) over-read (2) north. b) (1) over-read (2) south. c) (1) under-read (2) north. d) (1) under-read (2) south.
d) (1) under-read (2) south.
Q63. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading magnetic compass? a) It is lighter. b) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate. c) It senses the earth’s magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive. d) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.
c) It senses the earth’s magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
Q64. Isogirves on a chart indicate lines of? a) Zero magnetic variation. b) Equal magnetic dip. c) Equal horizontal directive force. d) Equal gravitation.
b) Equal magnetic dip.
Q65. Compass deviation is defined as the angle between? a) True North and Compass North. b) The horizontal and the total intensity of the earth’s magnetic field. c) Magnetic North and Compass North. d) True North and Magnetic North.
c) Magnetic North and Compass North.
Q66. Isogonic lines connect positions that have? a) The same angle of magnetic dip. b) The same variation. c) 0° variation. d) The same elevation.
b) The same variation.
Q67. When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to? a) Lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft. b) Indicate a turn towards the south. c) Indicate the correct heading. d) Over-read the heading.
b) Indicate a turn towards the south.
Q68. When is the magnetic compass most effective? a) In the region of the magnetic North Pole. b) On the geographic equator. c) About midway between the magnetic poles. d) In the region of the magnetic South Pole.
c) About midway between the magnetic poles.
Q69. An Agonic line is a line that connects? a) Positions that have 0° variation. b) Points that have the same variation. c) Points of equal magnetic dip. d) Points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength.
a) Positions that have 0° variation.
Q70. A direct reading compass should be swung when? a) The aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings. b) There is large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude. c) There is a large increase in magnetic longitude. d) The aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved.
b) There is large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude.
Q71. The manufacturer of a remote indicating compass system is used when? a) Synchronizing for heading error. b) Compensating for deviation. c) Setting local magnetic variation. d) Setting the heading pointer.
b) Compensating for deviation.
Q72. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by? a) Using long magnets. b) Pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly. c) Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires. d) Using the lowest acceptably viscous compass liquid.
c) Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires.
Q73. The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the? a) Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth’s surface. b) Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth’s surface. c) Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth’s surface. d) Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth’s surface.
d) Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth’s surface.
Q74. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives? a) Magnetic track. b) Compass heading. c) True heading. d) Magnetic course.
b) Compass heading.
Q75. The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called? a) Compass deviation. b) Compass error. c) Magnetic variation. d) Alignment error.
a) Compass deviation.
Q76. Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? a) After an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude. b) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to interference. c) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content. d) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been struck by lightning.
a) After an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude.
Q77. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass? a) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes. b) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes. c) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes. d) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes.
b) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes.
Q78. Which of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared with a standby compass? a) It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the detector unit. b) It is more accurate because it is operated electrically and power is always available from sources within the aircraft. c) It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivity. d) It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector unit, existing aircraft equipment.
c) It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivity.
Q79. Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to? a) Magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decrease. b) Magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase. c) A reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease. d) An increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase.
a) Magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decrease.
Q80. The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth’s surface where? a) The value of magnetic variation equals 90°. b) A freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical. c) Isogonal lines converge. d) A freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal.
b) A freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical.
Q81. The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the wingtip of an airplane is? a) To ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft. b) By fixing detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the aircraft structure. c) To reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits. d) To maximize the unit’s exposure to the earth’s magnetic field.
c) To reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits.
Q82. The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass is that it? a) Requires less maintenance. b) Is able to magnify the earth’s magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy. c) Senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian. d) Has less moving parts.
c) Senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian.
Q83. The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an airplane is to? a) Place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft. b) Reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits. c) Facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth’s magnetic field. d) Place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors.
a) Place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft.
Q84. Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from? a) The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth’s magnetic field. b) The effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms. c) Hammering, and the effect of the earth’s magnetic field, whilst under construction. d) Exposure to the earth’s magnetic field during normal operation.
c) Hammering, and the effect of the earth’s magnetic field, whilst under construction.
Q85. Which of the following statements concerning the earth’s magnetic field is completely correct? a) Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component. b) The pole of the earth’s magnetic field is situated in North Canada. c) The magnetic equator is north or south of the magnetic equator. d) The earth’s magnetic field can be classified as a transient, semi-permanent field.
b) The pole of the earth’s magnetic field is situated in North Canada.
Q86. The lines on the earth’s surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called? a) Isogrives. b) Isochrones. c) Isogonals. d) Isoclines.
c) Isogonals.
Q87. Concerning direct reading MAGNETISM & COMPASSES, in the northern hemisphere, it can be said that? a) On an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the West. b) On a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South. c) On an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North. d) On a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North.
d) On a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North.
Q88. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation? a) Depends on the type of compass installed. b) Depends on the magnetic heading. c) Depends on the true heading. d) Varies slowly over time.
d) Varies slowly over time.
Q89. Isogonals are lines of equal? a) Wind velocity. b) Magnetic variation. c) Compass deviation. d) Pressure.
b) Magnetic variation.
Q90. In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate? a) A heading of East. b) A decrease in heading. c) An increase in heading. d) An apparent turn to the South.
b) A decrease in heading.
