Daily Revision Questions

Question 1

1_The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth’s surface where a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical b) A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal c) A position where the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is a maximum d) The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees

Answer 1

a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical

Question 2

2_The direction of True North for any observer is a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole b) The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation c) The direction of the Greenwich meridian to the North Pole d) The direction of the observer’s magnetic north corrected for local variation

Answer 2

a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole

Question 3

3_If the Compass Heading is 265 degrees variation is 33 degrees west and deviation is 3 degrees east what is the True Heading a) 229 degrees b) 235 degrees c) 225 degrees d) 231 degrees

Answer 3

b) 235 degrees

Question 4

4_Given Compass Heading = 233 True Track = 256 Drift angle = 10 degrees right Deviation = -3 degrees What is the variation a) 16 degrees East b) 10 degrees East c) 10 degrees West d) 20 degrees West

Answer 4

a) 16 degrees East

Question 5

5_The fix of the aircraft position is determined by radials from three VOR stations The measurements contain small random errors known as systematic errors and unknown systematic errors The measured radials are corrected for known systematic errors and plotted on a navigation chart What is the most probable position of the aircraft a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Answer 5

c) 3

Question 6

6_An NDB is located at position (S 26 W 005 42) The variation at the NDB is 6W The position of the aircraft is (S 60 W 010 00W) The variation at the aircraft position is 11W The initial TT of the great circle from the aircraft position to the NDB position is 1015 degrees What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB from the aircraft a) 1085 b) 1145 c) 1105 d) 1125

Answer 6

a) 1085

Question 7

7_Given True Track 245 degrees Drift 5 degrees right Compass Heading 242 Calculate the deviation a) 5 degrees west b) 5 degrees east c) 1 degree east d) 1 degree west

Answer 7

d) 1 degree west

Question 8

8_Deviation on the standby compass is a) Positive if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North b) Negative if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North c) Zero at all times d) None of the above

Answer 8

b) Negative if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North

Question 9

9_Which of the following variables affect deviation a) Magnetic latitude b) Aircraft heading c) Aircraft altitude d) Aircraft electronic equipment

Answer 9

d) Aircraft electronic equipment

Question 10

10_Given True Track = 245 Drift = 5 degrees right Variation = 3 degrees west Compass heading = 242 degrees Magnetic heading = a) 237 degrees b) 247 degrees c) 245 degrees d) 243 degrees

Answer 10

a) 237 degrees

Question 11

11_Given Variation = 6W Signal lines Jan 2002 Average annual increase 10 minutes Calculate the variation in 2005 a) 65 degrees west b) 55 degrees west c) 63 degrees west d) 53 degrees west

Answer 11

c) 63 degrees west

Question 12

12_Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent b) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a non-permanent nature c) Hard iron magnetism is non-permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is permanent d) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a permanent nature

Answer 12

a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent

Question 13

13_The direction of magnetic north at a certain position coincides with the direction of a) The great circle to the magnetic north pole b) The isogonic line to the magnetic north pole c) The isoclinic line to the magnetic north pole d) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field

Answer 13

a) The great circle to the magnetic north pole

Question 14

14_You are tracking the 090 degree radial inbound to a VOR and your true heading is 060 degrees At the VOR you track the 090 radial outbound and are showing a 6DME The variation is +5 and the TAS is 240 knots What is the WV that has affected the aircraft a) 310/45 knots b) 325/50 knots c) 310/50 knots d) 325/45 knots

Answer 14

b) 325/50 knots

Question 15

15_In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by the aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by a) Mounting the detector unit (flux valve) in the wingtip b) Mounting the flux valve in the cockpit c) Positioning the gyro scope in the center of the aircraft d) Using a vertically mounted gyro instead of a horizontally mounted one

Answer 15

c) Positioning the gyro scope in the center of the aircraft

Question 16

16_Near the magnetic pole a) The vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass b) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass c) Variation is maximally affected by magnetic poles d) Magnetic inclination is minimally affected near magnetic poles

Answer 16

b) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass

Question 17

17_The long term periodic change in the Earth’s Magnetic Field is a) Reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles b) Caused by major excavations near the magnetic poles c) Caused by sunspot activity d) Caused by supernova explosions

Answer 17

a) Reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles

Question 18

18_The directive force a) Is the component of the Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle b) Equals the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field c) Is zero at the geographic poles d) Is about twice as strong at 60°N as on the equator

Answer 18

a) Is the component of the Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle

Question 19

19_The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field a) Is minimum at the magnetic equator b) Is very small close to the magnetic poles c) Is maximum at the magnetic poles d) Increases with an increase in magnetic latitude

Answer 19

b) Is very small close to the magnetic poles

Question 20

20_The direction Magnetic North at a position on the earth is a) The direction to the magnetic north pole b) The angle between the position and the magnetic north pole c) The direction of the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at that position d) The compass north at that position corrected for variation

Answer 20

c) The direction of the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at that position

Question 21

21_A definition of a magnetic track angle is a) The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north b) The direction of a longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north c) The direction of a line referenced to isogonic line to the magnetic north pole d) Compass north

Answer 21

c) The direction of a longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north

Question 22

22_With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the a) Angle of dip b) Directive force c) Total magnetic force of the Earth’s magnetic field d) Vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field

Answer 22

b) Directive force

Question 23

23_When descending on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south c) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north d) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north

Answer 23

b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south

Question 24

24_Sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is a) Proportional to the vertical component of the magnetic field of the earth b) Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the earth c) Inversely proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth

Answer 24

d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth

Question 25

25_The turning right from 320°(C) to 050°(C) in the Southern hemisphere the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will a) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect c) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect d) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect

Answer 25

b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

Question 26

26_An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern hemisphere from 330° to 060° After the turn has been stopped but before the director indicating compass settles down will the compass 1) Over-read or under-read 2) and (3) Its error increased or decreased by liquid swirl a) Over-read increased b) Over-read decreased c) Under-read decreased d) Under-read increased

Answer 26

c) Under-read decreased

Question 27

27_What is magnetic variation a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North b) The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North c) The angle between the direction indicated on the compass and Magnetic North d) The angle between True North and Compass North

Answer 27

a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North

Question 28

28_An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/left If the initial heading was 330° after 30 seconds of turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read a) 060° b) More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used c) Less than 060° d) More than 060°

Answer 28

d) More than 060°

Question 29

29_How is the direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or dead beat a) By using a pendulous suspension system for the compass card b) Using the lowest possible weight for the compass card c) By using a counterweight to oppose the tilt of the compass d) Using a liquid filled container to dampen oscillations

Answer 29

d) Using a liquid filled container to dampen oscillations

Question 30

30_Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass a) 130 2W 127 b) 130 2E 132 c) 130 5W 125 d) 130 3W 133

Answer 30

a) 130 2W 127

Question 31

31_The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field a) Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles b) Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60° d) Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50° and 59°

Answer 31

c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°

Question 32

32_What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism a) 45° b) 50° c) 60° d) 90°

Answer 32

d) 90°

Question 33

33_Which of the following is correct when the variation is West a) True North is East of Magnetic North b) Magnetic North is West of Compass North c) True North is West of Magnetic North d) Compass North is West of Magnetic North

Answer 33

a) True North is East of Magnetic North

Question 34

34_A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an a) Agonic line b) Aclinic line c) Isogonic line d) Isotach

Answer 34

a) Agonic line

Question 35

Wavelength is the distance from Option A Wave crest to wave crest Option B Through the next wave crest Option C The E and H fields superimposed onto the system Reactance Background Scatter Option D Wave crest to next trough

Answer 35

Option A Wave crest to wave crest

Question 36

The emission characteristics A3E describe Option A ILS Option B VOR Option C VHF communications Option D HF communications

Answer 36

Option C VHF communications

Question 37

Electromagnetic wave travels at Option A Speed of sound Option B 3 lakh meters per second Option C Speed of light Option D 162000 miles per hour

