Daily Revision Questions Flashcards
1_The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth’s surface where a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical b) A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal c) A position where the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is a maximum d) The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees
a) A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical
2_The direction of True North for any observer is a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole b) The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation c) The direction of the Greenwich meridian to the North Pole d) The direction of the observer’s magnetic north corrected for local variation
a) The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole
3_If the Compass Heading is 265 degrees variation is 33 degrees west and deviation is 3 degrees east what is the True Heading a) 229 degrees b) 235 degrees c) 225 degrees d) 231 degrees
b) 235 degrees
4_Given Compass Heading = 233 True Track = 256 Drift angle = 10 degrees right Deviation = -3 degrees What is the variation a) 16 degrees East b) 10 degrees East c) 10 degrees West d) 20 degrees West
a) 16 degrees East
5_The fix of the aircraft position is determined by radials from three VOR stations The measurements contain small random errors known as systematic errors and unknown systematic errors The measured radials are corrected for known systematic errors and plotted on a navigation chart What is the most probable position of the aircraft a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
c) 3
6_An NDB is located at position (S 26 W 005 42) The variation at the NDB is 6W The position of the aircraft is (S 60 W 010 00W) The variation at the aircraft position is 11W The initial TT of the great circle from the aircraft position to the NDB position is 1015 degrees What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB from the aircraft a) 1085 b) 1145 c) 1105 d) 1125
a) 1085
7_Given True Track 245 degrees Drift 5 degrees right Compass Heading 242 Calculate the deviation a) 5 degrees west b) 5 degrees east c) 1 degree east d) 1 degree west
d) 1 degree west
8_Deviation on the standby compass is a) Positive if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North b) Negative if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North c) Zero at all times d) None of the above
b) Negative if Compass North is to the west of Magnetic North
9_Which of the following variables affect deviation a) Magnetic latitude b) Aircraft heading c) Aircraft altitude d) Aircraft electronic equipment
d) Aircraft electronic equipment
10_Given True Track = 245 Drift = 5 degrees right Variation = 3 degrees west Compass heading = 242 degrees Magnetic heading = a) 237 degrees b) 247 degrees c) 245 degrees d) 243 degrees
a) 237 degrees
11_Given Variation = 6W Signal lines Jan 2002 Average annual increase 10 minutes Calculate the variation in 2005 a) 65 degrees west b) 55 degrees west c) 63 degrees west d) 53 degrees west
c) 63 degrees west
12_Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent b) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a non-permanent nature c) Hard iron magnetism is non-permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is permanent d) Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a permanent nature
a) Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent
13_The direction of magnetic north at a certain position coincides with the direction of a) The great circle to the magnetic north pole b) The isogonic line to the magnetic north pole c) The isoclinic line to the magnetic north pole d) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field
a) The great circle to the magnetic north pole
14_You are tracking the 090 degree radial inbound to a VOR and your true heading is 060 degrees At the VOR you track the 090 radial outbound and are showing a 6DME The variation is +5 and the TAS is 240 knots What is the WV that has affected the aircraft a) 310/45 knots b) 325/50 knots c) 310/50 knots d) 325/45 knots
b) 325/50 knots
15_In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by the aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by a) Mounting the detector unit (flux valve) in the wingtip b) Mounting the flux valve in the cockpit c) Positioning the gyro scope in the center of the aircraft d) Using a vertically mounted gyro instead of a horizontally mounted one
c) Positioning the gyro scope in the center of the aircraft
16_Near the magnetic pole a) The vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass b) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass c) Variation is maximally affected by magnetic poles d) Magnetic inclination is minimally affected near magnetic poles
b) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of a normal compass
17_The long term periodic change in the Earth’s Magnetic Field is a) Reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles b) Caused by major excavations near the magnetic poles c) Caused by sunspot activity d) Caused by supernova explosions
a) Reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles
18_The directive force a) Is the component of the Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle b) Equals the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field c) Is zero at the geographic poles d) Is about twice as strong at 60°N as on the equator
a) Is the component of the Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle
19_The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field a) Is minimum at the magnetic equator b) Is very small close to the magnetic poles c) Is maximum at the magnetic poles d) Increases with an increase in magnetic latitude
b) Is very small close to the magnetic poles
20_The direction Magnetic North at a position on the earth is a) The direction to the magnetic north pole b) The angle between the position and the magnetic north pole c) The direction of the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at that position d) The compass north at that position corrected for variation
c) The direction of the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at that position