Q91. A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that? a) Compass North is East of Magnetic North. b) Compass North is West of Magnetic North. c) True North is East of Magnetic North. d) True North is West of Magnetic North.
b) Compass North is West of Magnetic North.
Q92. The purpose of compass check swing is to?
a) Cancel out the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
b) Cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields on board the aircraft.
c) Measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass North.
d) Cancel out the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field.
b) Cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields on board the aircraft
Q93. You are turning from 330° to 60° in the northern hemisphere. At the time that you stop the turn, but before the compass settles down, will the compass over-read or under-read, and will liquid swirl tend to increase or decrease the error (if)?
a) (1) Over-read (2) Decrease.
b) (1) Over-read (2) Increase.
c) (1) Under-read (2) Decrease.
d) (1) Under-read (2) Increase.
d) (1) Under-read (2) Increase
Q94. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a) Inversely proportional to the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field.
b) Directly proportional to the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field.
c) Directly proportional to the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field.
d) Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
d) Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
Q95. The magnitude of variation?
a) Has a maximum of 90°.
b) Is zero at the equator.
c) Cannot exceed 90°.
d) Has a maximum value of 45° or 45°W.
a) Has a maximum of 90°
Q96. Which of the following statements about the earth’s magnetic field is most accurate?
a) It has no effect on aircraft deviation.
b) It may be permanent, temporary or transient.
c) It acts as if there were a large magnetic pole in northern Canada.
d) The dip angle is the angle between the total magnetic field and the earth horizontal.
d) The dip angle is the angle between the total magnetic field and the earth horizontal
Q97. At the magnetic equator?
a) Variation is zero.
b) Deviation is zero.
c) Dip is zero.
d) The agonic line is also an isogonal line.
c) Dip is zero
Q98. If there is a 10 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3° glide slope?
a) It must be increased by 30 ft/min.
b) It must be decreased by 30 ft/min.
c) It must be decreased by 50 ft/min.
d) It must be increased by 50 ft/min.
a) It must be increased by 30 ft/min
Q99. At what approximate distance from the threshold would an aircraft intercept the glide path if the aircraft height is 2500 feet, and the ILS glide path angle is 3°?
a) 7.3 nm.
b) 7.8 nm.
c) 14.5 nm.
d) 13.5 nm.
b) 7.8 nm
Q100. Convert 70 metres/second into knots?
a) 35 kts.
b) 55 kts.
c) 65 kts.
d) 136 kts.
d) 136 kts
A great circle on the Earth running from the North Pole to the South Pole is called?
a) A meridian.
b) A longitude.
c) A difference of longitude.
d) A parallel of latitude.
a) A meridian.
The distance along the meridian between 63°55’N and 13°47’S is?
a) 5662 nm.
b) 6065 nm.
c) 7003 nm.
d) 7035 nm.
b) 6065 nm.
What is the length of one degree of longitude at latitude 60°S?
a) 30 nm.
a) 30 nm.
How does the convergence of any two meridians on the Earth change with varying latitude?
a) It decreases with a decrease of latitude.
b) It changes with the cosine of latitude.
c) It is constant value and does not change with latitude.
d) It changes with the sine of latitude.
b) It changes with the cosine of latitude.
Which statement about meridians is correct?
a) The plane of a meridian is parallel to the equator.
b) All meridians are parallel with the meridian at Greenwich.
c) A meridian and its anti-meridian form a complete great circle.
d) A meridian forms a complete great circle.
c) A meridian and its anti-meridian form a complete great circle.
When flying on a constant great circle tracking the southern hemisphere, you will:
a) Experience an increase in value of true track.
b) Experience a decrease in value of true track.
c) Fly a spiral and finally end up at the South Pole.
d) Always have the rhumb line track between the departure point and the destination to the left of your great circle track.
a) Experience an increase in value of true track.
CIRCLES 1. A great circle on the Earth running from the North Pole to the South Pole is called?
A meridian
CIRCLES 5. What are the occasions where the rhumb line track and the great circle track coincide on the surface of the Earth?
On east-west tracks in the northern hemisphere north of the magnetic equator
CIRCLES 7. The distance along the meridian between 63°55’N and 13°47’S is?
5662 nm
CIRCLES 9. Variation at an NDB = 9°W. Variation at the aircraft = 10.1°. The true track of the great circle to the NDB from the aircraft is 101.4. The magnetic bearing of the NDB from the aircraft is?
112.5
CIRCLES 18. If you are flying along a parallel of latitude
you are flying?
CIRCLES 20. When flying on a constant great circle tracking the southern hemisphere you will?
Experience an increase in value of true track
CIRCLES 27. Which statement about meridians is correct?
The plane of a meridian is parallel to the equator
CIRCLES 37. What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60°N 030°W 070°T South for 3600 NM
East for 3600 NM
CIRCLES 47. The “departure” between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 1°E is 1800 NM East. What is the longitude of “x”?
145°E
CIRCLES 55. What is a rhumb line?
The vertices of a conformal polyformic projection
CIRCLES 58. On a Direct Mercator chart
a rhumb line appears as a?