Answer 37

Option C Speed of light

Question 38

In regard to radio what does the term frequency mean Option A The number of waveforms in 1 hour Option B The number of complete waveform passing a point in 1 second Option C The speed of radio waves in meter per second Option D The length of a complete waveform in meters

Answer 38

Option B The number of complete waveform passing a point in 1 second

Question 39

The Automatic Direction Finder ADF uses the following wavelength Option A Metric Option B Decimetric Option C Centimetric Option D Hectometric or Kilometric

Answer 39

Option D Hectometric or Kilometric

Question 40

According to ICAO Annexure 10 in which frequency band does the locator transmit Option A HF Option B LF or MF Option C HF or VHF Option D MF or HF

Answer 40

Option B LF or MF

Question 41

The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths Option A Hectometric Option B Decimetric Option C Metric Option D Centimetric

Answer 41

Option C Metric

Question 42

The ILS instrument landing system uses the following wavelengths Option A Hectometric Option B Decimetric Option C Metric Option D Centimetric

Answer 42

Option C Metric

Question 43

The frequency band for the automatic direction finder is Option A Hectometric Option B Decimetric Option C Metric Option D Centimetric

Answer 43

Option A Hectometric

Question 44

The microwave landing system the MLS uses the following wavelengths Option A Myriametric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 44

Option D Centimetric

Question 45

To what range does ILS localizer wavelength fall Option A Kilometric Option B Metric Option C Nanometric Option D Millimetric

Answer 45

Option B Metric

Question 46

The transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 m is in which frequency band Option A MF Option B LF Option C HF Option D VHF

Answer 46

Option C HF

Question 47

The distance measuring equipment DME uses the following wavelengths Option A Decimetric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 47

Option A Decimetric

Question 48

The VHF Omni-Range VOR uses the following wavelengths Option A Decimetric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 48

Option B Metric

Question 49

What is the wavelength of the ILS localizer signal Option A Myriametric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 49

Option B Metric

Question 50

What is the wavelength of VOR Option A Decimetric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 50

Option B Metric

Question 51

Frequency is defined as Option A Number of complete cycles recurring in 1 unit of time Option B Distance between crest and crest Option C Number of complete cycles recurring in 10 units of time Option D Distance from axis to peak value

Answer 51

Option A Number of complete cycles recurring in 1 unit of time

Question 52

A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm The facility could be dash operating on a frequency of dash Option A VDF 135 MHz Option B DME 1350 MHz Option C Doppler 13500 MHz Option D Radioalternative 13500 KHz

Answer 52

Option C Doppler 13500 MHz

Question 53

The Marker Beacon uses the following wavelengths Option A Myriametric Option B Metric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 53

Option B Metric

Question 54

The Secondary Surveillance Radar SSR uses the following wavelengths Option A Myriametric Option B Decimetric Option C Hectometric Option D Centimetric

Answer 54

Option B Decimetric

Question 55

The low-altitude radio altimeter i.e. RADALT uses the following wavelengths Option A Decimetric Option B Metric Option C Myriametric Option D Centimetric

Answer 55

Option D Centimetric

Question 56

The Radio Transmitter Modulator Option A Tunes the aerial only Option B Ensures receiver capability Option C Couples the RF signal to an aerial Option D Superimposes an audio frequency signal AF onto a radio frequency signal RF

Answer 56

Option D Superimposes an audio frequency signal AF onto a radio frequency signal RF

Question 57

The VHF frequency band is in the Option A 3-30 kHz range Option B 30-300 kHz range Option C 3-30 MHz range Option D 30-300 MHz range

Answer 57

Option D 30-300 MHz range

Question 58

Decimetric waves correspond to a frequency of Option A 300-3000 kHz Option B 3000-30000 kHz Option C 300-3000 MHz Option D 3000-30000 MHz

Answer 58

Option C 300-3000 MHz

Question 59

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of Option A 100 m to 10 m Option B 1 m to 100 cm Option C 10 m to 1 m Option D 100 cm to 10 cm

Answer 59

Option C 10 m to 1 m

Question 60

A horizontally polarized electromagnetic wave Option A Has the E field horizontal Option B Has the E field vertical Option C Has the Z field horizontal Option D Has the H field horizontal

Answer 60

Option A Has the E field horizontal

Question 61

Which of the following statement is correct in respect to a RF signal Option A The plane of polarization is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter Option B The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the areal Option C The magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the areal Option D Both the electrical component and the magnetic component of the signal are parallel to the areal

Answer 61

Option B The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the areal

Question 62

A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by dash areal Option A Vertical Option B Horizontal Option C Parabolic Option D Magnetic

Answer 62

Option A Vertical

Question 63

An electromagnetic wave has two types of energy field Option A An H-electrical field and an E-magnetic field Option B A Z-electrical field and an H-magnetic field Option C A Z-magnetic field and an E-electrical field Option D An E-electrical field and an H-magnetic field

Answer 63

Option D An E-electrical field and an H-magnetic field

Question 64

Skip distance is the ______ from the transmitter to the ______ returning sky wave Option A Thickness of ionosphere Option B Highest critical frequency distance Option C Range from the transmitter to the first returning sky wave Option D Wavelength distance of a certain frequency

Answer 64

Option C Range from the transmitter to the first returning sky wave

Question 65

Diffraction of an RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to ______ Option A Passing through ionized regions of the upper atmosphere Option B Reflection from the surface Option C Passing over or through mediums of different conductivity Option D Passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength

Answer 65

Option D Passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength

Question 66

Using a medium frequency band when is fading likely to occur Option A Night with sky and ground waves Option B Night time when snowing Option C Day time when snowing Option D Day with Sky and Ground Waves

Answer 66

Option A Night with sky and ground waves

Question 67

Complete the following statement ______ radio signals have a ______ range by ______ wave over ______ then over ______ Option A MF shorter sky sea land Option B MF greater ground sea land Option C VHF shorter sky sea land Option D MF greater ground land sea

Answer 67

Option B MF greater ground sea land

Question 68

The frequency at which sky waves should least affect reception Option A VLF Option B VLF Option C MF Option D HF

Answer 68

Option A VLF

Question 69

The skip distance of HF transmissions will increase with ______ Option A Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer Option B Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer Option C Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer Option D Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer

Answer 69

Option C Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer

Question 70

Attenuation is a generic term for ______ Option A Loss of power but is only relevant to space waves Option B Increase in power Option C Reflection Option D Loss of power

Answer 70

Option D Loss of power

Question 71

Reflection from ionospheric layers is used in the following radio frequencies Option A VLF Option B HF Option C VHF Option D UHF

Answer 71

Option B HF

Question 72

MF fading is most common ______ Option A During the day due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves Option B During the day and during heavy rain Option C At night and during heavy rain Option D At night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves

Answer 72

Option D At night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves

Question 73

As the frequency of a transmitter is increased the range of the ground wave will ______ Option A Increase Option B Decrease Option C Decrease by night only Option D Increase over the sea

Answer 73

Option B Decrease

Question 74

Skip distance is longest by ______ and with a ______ frequency Option A Day low Option B Day high Option C Night low Option D Night high

Answer 74

Option D Night high

Question 75

Attenuation of a radio wave is the ______ Option A Reduction of its power by absorption scattering or spreading Option B Increase of its power by a combination of multipath signals Option C Change of its frequency by use of sidebands Option D Change of amplitude by use of sidebands

Answer 75

Option A Reduction of its power by absorption scattering or spreading

Question 76

The refraction of an electromagnetic radiation is ______ Option A Loss of power through reflection from objects Option B The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity Option C The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity Option D Bending resultant from reflection from objects

Answer 76

Option B The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity

Question 77

Which statement is true ______ Option A The lower the frequency the greater the ionospheric attenuation Option B The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over land than over ice Option C The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 GHz Option D None of the above options are true