21_A definition of a magnetic track angle is a) The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north b) The direction of a longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north c) The direction of a line referenced to isogonic line to the magnetic north pole d) Compass north
c) The direction of a longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north
22_With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the a) Angle of dip b) Directive force c) Total magnetic force of the Earth’s magnetic field d) Vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field
b) Directive force
23_When descending on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn a) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south c) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north d) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
b) Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
24_Sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is a) Proportional to the vertical component of the magnetic field of the earth b) Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the earth c) Inversely proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth
d) Proportional to horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth
25_The turning right from 320°(C) to 050°(C) in the Southern hemisphere the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will a) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect c) Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect d) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
b) Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
26_An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern hemisphere from 330° to 060° After the turn has been stopped but before the director indicating compass settles down will the compass 1) Over-read or under-read 2) and (3) Its error increased or decreased by liquid swirl a) Over-read increased b) Over-read decreased c) Under-read decreased d) Under-read increased
c) Under-read decreased
27_What is magnetic variation a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North b) The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North c) The angle between the direction indicated on the compass and Magnetic North d) The angle between True North and Compass North
a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North
28_An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/left If the initial heading was 330° after 30 seconds of turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read a) 060° b) More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used c) Less than 060° d) More than 060°
d) More than 060°
29_How is the direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or dead beat a) By using a pendulous suspension system for the compass card b) Using the lowest possible weight for the compass card c) By using a counterweight to oppose the tilt of the compass d) Using a liquid filled container to dampen oscillations
d) Using a liquid filled container to dampen oscillations
30_Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass a) 130 2W 127 b) 130 2E 132 c) 130 5W 125 d) 130 3W 133
a) 130 2W 127
31_The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field a) Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles b) Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60° d) Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50° and 59°
c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°
32_What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism a) 45° b) 50° c) 60° d) 90°
d) 90°
33_Which of the following is correct when the variation is West a) True North is East of Magnetic North b) Magnetic North is West of Compass North c) True North is West of Magnetic North d) Compass North is West of Magnetic North
a) True North is East of Magnetic North
34_A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an a) Agonic line b) Aclinic line c) Isogonic line d) Isotach
a) Agonic line
Wavelength is the distance from
Option A Wave crest to wave crest
Option B Through the next wave crest
Option C The E and H fields superimposed onto the system Reactance Background Scatter
Option D Wave crest to next trough
Option A Wave crest to wave crest
The emission characteristics A3E describe
Option A ILS
Option B VOR
Option C VHF communications
Option D HF communications
Option C VHF communications
Electromagnetic wave travels at
Option A Speed of sound
Option B 3 lakh meters per second
Option C Speed of light
Option D 162000 miles per hour
Option C Speed of light
In regard to radio what does the term frequency mean
Option A The number of waveforms in 1 hour
Option B The number of complete waveform passing a point in 1 second
Option C The speed of radio waves in meter per second
Option D The length of a complete waveform in meters
Option B The number of complete waveform passing a point in 1 second
The Automatic Direction Finder ADF uses the following wavelength
Option A Metric
Option B Decimetric
Option C Centimetric
Option D Hectometric or Kilometric
Option D Hectometric or Kilometric
According to ICAO Annexure 10 in which frequency band does the locator transmit
Option A HF
Option B LF or MF
Option C HF or VHF
Option D MF or HF
Option B LF or MF
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths
Option A Hectometric
Option B Decimetric
Option C Metric
Option D Centimetric
Option C Metric
The ILS instrument landing system uses the following wavelengths
Option A Hectometric
Option B Decimetric
Option C Metric
Option D Centimetric
Option C Metric
The frequency band for the automatic direction finder is
Option A Hectometric
Option B Decimetric
Option C Metric
Option D Centimetric
Option A Hectometric
The microwave landing system the MLS uses the following wavelengths
Option A Myriametric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option D Centimetric
To what range does ILS localizer wavelength fall
Option A Kilometric
Option B Metric
Option C Nanometric
Option D Millimetric
Option B Metric
The transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 m is in which frequency band
Option A MF
Option B LF
Option C HF
Option D VHF
Option C HF
The distance measuring equipment DME uses the following wavelengths
Option A Decimetric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option A Decimetric