Answer 77

Option A The lower the frequency the greater the ionospheric attenuation

Question 78

Attenuation of radio waves means ______ Option A The weakening of radiated waves Option B The atmospheric bending of waves Option C Only the scattering of waves in the troposphere Option D Only the absorption of energy by the sea

Answer 78

Option A The weakening of radiated waves

Question 79

When an LF radio wave passes over the Earth's surface it ______ Option A Speeds up picks up electrons and becomes stronger Option B Slows down picks up electrons and becomes stronger Option C Slows down and is attenuated Option D Speeds up and is attenuated

Answer 79

Option C Slows down and is attenuated

Question 80

To establish and maintain effective HF communication frequency at a given range ______ Option A Should be decreased at night Option B Should be increased at night Option C Should remain constant Option D Should only be varied by season decreased in summer and increased in winter

Answer 80

Option A Should be decreased at night

Question 81

A radio signal loses strength as the range from the transmitter increases This effect is called ______ Option A Ducting Option B Amplification Option C Attenuation Option D Refraction

Answer 81

Option C Attenuation

Question 82

In the propagation of MF waves the phenomena of fading is particularly found ______ Option A By day and when raining Option B At night and when raining Option C By day due to combination of sky waves and ground waves Option D At night due to combination of sky waves and ground waves

Answer 82

Option D At night due to combination of sky waves and ground waves

Question 83

Fading happens ______ Option A In daytime when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other Option B At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other Option C At night when the signal is received by ground waves only Option D At daytime when the signal is received by sky waves only

Answer 83

Option B At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other

Question 84

Which of the following statement is true ______ Option A A transmission's bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial Option B Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce the noise Option C A narrow bandwidth improves beam width Option D Broad bandwidth gives narrow beam width

Answer 84

Option B Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce the noise

Question 85

Diffraction is a process by which ______ Option A A direct wave is bent around the form of Earth Option B A space wave penetrates the ionosphere Option C Radio wave travels over and around objects Option D A ground wave is attenuated over rough ground

Answer 85

Option C Radio wave travels over and around objects

Question 86

Which is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be guaranteed ______ Option A 3 MHz Option B 30 MHz Option C 300 MHz Option D 3 GHz

Answer 86

Option B 30 MHz

Question 87

An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that reflects from the E layer in ionosphere The maximum distance of the first returning sky wave is ______ Option A 599 km Option B 1500 km Option C 599 nautical miles Option D 1500 nautical miles

Answer 87

Option B 1500 km

Question 88

The approximately maximum range of ground waves of LF and MF are by day ______ and ______ respectively with ______ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation Option A 1500 nautical miles 1000 nautical miles MF Option B 1000 nautical miles 500 nautical miles LF Option C 1000 nautical miles 300 nautical miles MF Option D 500 nautical miles 100 nautical miles LF

Answer 88

Option C 1000 nautical miles 300 nautical miles MF

Question 89

VDF accuracy may be decreased by ______ Option A Diurnal variation Option B Site and propagation errors Option C Night effect Option D Caustic effect

Answer 89

Option B Site and propagation errors

Question 90

An aircraft is homing to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative veering of zero If magnetic heading increases the aircraft is experiencing ______ Option A Right drift Option B Left drift Option C Zero drift Option D A wind from the west

Answer 90

Option B Left drift

Question 91

What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown ______ Option A VHF radio Option B VOR Option C None Option D VOR or DME

Answer 91

Option A VHF radio

Question 92

Which of the following is an advantage of ground or VDF letdown ______ Option A It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft Option B It is pilot-interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC Option C It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft Option D It does not require any special equipment as part from the VHF radio to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground

Answer 92

Option A It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

Question 93

In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding VDF likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position ______ Option A On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary Option B When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR Option C When declaring an emergency on any frequency Option D When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

Answer 93

Option D When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

Question 94

What is VDF referenced to ______ Option A Relative bearing to the aircraft Option B True north at the aircraft Option C Magnetic north at the station Option D Magnetic north at the aircraft

Answer 94

Option C Magnetic north at the station

Question 95

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 nautical miles i.e. NM By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 nautical miles ______ Option A VDF Direction Finder Option B Vary Direction Finder Option C Very High Frequency Deviation Finding Station Option D VHF Direction Finder

Answer 95

Option D VHF Direction Finder

Question 96

To provide a pilot with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar ATC must have at its disposal at least ______ Option A 2 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency Option B 3 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies Option C 2 located VDFs able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency Option D 1 VDF able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies

Answer 96

Option A 2 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency

Question 97

Range of VDF depends on ______ 1. Line of sight formula 2. Power of transmitter 3. Intervening high ground The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is Option A 2 Option B 1 2 and 3 Option C 1 and 2 Option D 1 and 3

Answer 97

Option B 1, 2, 3

Question 98

The range of VDF depends on ______ 1. Loudness of voices of the pilots and the operator when transmitting 2. Power of airborne and ground transmitters 3. Power of pilot voice when transmitting 4. Aircraft altitude and ground transmitter 5. The combination regrouping all of the correct statement is ______ Option A 2 and 4 Option B 2 Option C 1 Option D 3 and 4",

Answer 98

Option A 2 and 4

Question 99

One of the uses of the VDF is providing aircraft with ______ Option A Ground speed Option B Homing Option C Altitude Option D Heading

Answer 99

Option B Homing

Question 100

A VDF may be used ______ Option A To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar Option B In emergency type situations when aircraft is unable to transmit on VHF radio Option C In combination with radar to solve a 180-degree ambiguity Option D In lieu of ILS for precision approach purposes

Answer 100

Option A To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar

Question 101

What is the effect of multipath signals coming from the same aircraft at the ground VHF direction finding station ______ Option A It reduces the range at which the ground VDF direction finder station receives signals from the aircraft Option B Regardless of the difference in distance travelled by these signals it results in their extinction of the signals at the ground VHF direction finder station Option C It may result in an increase in the distance at which the ground VDF direction finder station receives signals from the aircraft if the ground station is situated in the skip zone Option D They may result in bearing errors

Answer 101

Option D They may result in bearing errors

Question 102

In flight a pilot can improve the range of transmission with a VHF operator by ______ Option A Speaking louder Option B Flying out of clouds Option C Increasing altitude Option D Decreasing altitude

Answer 102

Option C Increasing altitude

Question 103

An aircraft is homing to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative peering of zero If the magnetic heading decreases the aircraft is experiencing ______ Option A Right drift Option B Left drift Option C Zero drift Option D A wind from the west

Answer 103

Option A Right drift

Question 104

Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels caused by ______ Option A Efficient VDF antennas Option B Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to 1 being used by the VDF station Option C Super-reflection of the signals in the atmosphere Option D The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft

Answer 104

Option C Super-reflection of the signals in the atmosphere

Question 105

In VDF service the report QDR 235 Class C means ______ Option A The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 ± 10 degrees Option B The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 15 degrees Option C The true bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees Option D The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees

Answer 105

Option D The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees

Question 106

If when you are requesting a QDM from an aircraft you are offered with QGH it means ______ Option A The service will be limited to the bearings No position will be given by the DF station Option B The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield based on VDF bearings Option C The VDF service will be handled by a different DF unit operating on the same frequency Option D The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level

Answer 106

Option B The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield based on VDF bearings

Question 107

Which Q code would give you magnetic heading from the VDF station ______ Option A QDM Option B QDR Option C QUJ Option D QTE

Answer 107

Option B QDR

Question 108

Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station ______ Option A QDM Option B QDR Option C QUJ Option D QTE

Answer 108

Option D QTE

Question 109

Which Q code would give a magnetic heading to steer in nil wind to a VDF station ______ Option A QDM Option B QDR Option C QUJ Option D QTE

Answer 109

Option A QDM

Question 110

With reference to a VDF bearing the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is ______ Option A QUJ Option B QTE Option C QDR Option D QDM