The VHF Omni-Range VOR uses the following wavelengths
Option A Decimetric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option B Metric
What is the wavelength of the ILS localizer signal
Option A Myriametric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option B Metric
What is the wavelength of VOR
Option A Decimetric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option B Metric
Frequency is defined as
Option A Number of complete cycles recurring in 1 unit of time
Option B Distance between crest and crest
Option C Number of complete cycles recurring in 10 units of time
Option D Distance from axis to peak value
Option A Number of complete cycles recurring in 1 unit of time
A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm The facility could be dash operating on a frequency of dash
Option A VDF 135 MHz
Option B DME 1350 MHz
Option C Doppler 13500 MHz
Option D Radioalternative 13500 KHz
Option C Doppler 13500 MHz
The Marker Beacon uses the following wavelengths
Option A Myriametric
Option B Metric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option B Metric
The Secondary Surveillance Radar SSR uses the following wavelengths
Option A Myriametric
Option B Decimetric
Option C Hectometric
Option D Centimetric
Option B Decimetric
The low-altitude radio altimeter i.e. RADALT uses the following wavelengths
Option A Decimetric
Option B Metric
Option C Myriametric
Option D Centimetric
Option D Centimetric
The Radio Transmitter Modulator
Option A Tunes the aerial only
Option B Ensures receiver capability
Option C Couples the RF signal to an aerial
Option D Superimposes an audio frequency signal AF onto a radio frequency signal RF
Option D Superimposes an audio frequency signal AF onto a radio frequency signal RF
The VHF frequency band is in the
Option A 3-30 kHz range
Option B 30-300 kHz range
Option C 3-30 MHz range
Option D 30-300 MHz range
Option D 30-300 MHz range
Decimetric waves correspond to a frequency of
Option A 300-3000 kHz
Option B 3000-30000 kHz
Option C 300-3000 MHz
Option D 3000-30000 MHz
Option C 300-3000 MHz
The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of
Option A 100 m to 10 m
Option B 1 m to 100 cm
Option C 10 m to 1 m
Option D 100 cm to 10 cm
Option C 10 m to 1 m
A horizontally polarized electromagnetic wave
Option A Has the E field horizontal
Option B Has the E field vertical
Option C Has the Z field horizontal
Option D Has the H field horizontal
Option A Has the E field horizontal
Which of the following statement is correct in respect to a RF signal
Option A The plane of polarization is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter
Option B The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the areal
Option C The magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the areal
Option D Both the electrical component and the magnetic component of the signal are parallel to the areal
Option B The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the areal
A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by dash areal
Option A Vertical
Option B Horizontal
Option C Parabolic
Option D Magnetic
Option A Vertical
An electromagnetic wave has two types of energy field
Option A An H-electrical field and an E-magnetic field
Option B A Z-electrical field and an H-magnetic field
Option C A Z-magnetic field and an E-electrical field
Option D An E-electrical field and an H-magnetic field
Option D An E-electrical field and an H-magnetic field
Skip distance is the ______ from the transmitter to the ______ returning sky wave
Option A Thickness of ionosphere
Option B Highest critical frequency distance
Option C Range from the transmitter to the first returning sky wave
Option D Wavelength distance of a certain frequency
Option C Range from the transmitter to the first returning sky wave
Diffraction of an RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to ______
Option A Passing through ionized regions of the upper atmosphere
Option B Reflection from the surface
Option C Passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
Option D Passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
Option D Passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
Using a medium frequency band when is fading likely to occur
Option A Night with sky and ground waves
Option B Night time when snowing
Option C Day time when snowing
Option D Day with Sky and Ground Waves
Option A Night with sky and ground waves
Complete the following statement ______ radio signals have a ______ range by ______ wave over ______ then over ______
Option A MF shorter sky sea land
Option B MF greater ground sea land
Option C VHF shorter sky sea land
Option D MF greater ground land sea
Option B MF greater ground sea land
The frequency at which sky waves should least affect reception
Option A VLF
Option B VLF
Option C MF
Option D HF
Option A VLF
The skip distance of HF transmissions will increase with ______
Option A Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer
Option B Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer
Option C Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer
Option D Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting layer
Option C Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting layer
Attenuation is a generic term for ______
Option A Loss of power but is only relevant to space waves
Option B Increase in power
Option C Reflection
Option D Loss of power
Option D Loss of power
Reflection from ionospheric layers is used in the following radio frequencies
Option A VLF
Option B HF
Option C VHF
Option D UHF
Option B HF
MF fading is most common ______
Option A During the day due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves
Option B During the day and during heavy rain
Option C At night and during heavy rain
Option D At night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves
Option D At night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves
As the frequency of a transmitter is increased the range of the ground wave will ______
Option A Increase
Option B Decrease
Option C Decrease by night only
Option D Increase over the sea
Option B Decrease
Skip distance is longest by ______ and with a ______ frequency
Option A Day low
Option B Day high
Option C Night low
Option D Night high
Option D Night high
Attenuation of a radio wave is the ______