Answer 110

Option B QTE

Question 111

If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus your true heading is 256 degrees class alpha ______ Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees Option B QTE accurate to ±5 degrees Option C QDR accurate to ±2 degrees Option D QUK accurate to ±3 degrees

Answer 111

Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees

Question 112

What is QTE ______ Option A Magnetic track to the station Option B Magnetic track from the station Option C True track from the station Option D True track to the station

Answer 112

Option C True track from the station

Question 113

VDF measures the bearing of aircrafts with ______ Option A Reference to aircraft with relative bearing Option B Reference to true and magnetic north at the station Option C Reference to the true and magnetic north at the aircraft Option D Reference to magnetic north at the aircraft

Answer 113

Option B Reference to the true and magnetic north at the station

Question 114

The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within ______ Option A ±1° Option B ±5° Option C ±3° Option D ±2°

Answer 114

Option B ±5°

Question 115

When would VDF be used for a position fix ______ Option A When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz Option B When the aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency Option C When first talking to an FIR on crossing an international boundary Option D When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace

Answer 115

Option A When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz

Question 116

What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted on order that a VDF letdown be flown ______ Option A VOR slash DME Option B VHF radio Option C None Option D VOR

Answer 116

Option B VHF radio

Question 117

An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must ______ Option A Within 10 nautical miles of the VDF aerial Option B Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established Option C Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit Option D Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the bearing

Answer 117

Option B Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established

Question 118

What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown ______ Option A None Option B VOR Option C VOR slash DME Option D VHF radio

Answer 118

Option D VHF radio

Question 119

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of VHF direction finder is ______ Option A VHF transmitter receiver operating on 118MHz to 136MHz range Option B VHF compass operating in 200MHz to 1750KHz range Option C Cathode ray tube Option D VHF receiver operating in 118MHz to 136MHz range

Answer 119

Option A VHF transmitter receiver operating on 118MHz to 136MHz range

Question 120

When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with ______ Option A The Controller The Controller Option B The Pilot The Pilot Option C The Pilot The Controller Option D The Controller The Pilot

Answer 120

Option D The Controller The Pilot

Question 121

The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by ______ Option A Intensity of ionization Option B Surface type Option C Aircraft height Option D Time of day

Answer 121

Option C Aircraft height

Question 122

What is the purpose of ground direction finder ______ Option A To map airfields Option B To aid ground movements Option C To aid pilot navigation Option D To assist planners in the construction of airfield approaches

Answer 122

Option C To aid pilot navigation

Question 123

Which of the following affects VDF range ______ Option A Coastal reflection Option B Height of transmitter and receiver Option C Strength of pilot voice when transmitted Option D Skywave propagation

Answer 123

Option B Height of transmitter and receiver

Question 124

Ground direction finding at Aerodrome utilizes which frequencies ______ Option A VHF at Civil Aerodromes VHF at Military Aerodromes Option B VHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes Option C UHF at Civil Aerodromes VHF at Military Aerodromes Option D UHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes

Answer 124

Option B VHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes

Question 125

In the VDF system direction antennas are used ______ Option A At the ground installation Option B In the aircraft Option C In the aircraft and at the ground installation Option D No direction antennas are used

Answer 125

Option A At the ground installation

Question 126

The pilot of an aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should ______ Option A Avoid banking when transmitting Option B Not pass over at VDF station Option C Transmit on 121.5 MHz Option D Ensure that radio silence is maintained

Answer 126

Option A Avoid banking when transmitting

Question 127

Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding VDF is most accurate ______ Option A It is simple and only require a VHF radio on the ground Option B It is simple and require a VHF radio and direction finding equipment in the aircraft Option C It is simple and require a VHF radio on the ground and in the aeroplane Option D It uses line-of-sight propagation

Answer 127

Option D It uses line-of-sight propagation

Question 128

Which of the following is an advantage of VDF ______ Option A No equipment is required in the aircraft Option B No special equipment is required in the aircraft or on the ground Option C Only a VHF radio is required at the aircraft Option D It is pilot interpreted So ATC is not required

Answer 128

Option C Only a VHF radio is required at the aircraft

Question 129

With reference to the ground DF the controller can refuse to give a bearing if ______ Option A The requesting aircraft is not from the consenting country Option B The pilot does not use prescribed terminology Option C Conditions are poor and bearing do not fall at station's classification limits Option D None of the above

Answer 129

Option C Conditions are poor and bearing do not fall at station's classification limits

Question 130

When aircraft receives a class A true bearing from the VDF station this is ______ Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees Option B QUJ accurate to ±2 degrees Option C QUJ accurate to ±5 degrees Option D QTE accurate to ±5 degrees

Answer 130

Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees

Question 131

A class C magnetic heading is received from the station This is ______ Option A QUJ Accurate to ±5 degrees Option B QDM Accurate to ±10 degrees Option C QTE Accurate to ±5 degrees Option D QDR Accurate to ±10 degrees

Answer 131

Option D QDR Accurate to ±10 degrees

Question 132

When the pilot is conducting a QDM QGH approach he will require ______ Option A No operator on the ground for either VDF or QGH approach Option B An operator on the ground only for VDF procedure Option C An operator on the ground only for QGH procedure Option D An operator on the ground for both VDF and QGH procedures

Answer 132

Option D An operator on the ground for both VDF and QGH procedures

Question 133

The VDF homer service provides ______ Option A Accurate bearings on demand Option B Bearings which may be affected by synchronous transmissions Option C A QGH procedure to transmit aircraft to transiting aircraft Option D Bearings which will normally be within ±5 degrees accurately to a 20 nautical mile range

Answer 133

Option D Bearings which will normally be within ±5 degrees accurately to a 20 nautical mile range

Question 134

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction finder is ______ Option A VHF compass operating in 500 kHz to 1000 kHz range Option B Coarse deviation indicator DI Option C VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range Option D VHF transmitter receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range

Answer 134

Option D VHF transmitter receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range

Question 135

Class B bearing has accuracy limits of ± ______ Option A 2 degrees Option B 3 degrees Option C 5 degrees Option D 7 degrees

Answer 135

Option C 5 degrees

Question 136

VDF for aeronautical use provides service in frequency range ______ Option A 108 to 118 MHz Option B 108 to 136 MHz Option C 118 to 136 MHz Option D 130 to 300 MHz

Answer 136

Option C 118 to 136 MHz

Question 137

In flight a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by ______ Option A Increasing altitude Option B Decreasing altitude Option C Speaking louder Option D Flying out of clouds

Answer 137

Option A Increasing altitude

Question 138

What is the Q code for magnetic bearing from VDF station ______ Option A QNH Option B QTE Option C QDR Option D QDM

Answer 138

Option C QDR

Question 139

A negative westerly magnetic variation signifies that ______ Option A True North is East of Magnetic North Option B True North is West of Magnetic North Option C Magnetic North is West of Compass North Option D Magnetic North is East of Compass North

Answer 139

Option A True North is East of Magnetic North

Question 140

A nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is ______ Option A Scale at the standard parallels Option B Scale at the equator Option C Scale at the midway point between two standard parallels Option D Everywhere on the chart

Answer 140

Option C Scale at the midway point between two standard parallels

Question 141

A positive or easterly magnetic variation signifies that ______ Option A True North is East of Magnetic North Option B True North is West of Magnetic North Option C Magnetic North is West of Compass North Option D Magnetic North is East of Compass North

Answer 141

Option B True North is West of Magnetic North

Question 142

The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on ______ Option A Lambert's Conformal Option B Transverse Mercator Option C Stereographical Projection Option D Direct Mercator

Answer 142

Option C Stereographical Projection

Question 143

On a Lambert Conformal conic chart the convergence of a meridian is ______ Option A Same as Earth Convergency at Parallel of Origin Option B Same as the Scale Option C Most Accurate at Standard Parallels Option D Least Accurate at Parallel of Origin

Answer 143

Option A Same as Earth Convergency at Parallel of Origin

Question 144

On a Direct Mercator chart a rumb line appears as ______ Option A Curve Concave to the nearest poles Option B Curve Convex to the nearest poles Option C Straight line Option D Curve Convex to the equator

Answer 144

Option C Straight line

Question 145

On a Lambert Conformal conic projection with two standard parallels the scale is ______ Option A Correct only along the parallel of origin Option B Correct only at the poles Option C Correct only along the standard parallels Option D Correct at all points on the chart

Answer 145

Option C Correct only along the standard parallels

Question 146

On a Lambert Conformal conic chart the two standard parallels the coded scale is ______ Option A Correct midway between the two standard parallels Option B Correct only along the two standard parallels Option C Correct only at the center of the chart

Answer 146

Option B Correct only along the two standard parallels

Question 147

On a Direct Mercator chart a rumb line appears as ______ Option A Straight line Option B Curve-convex to the equator Option C Curve-concave to the equator Option D Curve-concave to the nearest poles

Answer 147

Option C Curve-concave to the equator

Question 148

On a Lambert Conformal conic chart earth convergence is most accurately represented at the ______ Option A Standard parallels Option B Outside the standard parallels Option C At all points between standard parallels Option D Parallel of origin

Answer 148

Option D Parallel of origin

Question 149

On a transverse Mercator chart scale is exactly correct along the ______ Option A Meridian of tangency Option B Prime meridian Option C Standard latitudes Option D Latitude of origin

Answer 149

Option A Meridian of tangency

Question 150

The angular difference on a Lambert conformal conic chart between arrival and departure track is equal to ______ Option A Departure angle Option B Map convergence Option C Secant of half latitude Option D Secant of longitude

Answer 150

Option B Map convergence

Question 151

Parallels of latitude except the equator are ______ Option A Rhumb line Option B Great circle Option C Curves convex to the nearest pole Option D Curves concave to the nearest pole

Answer 151

Option A Rhumb line

Question 152

On a direct Mercator chart meridians are ______ Option A Parallel equally spaced horizontal straight lines Option B Converging curved lines Option C Parallel equally spaced vertical straight lines Option D Diverging curved lines

Answer 152

Option C Parallel equally spaced vertical straight lines

Question 153

On which of the following chart projection is it not possible to represent the north or south poles ______ Option A Polar stereographic Option B Transverse Mercator Option C Lambert's conical Option D Direct Mercator

Answer 153

Option D Direct Mercator

Question 154

Which one of the following concerning great circle on a direct Mercator chart is correct ______ Option A With the exception of meridians and equator they are curves concave to equator Option B Straight lines Option C Curves concave to the nearest pole Option D With the exception of meridian and equator as curves convex to the equator

Answer 154

Option A With the exception of meridians and equator they are curves concave to equator

Question 155

On a Lambert conformal conic chart the distance between parallels of latitudes spaced the same number of degrees apart ______ Option A Increases between and reduces outside of the standard parallels Option B Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels Option C Is constant between the standard parallels Option D Is constant outside the standard parallels

Answer 155

Option B Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels

Question 156

Which of the following statement is correct concerning the appearance of the great circles with the exception of meridians on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the poles ______ Option A The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines Option B The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines Option C Never approximate to straight lines Option D Always approximate to straight lines

Answer 156

Option A The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines

Question 157

Which of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines except meridians on a polar stereographic chart ______ Option A Straight line Option B Curve concave to the pole Option C Approximately straight lines Option D Curves closer to the pole than the equivalent great circle

Answer 157

Option B Curve concave to the pole

Question 158

Which of the following value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart ______ Option A 2.0 Option B 1.5 Option C 1.0 Option D 0.5

Answer 158

Option C 1.0

Question 159

On a direct Mercator rhumb lines are ______ Option A Straight line Option B Curve concave to the nearest pole Option C Curve convex to the nearest pole Option D Curves concave to equator

Answer 159

Option A Straight line

Question 160

A perfectly straight line on Lambert's chart is ______ Option A A parallel of latitude Option B A rhumb line Option C A meridian of longitude Option D A great circle

Answer 160

Option C A meridian of longitude

Question 161

Which of the following statement best describes how scale varies on a Mercator chart ______ Option A It is correct on the standard parallels but expands outside them and contracts with them Option B Expands as the secant of east-west great circle distance Option C Expands as the secant of half X co-latitude Option D Expands directly with the secant of latitude

Answer 161

Option D Expands directly with the secant of latitude

Question 162

How do rhumb lines other than meridians appear on polar stereographical charts ______ Option A As straight line Option B As lines concave to the nearest pole Option C As lines convex to the nearest pole Option D As ellipses around the pole

Answer 162

Option B As lines concave to the nearest pole

Question 163

Where is the convergency correct on a transverse Mercator chart ______ Option A At the datum meridian and the equator Option B Only at the equator and poles Option C Only at the datum meridian Option D At the parallel of origin

Answer 163

Option A At the datum meridian and the equator

Question 164

In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one of the poles ______ Option A Lambert's Option B Direct Mercator Option C Transverse Mercator Option D Stereographic

Answer 164

Option D Stereographic

Question 165

How are great circles shown on a direct Mercator chart ______ Option A Curves concave to the nearest pole Option B Curve convex to the nearest pole Option C Straight line Option D Rhumb Line

Answer 165

Option B Curve convex to the nearest pole

Question 166

The scale on Lambert's conformal conic chart ______ Option A Constant Option B Constant along a parallel of latitude Option C Constant along a meridian of longitude Option D Varies slightly as a function of longitude and latitude

Answer 166

Option B Constant along a parallel of latitude

Question 167

The scale is correct on a transverse Mercator chart ______ Option A Along the datum meridian and meridian at 90 degree to it Option B At prime meridian Option C Along the great circle of tangency Option D At the poles and at the equator

Answer 167

Option C Along the great circle of tangency

Question 168

A great circle on the Earth running from North Pole to South Pole is called ______ Option A A meridian Option B A longitude Option C A difference of longitude Option D Paddle of latitude

Answer 168

Option A A meridian

Question 169

In which occasions does the rhumbline track and great circle track coincide on the surface of Earth ______ Option A On east-west tracks in northern hemisphere north of the magnetic equator Option B On high latitude tracks directly east-west Option C On north-south tracks and on east-west tracks along the equator Option D On east-west tracks in polar regions

Answer 169

Option C On north-south tracks and on east-west tracks along the equator

Question 170

If you are flying along the parallel of latitude you are flying ______ Option A A great circle track Option B A north-south track Option C A rhumbline track Option D On a track which is constantly changing direction

Answer 170

Option C A rhumbline track

Question 171

An aircraft follows a great circle in the northern hemisphere At a certain moment the aircraft is in position on a great circle where the great circle direction is 270 Continuing on a great circle the ______ Option A Track angle will decrease and latitude will decrease Option B Track angle will increase and latitude will decrease Option C Track angle will increase and latitude will increase Option D Track angle will decrease and latitude will increase

Answer 171

Option A Track angle will decrease and latitude will decrease

Question 172

An aircraft is in position 86 North 020 East When following the rhumbline track of 85 True it will ______ Option A Follow a line which lies first to the north of the parallel of 86 North but after having passed a DL of 180 to the south of it Option B Follow a small circle which lies to the north of the parallel of 86 North Option C Fly to the north pole via an arbitrary line Option D Fly via a spiral to the north pole

Answer 172

Option D Fly via a spiral to the north pole

Question 173

The speed V1 is defined as ______ Option A The takeoff decision speed Option B The takeoff climb speed Option C The speed for best angle of climb Option D The engine failure speed