Option A Reduction of its power by absorption scattering or spreading
Option B Increase of its power by a combination of multipath signals
Option C Change of its frequency by use of sidebands
Option D Change of amplitude by use of sidebands
Option A Reduction of its power by absorption scattering or spreading
The refraction of an electromagnetic radiation is ______
Option A Loss of power through reflection from objects
Option B The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity
Option C The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity
Option D Bending resultant from reflection from objects
Option B The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity
Which statement is true ______
Option A The lower the frequency the greater the ionospheric attenuation
Option B The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over land than over ice
Option C The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 GHz
Option D None of the above options are true
Option A The lower the frequency the greater the ionospheric attenuation
Attenuation of radio waves means ______
Option A The weakening of radiated waves
Option B The atmospheric bending of waves
Option C Only the scattering of waves in the troposphere
Option D Only the absorption of energy by the sea
Option A The weakening of radiated waves
When an LF radio wave passes over the Earth’s surface it ______
Option A Speeds up picks up electrons and becomes stronger
Option B Slows down picks up electrons and becomes stronger
Option C Slows down and is attenuated
Option D Speeds up and is attenuated
Option C Slows down and is attenuated
To establish and maintain effective HF communication frequency at a given range ______
Option A Should be decreased at night
Option B Should be increased at night
Option C Should remain constant
Option D Should only be varied by season decreased in summer and increased in winter
Option A Should be decreased at night
A radio signal loses strength as the range from the transmitter increases This effect is called ______
Option A Ducting
Option B Amplification
Option C Attenuation
Option D Refraction
Option C Attenuation
In the propagation of MF waves the phenomena of fading is particularly found ______
Option A By day and when raining
Option B At night and when raining
Option C By day due to combination of sky waves and ground waves
Option D At night due to combination of sky waves and ground waves
Option D At night due to combination of sky waves and ground waves
Fading happens ______
Option A In daytime when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other
Option B At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other
Option C At night when the signal is received by ground waves only
Option D At daytime when the signal is received by sky waves only
Option B At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other
Which of the following statement is true ______
Option A A transmission’s bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial
Option B Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce the noise
Option C A narrow bandwidth improves beam width
Option D Broad bandwidth gives narrow beam width
Option B Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce the noise
Diffraction is a process by which ______
Option A A direct wave is bent around the form of Earth
Option B A space wave penetrates the ionosphere
Option C Radio wave travels over and around objects
Option D A ground wave is attenuated over rough ground
Option C Radio wave travels over and around objects
Which is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be guaranteed ______
Option A 3 MHz
Option B 30 MHz
Option C 300 MHz
Option D 3 GHz
Option B 30 MHz
An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that reflects from the E layer in ionosphere The maximum distance of the first returning sky wave is ______
Option A 599 km
Option B 1500 km
Option C 599 nautical miles
Option D 1500 nautical miles
Option B 1500 km
The approximately maximum range of ground waves of LF and MF are by day ______ and ______ respectively with ______ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation
Option A 1500 nautical miles 1000 nautical miles MF
Option B 1000 nautical miles 500 nautical miles LF
Option C 1000 nautical miles 300 nautical miles MF
Option D 500 nautical miles 100 nautical miles LF
Option C 1000 nautical miles 300 nautical miles MF
VDF accuracy may be decreased by ______
Option A Diurnal variation
Option B Site and propagation errors
Option C Night effect
Option D Caustic effect
Option B Site and propagation errors
An aircraft is homing to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative veering of zero If magnetic heading increases the aircraft is experiencing ______
Option A Right drift
Option B Left drift
Option C Zero drift
Option D A wind from the west
Option B Left drift
What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown ______
Option A VHF radio
Option B VOR
Option C None
Option D VOR or DME
Option A VHF radio
Which of the following is an advantage of ground or VDF letdown ______
Option A It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
Option B It is pilot-interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
Option C It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
Option D It does not require any special equipment as part from the VHF radio to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground
Option A It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding VDF likely to be used to fix an aircraft’s position ______
Option A On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
Option B When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
Option C When declaring an emergency on any frequency
Option D When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
Option D When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
What is VDF referenced to ______
Option A Relative bearing to the aircraft
Option B True north at the aircraft
Option C Magnetic north at the station
Option D Magnetic north at the aircraft
Option C Magnetic north at the station
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 nautical miles i.e. NM By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 nautical miles ______
Option A VDF Direction Finder