Answer 173

Option A The takeoff decision speed

Question 174

Given Vs equals to stalling speed Vmca equals to air minimum control speed Vmu equals to minimum unstick speed disregarding engine failure V1 equals to takeoff decision speed Vr equals to rotation speed V2min equals to minimum takeoff speed safety speed Vlof equals to liftoff speed the correct formula is ______ Option A Vs less than Vmca less than V2min Option B Vr less than Vmca less than Vlof Option C Vmu less than equals to Vmca less than V1 Option D V2min less than Vmca greater than Vmu

Answer 174

Option A Vs less than Vmca less than V2min

Question 175

Given that Vef equals to critical engine failure speed Vmcg equals to ground minimum control speed Vmca equals to air minimum control speed Vmu equals to minimum unstick speed V1 equals to takeoff decision speed Vr equals to rotation speed V2min equals to minimum takeoff safety speed the correct formula is ______ Option A V2min less than equals to Vef less than equals to Vmu Option B Vmcg less than equals to Vef less than V1 Option C 1.05 Vmca less than equals to Vef less than equals to V1 Option D 1.05 Vmcg less than Vef less than equals to Vr

Answer 175

Option B Vmcg less than equals to Vef less than V1

Question 176

The speed V2 is ______ Option A The lowest safety airspeed at which the airplane is under control with aerodynamic surface in the case of an engine failure Option B The takeoff safety speed Option C The speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not takeoff in case of an engine failure Option D The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems

Answer 176

Option B The takeoff safety speed

Question 177

What effect has a downhill slope on the takeoff speeds ______ Option A The slope has no effect on the takeoff speed V1 Option B Decreases the takeoff speed V1 Option C Decreases the TAS for takeoff Option D Increases the IAS for takeoff

Answer 177

Option B Decreases the takeoff speed V1

Question 178

V2 has to be equal to or higher than ______ Option A 1.15 VMCG Option B 1.1 VSO Option C 1.15 VR Option D 1.1 VMCA

Answer 178

Option D 1.1 VMCA

Question 179

Which of the following answers is true ______ Option A V1 is less than or equal to Vr Option B V1 is greater than VLOF Option C V1 is greater than Vr Option D V1 is less than VMCG

Answer 179

Option A V1 is less than or equal to Vr

Question 180

Which statement is correct ______ Option A VMCG Option B VLOF Option C VMU Option D VR

Answer 180

Option A VMCG

Question 181

Which statement is correct ______ Option A VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1 Option B VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1 Option C VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1 Option D VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1

Answer 181

Option C VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1

Question 182

Field length is balanced when ______ Option A Takeoff distance equals accelerated stop distance Option B Calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1 VR-VMCG Option C All engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected takeoff are equal Option D One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35' are equal

Answer 182

Option A Takeoff distance equals accelerated stop distance

Question 183

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in ______ Option A Takeoff run available Option B Takeoff distance available Option C Landing distance available Option D Accelerated stop distance available

Answer 183

Option D Accelerated stop distance available

Question 184

Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clear way in takeoff calculation is correct ______ Option A V1 is increased Option B V1 remain constant Option C The field length limited takeoff mass will increase Option D The usable length of the clear way is not limited

Answer 184

Option C The field length limited takeoff mass will increase

Question 185

The takeoff distance available is ______ Option A Total runway length without clear way even if this one exists Option B Length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clear way available Option C Runway length minus stop way Option D Runway length plus half of the clear way

Answer 185

Option B Length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clear way available

Question 186

On a dry runway the accelerated stop distance is increased ______ Option A By an uphill slope Option B By headwind Option C By low outside air temperature Option D By a lower takeoff mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1

Answer 186

Option A By an uphill slope

Question 187

The length of a clearway may be included in ______ Option A The distance to reach V1 Option B The takeoff distance available Option C The accelerated stop distance available Option D The takeoff run available

Answer 187

Option B The takeoff distance available

Question 188

What will be the effect on aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased ______ Option A It will increase the takeoff distance required Option B It will increase the takeoff ground run Option C It will increase the accelerated stop distance Option D It will decrease the takeoff distance required

Answer 188

Option D It will decrease the takeoff distance required

Question 189

How does runway slope affect allowable takeoff mass Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting ______ Option A Allowable takeoff mass is not affected by runway slope Option B A downhill slope decreases allowable takeoff mass Option C A downhill slope increases allowable takeoff mass Option D An uphill slope increases takeoff mass

Answer 189

Option C A downhill slope increases allowable takeoff mass

Question 190

What will be the influence on aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased ______ Option A It will increase the accelerated stop distance available Option B It will increase the takeoff distance Option C It will decrease the takeoff distance Option D It will increase the takeoff distance available

Answer 190

Option B It will increase the takeoff distance

Question 191

Uphill slope ______ Option A Increases the allowed take-off mass Option B Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerated stop distance Option C Decreases the accelerated stop distance only Option D Decreases the take-off distance only

Answer 191

Option B Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerated stop distance

Question 192

The first law of Kepler states ______ Option A Planets move in elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci Option B Planets move around Sun in a circular path Option C All planets orbit around Sun at the same speed

Answer 192

Option A Planets move in elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 193

What is meant by Aphelion ______ Option A Point of Earth's orbit furthest away from the Sun Option B Point of Sun's orbit furthest away from the Earth Option C Point of Earth's orbit closest to the Sun Option D Point of Sun's orbit closest to the Earth

Answer 193

Option A Point of Earth's orbit furthest away from the Sun

Question 194

Kepler's second law states ______ Option A The length of radius vector sun to earth is proportional to the square root of its angular speed Option B The area swept out by the radius vector of each planet sun to earth per hour increases with increasing length of radius Option C The Earth's radius vector sun to earth moves at a constant angular speed Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time

Answer 194

Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time

Question 195

Which of the highest latitudes listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day ______ Option A 62 degrees Option B 66 degrees Option C 72 degrees Option D 68 degrees

Answer 195

Option B 66 degrees

Question 196

The main reason for the occurrence of seasons on the Earth is ______ Option A The inclination of the Earth axis with regard to the elliptical plane Option B The elliptical form of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun Option C The length of day stated by the second law of Kepler Option D The distance between the Sun and the Moon

Answer 196

Option A The inclination of the Earth axis with regard to the elliptical plane

Question 197

Which statement is true about civil twilight ______ Option A The duration of civil twilight on 21st of March and 23rd of September is equal at all places on Earth independent of latitude Option B Civil twilight at the equator lasts longer than 60°N and 60°S because the radius of the equator is larger than the radius of 60°P Option C Only the declination of the Sun will affect the duration of civil twilight Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of civil twilight

Answer 197

Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of civil twilight

Question 198

In which statement is the mean sun best described ______ Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed Option B The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the elliptical at uniform speed Option C The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for mean astronomical and atmospheric refraction Option D The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean difference in hour angle

Answer 198

Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed

Question 199

Which statement about the orbit of Earth is correct ______ Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci Option B The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun midway between the two foci Option C The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at its center Option D The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at the point next to its center

Answer 199

Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 200

The North and South magnetic poles are the only positions on Earth's surface where ______ Option A A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical Option B A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal Option C A position where the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field is a maximum Option D The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees

Answer 200

Option A A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical

Question 201

The direction of true north for any observer is ______ Option A The direction of observer's meridian to the north pole Option B The reading of the observer's compass corrected for deviation and local variation Option C The direction of Greenwich meridian to the north pole Option D The direction of observer's magnetic north corrected for local variation

Answer 201

Option A The direction of observer's meridian to the north pole

Question 202

Deviation on the standby compass is ______ Option A Positive if compass north is to the west of magnetic north Option B Independent of latitude of aircraft's position Option C Dependent on heading of the aircraft Option D Zero on the magnetic equator

Answer 202

Option C Dependent on heading of the aircraft

Question 203

Which of the following variables affect deviation ______ 1. Magnetic latitude 2. Aircraft heading 3. Aircraft altitude 4. Aircraft electronic equipment Option A 1, 2, and 4 Option B 1, 2, and 3 Option C 2, and 3 Option D 2, and 4

Answer 203

Option A 1, 2, and 4

Question 204

The direction of magnetic north at certain position coincides with direction of ______ Option A The great circle to the magnetic north pole Option B The isogonal line to the magnetic north pole Option C The isoclinic line to the magnetic north pole Option D The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field

Answer 204

Option D The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field

Question 205

In a remote indicating compass RICS the amount of deviation caused by the aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by ______ Option A Mounting the detector unit flux valve in the wingtip Option B Mounting the flux valve in the cockpit Option C Positioning the gyroscope in the center of aircraft Option D Using the vertically mounted gyroscope instead of horizontally mounted one

Answer 205

Option A Mounting the detector unit flux valve in the wingtip

Question 206

Near the magnetic pole ______ Option A The vertical component of Earth's magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses Option B The angle of dip is maximal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully horizontally aligned Option C The angle of dip is minimal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully vertically aligned Option D The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses

Answer 206

Option D The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses

Question 207

Which of the following statement about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct ______ Option A Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent Option B Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of non-permanent nature Option C Hard iron magnetism is non-permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is permanent Option D Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of permanent nature

Answer 207

Option A Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent

Question 208

The long-term periodic change in Earth's magnetic field ______ Option A Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles Option B Is caused by westerly movement of the geographical north pole Option C Acts mainly on compulsivation Option D Is caused by sunspot activity

Answer 208

Option A Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles

Question 209

The directive force ______ Option A Is the component of Earth's magnetic field which aligns the compass needle Option B Equals the vertical component of Earth's magnetic field Option C Is zero at geographical poles Option D Is about twice as strong on 60° North-South as on the equator

Answer 209

Option A Is the component of Earth's magnetic field which aligns the compass needle

Question 210

What is the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field ______ Option A Is minimum at the magnetic equator Option B Is very small close to magnetic poles Option C Is maximum at magnetic poles Option D Increases with increase in magnetic poles

Answer 210

Option B Is very small close to magnetic poles

Question 211

The direction magnetic north is at a position on the Earth is ______ Option A The isogonal to the magnetic north pole Option B The earth circle between the position and the magnetic north pole Option C The direction of the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field at this position Option D The compass north at that position corrected for variation

Answer 211

Option C The direction of the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field at this position

Question 212

The definition of magnetic track angle is ______ Option A The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north Option B The direction of longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north Option C The direction of a line reference to isogonic lines to the magnetic north pole compass north Option D The direction of the longitudinal axis of an aircraft to magnetic north

Answer 212

Option A The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north

Question 213

With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be decrease in the ______ Option A Angle of Depth Option B Directive Force Option C Total Magnetic Force of the Earth's Magnetic Field Option D Vertical Component of the Earth's Magnetic Field

Answer 213

Option B Directive Force

Question 214

When accelerating on easterly heading in the northern hemisphere the compass card of the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass will turn ______ Option A Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north Option C Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south Option D Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

Answer 214

Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

Question 215

Sensitivity of direct reading magnetic compass is ______ Option A Proportional to the vertical component of magnetic field of Earth Option B Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the Earth Option C Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the magnetic field of the Earth Option D Proportional to horizontal component of magnetic field of Earth

Answer 215

Option D Proportional to horizontal component of magnetic field of Earth

Question 216

When turning right from 320° compass to 50° compass in Southern Hemisphere the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will ______ Option A Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect Option B Underindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect Option C Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect Option D Underindicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

Answer 216

Option A Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect

Question 217

An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern Hemisphere from 330°C to 40°C after the turn has been stopped but before a direct indicating magnetic compass settles down will the compass ______ 1. Overread or underread and 2. Is this error increased or decreased by liquid swirl ______ Option A 1 Overread 2 Increased Option B 1 Overread 2 Decreased Option C 1 Underread 2 Increased Option D 1 Underread 2 Decreased

Answer 217

Option C 1 Underread 2 Increased

Question 218

What is magnetic variation ______ Option A The angle between magnetic north and true north Option B The angle between magnetic heading and magnetic north Option C The angle between direction indicated on the compass and magnetic north Option D The angle between true north and compass north

Answer 218

Option A The angle between magnetic north and true north

Question 219

An aircraft in the Northern Hemisphere makes an accurate rate of 1 turn to the right or starboard If the initial heading was 330° after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read ______ Option A 060° Option B More than 060° Option C More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used Option D Less than 060°

Answer 219

Option D Less than 060°

Question 220

At the magnetic equator ______ Option A Deviation is 0 Option B The isogonal is an agonic line Option C Dip is 0 Option D Variation is 0

Answer 220

Option C Dip is 0

Question 221

The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field ______ Option A Weakens with increasing distance from magnetic poles Option B Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole Option C Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60 degrees Option D Is approximately the same at magnetic latitude 50 degree north and 50 degree south

Answer 221

Option D Is approximately the same at magnetic latitude 50 degree north and 50 degree south

Question 222

What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism ______ Option A 45° Option B 60° Option C 90° Option D 180°

Answer 222

Option C 90°

Question 223

Which of the following is correct when the variation is West ______ Option A True North is East of Magnetic North Option B Magnetic North is West of Compass North Option C True North is West of Magnetic North Option D Compass North is West of Magnetic North

Answer 223

Option A True North is East of Magnetic North

Question 224

A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is called ______ Option A Agonic line Option B Aclinic line Option C Isogonal line Option D Isotach

Answer 224

Option A Agonic line

Question 225

How is direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or deadbeat ______ Option A Using pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly Option B Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass Option C Using short magnets Option D Positioning the magnetic assembly mask close to the compass point and using damping wires

Answer 225

Option D Positioning the magnetic assembly mask close to the compass point and using damping wires

Question 226

At what point on earth is a magnetic compass most effective ______ Option A At geographical equator Option B Close to magnetic north pole Option C Close to magnetic south pole Option D Approximately midway between magnetic poles

Answer 226

Option D Approximately midway between magnetic poles

Question 227

Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time ______ Option A Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase Option B Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase or decrease Option C Increases in the magnetic field cause it to increase Option D Reduction in the magnetic field cause it to increase

Answer 227

Option B Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase or decrease

Question 228

Which of the following is true of the value of magnetic variation ______ Option A It is zero degree at magnetic equator Option B It varies between 45 degrees east and 45 degrees west Option C It cannot exceed 90 degrees Option D It cannot exceed 180 degrees

Answer 228

Option D It cannot exceed 180 degrees

Question 229

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate of 1 turn to the right If the initial heading was 135 degrees after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read ______ Option A 225 degrees Option B Less than 225 degrees Option C More or less than 225 degrees depending on the pendulous suspension used Option D More than 225 degrees

Answer 229

Option D More than 225 degrees

Question 230

When using the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass in the Northern Hemisphere ______ Option A A longitudinal acceleration on westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the south Option B A longitudinal acceleration on easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the north Option C A longitudinal deceleration on the westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the north Option D A longitudinal acceleration on the easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the south

Answer 230

Option B A longitudinal acceleration on easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the north

Question 231

What is the main cause of permanent magnetism in aircraft ______ Option A Electrical currents in internal wiring and electrical storms Option B Exposure to the terrestrial magnetic field during normal operation Option C The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the terrestrial magnetic field Option D Hammering and the effect of Earth's magnetic field whilst under construction

Answer 231

Option D Hammering and the effect of Earth's magnetic field whilst under construction

Question 232

When accelerating on westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere the compass card of Direct Reading Magnetic Compass will turn ______ Option A Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south Option C Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north Option D Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

Answer 232

Option C Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

Question 233

Isogonal coverage at the ______ Option A Magnetic equator Option B North magnetic pole only Option C North and south magnetic poles only Option D North and south geographic and magnetic poles