Option B Vary Direction Finder
Option C Very High Frequency Deviation Finding Station
Option D VHF Direction Finder
Option D VHF Direction Finder
To provide a pilot with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar ATC must have at its disposal at least ______
Option A 2 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency
Option B 3 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies
Option C 2 located VDFs able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency
Option D 1 VDF able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies
Option A 2 VDFs at different locations able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency
Range of VDF depends on ______
1. Line of sight formula
2. Power of transmitter
3. Intervening high ground
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is
Option A 2
Option B 1 2 and 3
Option C 1 and 2
Option D 1 and 3
Option B 1, 2, 3
The range of VDF depends on ______
1. Loudness of voices of the pilots and the operator when transmitting
2. Power of airborne and ground transmitters
3. Power of pilot voice when transmitting
4. Aircraft altitude and ground transmitter
5. The combination regrouping all of the correct statement is ______
Option A 2 and 4
Option B 2
Option C 1
Option D 3 and 4”,
Option A 2 and 4
One of the uses of the VDF is providing aircraft with ______
Option A Ground speed
Option B Homing
Option C Altitude
Option D Heading
Option B Homing
A VDF may be used ______
Option A To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar
Option B In emergency type situations when aircraft is unable to transmit on VHF radio
Option C In combination with radar to solve a 180-degree ambiguity
Option D In lieu of ILS for precision approach purposes
Option A To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar
What is the effect of multipath signals coming from the same aircraft at the ground VHF direction finding station ______
Option A It reduces the range at which the ground VDF direction finder station receives signals from the aircraft
Option B Regardless of the difference in distance travelled by these signals it results in their extinction of the signals at the ground VHF direction finder station
Option C It may result in an increase in the distance at which the ground VDF direction finder station receives signals from the aircraft if the ground station is situated in the skip zone
Option D They may result in bearing errors
Option D They may result in bearing errors
In flight a pilot can improve the range of transmission with a VHF operator by ______
Option A Speaking louder
Option B Flying out of clouds
Option C Increasing altitude
Option D Decreasing altitude
Option C Increasing altitude
An aircraft is homing to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative peering of zero If the magnetic heading decreases the aircraft is experiencing ______
Option A Right drift
Option B Left drift
Option C Zero drift
Option D A wind from the west
Option A Right drift
Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels caused by ______
Option A Efficient VDF antennas
Option B Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to 1 being used by the VDF station
Option C Super-reflection of the signals in the atmosphere
Option D The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft
Option C Super-reflection of the signals in the atmosphere
In VDF service the report QDR 235 Class C means ______
Option A The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 ± 10 degrees
Option B The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 15 degrees
Option C The true bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees
Option D The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees
Option D The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 10 degrees
If when you are requesting a QDM from an aircraft you are offered with QGH it means ______
Option A The service will be limited to the bearings No position will be given by the DF station
Option B The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield based on VDF bearings
Option C The VDF service will be handled by a different DF unit operating on the same frequency
Option D The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level
Option B The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield based on VDF bearings
Which Q code would give you magnetic heading from the VDF station ______
Option A QDM
Option B QDR
Option C QUJ
Option D QTE
Option B QDR
Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station ______
Option A QDM
Option B QDR
Option C QUJ
Option D QTE
Option D QTE
Which Q code would give a magnetic heading to steer in nil wind to a VDF station ______
Option A QDM
Option B QDR
Option C QUJ
Option D QTE
Option A QDM
With reference to a VDF bearing the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is ______
Option A QUJ
Option B QTE
Option C QDR
Option D QDM
Option B QTE
If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus your true heading is 256 degrees class alpha ______
Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees
Option B QTE accurate to ±5 degrees
Option C QDR accurate to ±2 degrees
Option D QUK accurate to ±3 degrees
Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees
What is QTE ______
Option A Magnetic track to the station
Option B Magnetic track from the station
Option C True track from the station
Option D True track to the station
Option C True track from the station
VDF measures the bearing of aircrafts with ______
Option A Reference to aircraft with relative bearing
Option B Reference to true and magnetic north at the station
Option C Reference to the true and magnetic north at the aircraft
Option D Reference to magnetic north at the aircraft
Option B Reference to the true and magnetic north at the station
The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within ______
Option A ±1°
Option B ±5°
Option C ±3°
Option D ±2°
Option B ±5°
When would VDF be used for a position fix ______
Option A When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz
Option B When the aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency
Option C When first talking to an FIR on crossing an international boundary
Option D When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace
Option A When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz
What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted on order that a VDF letdown be flown ______
Option A VOR slash DME
Option B VHF radio
Option C None
Option D VOR
Option B VHF radio
An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must ______
Option A Within 10 nautical miles of the VDF aerial
Option B Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established
Option C Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit
Option D Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the bearing
Option B Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established
What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown ______
Option A None
Option B VOR
Option C VOR slash DME
Option D VHF radio
Option D VHF radio
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of VHF direction finder is ______
Option A VHF transmitter receiver operating on 118MHz to 136MHz range
Option B VHF compass operating in 200MHz to 1750KHz range
Option C Cathode ray tube
Option D VHF receiver operating in 118MHz to 136MHz range
Option A VHF transmitter receiver operating on 118MHz to 136MHz range
When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with ______
Option A The Controller The Controller
Option B The Pilot The Pilot
Option C The Pilot The Controller
Option D The Controller The Pilot
Option D The Controller The Pilot
The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by ______
Option A Intensity of ionization
Option B Surface type
Option C Aircraft height
Option D Time of day
Option C Aircraft height
What is the purpose of ground direction finder ______
Option A To map airfields
Option B To aid ground movements
Option C To aid pilot navigation
Option D To assist planners in the construction of airfield approaches
Option C To aid pilot navigation
Which of the following affects VDF range ______
Option A Coastal reflection
Option B Height of transmitter and receiver
Option C Strength of pilot voice when transmitted
Option D Skywave propagation
Option B Height of transmitter and receiver
Ground direction finding at Aerodrome utilizes which frequencies ______
Option A VHF at Civil Aerodromes VHF at Military Aerodromes
Option B VHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes
Option C UHF at Civil Aerodromes VHF at Military Aerodromes
Option D UHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes
Option B VHF at Civil Aerodromes UHF at Military Aerodromes
In the VDF system direction antennas are used ______
Option A At the ground installation
Option B In the aircraft
Option C In the aircraft and at the ground installation
Option D No direction antennas are used
Option A At the ground installation
The pilot of an aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should ______
Option A Avoid banking when transmitting
Option B Not pass over at VDF station
Option C Transmit on 121.5 MHz
Option D Ensure that radio silence is maintained
Option A Avoid banking when transmitting
Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding VDF is most accurate ______
Option A It is simple and only require a VHF radio on the ground
Option B It is simple and require a VHF radio and direction finding equipment in the aircraft
Option C It is simple and require a VHF radio on the ground and in the aeroplane
Option D It uses line-of-sight propagation
Option D It uses line-of-sight propagation
Which of the following is an advantage of VDF ______
Option A No equipment is required in the aircraft
Option B No special equipment is required in the aircraft or on the ground
Option C Only a VHF radio is required at the aircraft
Option D It is pilot interpreted So ATC is not required
Option C Only a VHF radio is required at the aircraft
With reference to the ground DF the controller can refuse to give a bearing if ______
Option A The requesting aircraft is not from the consenting country
Option B The pilot does not use prescribed terminology
Option C Conditions are poor and bearing do not fall at station’s classification limits
Option D None of the above
Option C Conditions are poor and bearing do not fall at station’s classification limits
When aircraft receives a class A true bearing from the VDF station this is ______
Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees
Option B QUJ accurate to ±2 degrees
Option C QUJ accurate to ±5 degrees
Option D QTE accurate to ±5 degrees
Option A QTE accurate to ±2 degrees
A class C magnetic heading is received from the station This is ______
Option A QUJ Accurate to ±5 degrees
Option B QDM Accurate to ±10 degrees
Option C QTE Accurate to ±5 degrees
Option D QDR Accurate to ±10 degrees
Option D QDR Accurate to ±10 degrees
When the pilot is conducting a QDM QGH approach he will require ______
Option A No operator on the ground for either VDF or QGH approach
Option B An operator on the ground only for VDF procedure
Option C An operator on the ground only for QGH procedure
Option D An operator on the ground for both VDF and QGH procedures
Option D An operator on the ground for both VDF and QGH procedures
The VDF homer service provides ______
Option A Accurate bearings on demand
Option B Bearings which may be affected by synchronous transmissions
Option C A QGH procedure to transmit aircraft to transiting aircraft
Option D Bearings which will normally be within ±5 degrees accurately to a 20 nautical mile range
Option D Bearings which will normally be within ±5 degrees accurately to a 20 nautical mile range
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction finder is ______
Option A VHF compass operating in 500 kHz to 1000 kHz range
Option B Coarse deviation indicator DI
Option C VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
Option D VHF transmitter receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
Option D VHF transmitter receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
Class B bearing has accuracy limits of ± ______
Option A 2 degrees
Option B 3 degrees
Option C 5 degrees
Option D 7 degrees
Option C 5 degrees
VDF for aeronautical use provides service in frequency range ______
Option A 108 to 118 MHz
Option B 108 to 136 MHz
Option C 118 to 136 MHz
Option D 130 to 300 MHz
Option C 118 to 136 MHz
In flight a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by ______