Answer 233

Option D North and south geographic and magnetic poles

Question 234

The value of magnetic variation ______ Option A Must be 0 degrees at the magnetic equator Option B Varies between maximum of 45 degrees east and 45 degrees west Option C Cannot exceed 90 degrees Option D Has maximum of 180 degrees

Answer 234

Option D Has maximum of 180 degrees

Question 235

The first law of Kepler states ______ Option A Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci Option B Planets move around the Sun in a circular path Option C All planets orbit around the Sun at the same speed Option D The angular speed of planets in the orbit around the Sun is constant

Answer 235

Option A Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 236

What is meant by Aphelion ______ Option A The point of Earth's orbit furthest away from the Sun Option B The point of Sun's orbit furthest away from the Earth Option C The point of Earth's orbit closest to the Sun Option D The point of Sun's orbit closest to the Earth

Answer 236

Option A The point of Earth's orbit furthest away from the Sun

Question 237

Kepler's second law states ______ Option A The length of radius vector sun to earth is proportional to square root of its angular speed Option B The area swept out by the radius vector of each planet sun to earth per hour increases with increasing length of the radius Option C Each planet's radius vector sun to earth moves at a constant angular speed Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time

Answer 237

Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time

Question 238

Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day ______ Option A 62° Option B 66° Option C 72° Option D 68°

Answer 238

Option B 66°

Question 239

The main reason of the occurrence of seasons on Earth is ______ Option A The inclination of Earth's axis with regard to the elliptic plane Option B The elliptical form of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun Option C The length of day stated by the second law of Kepler Option D The distance between Sun and the Moon

Answer 239

Option A The inclination of Earth's axis with regard to the elliptic plane

Question 240

Which statement is true ______ Option A The duration of civil twilight on 21st of March and on 23rd of September is equal at all places on Earth independent of latitude Option B Civil Twilight at the Equator lasts longer than at 60° North or 60° South because the radius of the Equator is larger than the radius of 60° parallels Option C Only the declination of the Sun will affect the duration of civil twilight Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of the twilight

Answer 240

Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of the twilight

Question 241

In which statement is the mean sun best described ______ Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed Option B The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the elliptic at uniform speed Option C The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean astronomical and atmospheric refraction Option D The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean difference in r-angle

Answer 241

Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed

Question 242

Which statement about the orbit of the Earth is correct ______ Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci Option B The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun midway between the two foci Option C The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at its center Option D The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at the point next to its center

Answer 242

Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 243

The reason that solar day lasts longer than sidereal day is that ______ Option A Both the direction of rotation of Earth around its axis and its orbital rotation around the Sun are the same Option B The Sun has its own movement through the Universe opposite to the movement of the Earth due to gravitational forces of the celestial bodies Option C The orbital speed of the Earth around its axis diminishes slowly Option D The orbital track of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse

Answer 243

Option A Both the direction of rotation of Earth around its axis and its orbital rotation around the Sun are the same

Question 244

Which definition describes the best-notion poles ______ Option A The poles are the points of intersection between the surface of Earth and the extended line joining the star Polaris with the center of Earth Option B The poles are the points on the surface of Earth which have the same distance to all points on the elliptic Option C The poles are the points on the surface of Earth where gravity acts under the angle of exactly 90 degrees Option D The poles are the points of interaction between the Earth's axis and the surface of the Earth

Answer 244

Option D The poles are the points of interaction between the Earth's axis and the surface of the Earth

Question 245

The length of the apparent solar day varies continuously throughout the year This is caused by ______ Option A The tilt of the Earth's axis and the elliptical orbit of the Earth around the Sun Option B The fact that the Earth is closest to the Sun around 1st of January Option C The fact that the Earth is closest to the Sun around 1st of July Option D The equation of time

Answer 245

Option A The tilt of the Earth's axis and the elliptical orbit of the Earth around the Sun

Question 246

Which definition of the equator is correct ______ Option A The equator is a great circle with its plane parallel to Earth's rotational axis Option B The equator is a small circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth's rotational axis Option C The equatorial small circle with its plane parallel to Earth's rotational axis Option D The Earth's equator is a great circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth's rotational axis

Answer 246

Option D The Earth's equator is a great circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth's rotational axis

Question 247

What is the correct definition of latitude of a position on Earth ______ Option A Latitude is the angle between the plane of the equator and the line from the center of the Earth to the position Option B Latitude is the angle between the plane of the prime meridian and the plane of the meridian of the position Option C Latitude is the angle between the Earth's rotational axis and the line from the center of the Earth to the position Option D Latitude is the angle between the plane of the elliptic and the parallel of the position

Answer 247

Option A Latitude is the angle between the plane of the equator and the line from the center of the Earth to the position

Question 248

Geodetic latitude and geographic latitude coincide ______ Option A At the poles and on the equator Option B At 45°N S Option C Only at the equator Option D Only at the poles

Answer 248

Option A At the poles and on the equator

Question 249

Which statement is correct about the apparent solar day ______ Option A The duration of the apparent solar day is constant throughout the year due to the constant rotational speed of the Earth Option B The duration of apparent solar day is constant throughout the year due to constant velocity of the Earth in its orbit Option C The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the true sun through the same meridian Option D The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the mean sun through the same meridian

Answer 249

Option C The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the true sun through the same meridian

Question 250

The time interval between sunrise and sunset is dependent on ______ Option A The declination of Sun and the latitude of the observer Option B The inclination of the axis of the Earth and the longitude of the observer Option C The date and the longitude of the observer Option D The latitude and the longitude of the observer

Answer 250

Option A The declination of Sun and the latitude of the observer

Question 251

Which statement regarding the apparent sun and the mean sun is correct ______ Option A The mean sun moves along the elliptic Option B The apparent sun moves along the celestial equator Option C The apparent sun is not important for navigation as differences in time with the mean sun is normally 4 seconds Option D The apparent sun is the visible sun The mean sun is a fictitious sun

Answer 251

Option D The apparent sun is the visible sun The mean sun is a fictitious sun

Question 252

The declination of the Sun is defined as ______ Option A The angular distance of the Sun north or south of the celestial equator Option B The arc from the celestial horizon to the Sun measured along the vertical line perpendicular to the horizon Option C The arc of the meridian of the Sun measured from the nearest pole to the Sun Option D The arc along the celestial sphere from zenith to the Sun

Answer 252

Option A The angular distance of the Sun north or south of the celestial equator

Question 253

An observer is situated on the parallel of latitude 23.5°S Which statement about the passage of the apparent sun in relation to this position is correct ______ Option A It passes through the Zenith i.e. overhead once a year around 21st March Option B It passes through the Zenith twice a year March 21st and September 23rd Option C It passes through the Zenith twice a year around 21st June and December 22nd Option D It passes through the Zenith once a year around December 22nd

Answer 253

Option D It passes through the Zenith once a year around December 22nd

Question 254

Kepler's second law states that ______ Option A The radius vector Sun-Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal time Option B The length of the radius vector Sun-Earth is directly proportional to the square root of its angular speed Option C The area swept out by the radius vector Sun-Earth per hour increases with the increase in length of the radius vector Option D The radius vector Sun-Earth moves at constant angular speed

Answer 254

Option A The radius vector Sun-Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal time

Question 255

Which statement is correct ______ Option A The solar system consists of Sun planets and stars Option B Sun moves in an elliptical orbit around the Earth Option C The Earth is one of the planets which are all moving in elliptical orbits around the Sun Option D The planets move around the Sun like all the stars of the solar system

Answer 255

Option C The Earth is one of the planets which are all moving in elliptical orbits around the Sun

Question 256

Consider the positions 00NS 00EW and 00NS 180EW on the ellipsoid Which statement about the distances between these positions is correct ______ Option A The route via north pole is shorter than the route along the equator Option B The route via south pole is shorter than the route via north pole Option C The route via equator is shorter than the route via south pole Option D The route via either pole and the route via equator are of equal length

Answer 256

Option A The route via north pole is shorter than the route along the equator