Option A Increasing altitude
Option B Decreasing altitude
Option C Speaking louder
Option D Flying out of clouds
Option A Increasing altitude
What is the Q code for magnetic bearing from VDF station ______
Option A QNH
Option B QTE
Option C QDR
Option D QDM
Option C QDR
A negative westerly magnetic variation signifies that ______
Option A True North is East of Magnetic North
Option B True North is West of Magnetic North
Option C Magnetic North is West of Compass North
Option D Magnetic North is East of Compass North
Option A True North is East of Magnetic North
A nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is ______
Option A Scale at the standard parallels
Option B Scale at the equator
Option C Scale at the midway point between two standard parallels
Option D Everywhere on the chart
Option C Scale at the midway point between two standard parallels
A positive or easterly magnetic variation signifies that ______
Option A True North is East of Magnetic North
Option B True North is West of Magnetic North
Option C Magnetic North is West of Compass North
Option D Magnetic North is East of Compass North
Option B True North is West of Magnetic North
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on ______
Option A Lambert’s Conformal
Option B Transverse Mercator
Option C Stereographical Projection
Option D Direct Mercator
Option C Stereographical Projection
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart the convergence of a meridian is ______
Option A Same as Earth Convergency at Parallel of Origin
Option B Same as the Scale
Option C Most Accurate at Standard Parallels
Option D Least Accurate at Parallel of Origin
Option A Same as Earth Convergency at Parallel of Origin
On a Direct Mercator chart a rumb line appears as ______
Option A Curve Concave to the nearest poles
Option B Curve Convex to the nearest poles
Option C Straight line
Option D Curve Convex to the equator
Option C Straight line
On a Lambert Conformal conic projection with two standard parallels the scale is ______
Option A Correct only along the parallel of origin
Option B Correct only at the poles
Option C Correct only along the standard parallels
Option D Correct at all points on the chart
Option C Correct only along the standard parallels
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart the two standard parallels the coded scale is ______
Option A Correct midway between the two standard parallels
Option B Correct only along the two standard parallels
Option C Correct only at the center of the chart
Option B Correct only along the two standard parallels
On a Direct Mercator chart a rumb line appears as ______
Option A Straight line
Option B Curve-convex to the equator
Option C Curve-concave to the equator
Option D Curve-concave to the nearest poles
Option C Curve-concave to the equator
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart earth convergence is most accurately represented at the ______
Option A Standard parallels
Option B Outside the standard parallels
Option C At all points between standard parallels
Option D Parallel of origin
Option D Parallel of origin
On a transverse Mercator chart scale is exactly correct along the ______
Option A Meridian of tangency
Option B Prime meridian
Option C Standard latitudes
Option D Latitude of origin
Option A Meridian of tangency
The angular difference on a Lambert conformal conic chart between arrival and departure track is equal to ______
Option A Departure angle
Option B Map convergence
Option C Secant of half latitude
Option D Secant of longitude
Option B Map convergence
Parallels of latitude except the equator are ______
Option A Rhumb line
Option B Great circle
Option C Curves convex to the nearest pole
Option D Curves concave to the nearest pole
Option A Rhumb line
On a direct Mercator chart meridians are ______
Option A Parallel equally spaced horizontal straight lines
Option B Converging curved lines
Option C Parallel equally spaced vertical straight lines
Option D Diverging curved lines
Option C Parallel equally spaced vertical straight lines
On which of the following chart projection is it not possible to represent the north or south poles ______
Option A Polar stereographic
Option B Transverse Mercator
Option C Lambert’s conical
Option D Direct Mercator
Option D Direct Mercator
Which one of the following concerning great circle on a direct Mercator chart is correct ______
Option A With the exception of meridians and equator they are curves concave to equator
Option B Straight lines
Option C Curves concave to the nearest pole
Option D With the exception of meridian and equator as curves convex to the equator
Option A With the exception of meridians and equator they are curves concave to equator
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the distance between parallels of latitudes spaced the same number of degrees apart ______
Option A Increases between and reduces outside of the standard parallels
Option B Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels
Option C Is constant between the standard parallels
Option D Is constant outside the standard parallels
Option B Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels
Which of the following statement is correct concerning the appearance of the great circles with the exception of meridians on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the poles ______
Option A The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines
Option B The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines
Option C Never approximate to straight lines
Option D Always approximate to straight lines
Option A The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines
Which of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines except meridians on a polar stereographic chart ______
Option A Straight line
Option B Curve concave to the pole
Option C Approximately straight lines
Option D Curves closer to the pole than the equivalent great circle
Option B Curve concave to the pole
Which of the following value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart ______
Option A 2.0
Option B 1.5
Option C 1.0
Option D 0.5
Option C 1.0
On a direct Mercator rhumb lines are ______
Option A Straight line
Option B Curve concave to the nearest pole
Option C Curve convex to the nearest pole
Option D Curves concave to equator
Option A Straight line
A perfectly straight line on Lambert’s chart is ______
Option A A parallel of latitude
Option B A rhumb line
Option C A meridian of longitude
Option D A great circle
Option C A meridian of longitude
Which of the following statement best describes how scale varies on a Mercator chart ______
Option A It is correct on the standard parallels but expands outside them and contracts with them
Option B Expands as the secant of east-west great circle distance
Option C Expands as the secant of half X co-latitude
Option D Expands directly with the secant of latitude
Option D Expands directly with the secant of latitude
How do rhumb lines other than meridians appear on polar stereographical charts ______
Option A As straight line
Option B As lines concave to the nearest pole
Option C As lines convex to the nearest pole
Option D As ellipses around the pole
Option B As lines concave to the nearest pole
Where is the convergency correct on a transverse Mercator chart ______
Option A At the datum meridian and the equator
Option B Only at the equator and poles
Option C Only at the datum meridian
Option D At the parallel of origin
Option A At the datum meridian and the equator
In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one of the poles ______
Option A Lambert’s
Option B Direct Mercator
Option C Transverse Mercator
Option D Stereographic
Option D Stereographic
How are great circles shown on a direct Mercator chart ______
Option A Curves concave to the nearest pole
Option B Curve convex to the nearest pole
Option C Straight line
Option D Rhumb Line
Option B Curve convex to the nearest pole
The scale on Lambert’s conformal conic chart ______
Option A Constant
Option B Constant along a parallel of latitude
Option C Constant along a meridian of longitude
Option D Varies slightly as a function of longitude and latitude
Option B Constant along a parallel of latitude
The scale is correct on a transverse Mercator chart ______
Option A Along the datum meridian and meridian at 90 degree to it
Option B At prime meridian
Option C Along the great circle of tangency
Option D At the poles and at the equator
Option C Along the great circle of tangency
A great circle on the Earth running from North Pole to South Pole is called ______
Option A A meridian
Option B A longitude
Option C A difference of longitude
Option D Paddle of latitude
Option A A meridian
In which occasions does the rhumbline track and great circle track coincide on the surface of Earth ______
Option A On east-west tracks in northern hemisphere north of the magnetic equator
Option B On high latitude tracks directly east-west
Option C On north-south tracks and on east-west tracks along the equator
Option D On east-west tracks in polar regions
Option C On north-south tracks and on east-west tracks along the equator
If you are flying along the parallel of latitude you are flying ______
Option A A great circle track
Option B A north-south track
Option C A rhumbline track
Option D On a track which is constantly changing direction
Option C A rhumbline track
An aircraft follows a great circle in the northern hemisphere At a certain moment the aircraft is in position on a great circle where the great circle direction is 270 Continuing on a great circle the ______
Option A Track angle will decrease and latitude will decrease
Option B Track angle will increase and latitude will decrease
Option C Track angle will increase and latitude will increase
Option D Track angle will decrease and latitude will increase
Option A Track angle will decrease and latitude will decrease
An aircraft is in position 86 North 020 East When following the rhumbline track of 85 True it will ______
Option A Follow a line which lies first to the north of the parallel of 86 North but after having passed a DL of 180 to the south of it
Option B Follow a small circle which lies to the north of the parallel of 86 North
Option C Fly to the north pole via an arbitrary line
Option D Fly via a spiral to the north pole
Option D Fly via a spiral to the north pole
The speed V1 is defined as ______
Option A The takeoff decision speed
Option B The takeoff climb speed
Option C The speed for best angle of climb
Option D The engine failure speed
Option A The takeoff decision speed
Given Vs equals to stalling speed Vmca equals to air minimum control speed Vmu equals to minimum unstick speed disregarding engine failure V1 equals to takeoff decision speed Vr equals to rotation speed V2min equals to minimum takeoff speed safety speed Vlof equals to liftoff speed the correct formula is ______
Option A Vs less than Vmca less than V2min
Option B Vr less than Vmca less than Vlof
Option C Vmu less than equals to Vmca less than V1
Option D V2min less than Vmca greater than Vmu
Option A Vs less than Vmca less than V2min
Given that Vef equals to critical engine failure speed Vmcg equals to ground minimum control speed Vmca equals to air minimum control speed Vmu equals to minimum unstick speed V1 equals to takeoff decision speed Vr equals to rotation speed V2min equals to minimum takeoff safety speed the correct formula is ______
Option A V2min less than equals to Vef less than equals to Vmu
Option B Vmcg less than equals to Vef less than V1
Option C 1.05 Vmca less than equals to Vef less than equals to V1
Option D 1.05 Vmcg less than Vef less than equals to Vr
Option B Vmcg less than equals to Vef less than V1
The speed V2 is ______
Option A The lowest safety airspeed at which the airplane is under control with aerodynamic surface in the case of an engine failure
Option B The takeoff safety speed
Option C The speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not takeoff in case of an engine failure
Option D The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems
Option B The takeoff safety speed
What effect has a downhill slope on the takeoff speeds ______
Option A The slope has no effect on the takeoff speed V1
Option B Decreases the takeoff speed V1
Option C Decreases the TAS for takeoff
Option D Increases the IAS for takeoff
Option B Decreases the takeoff speed V1
V2 has to be equal to or higher than ______
Option A 1.15 VMCG
Option B 1.1 VSO
Option C 1.15 VR
Option D 1.1 VMCA
Option D 1.1 VMCA
Which of the following answers is true ______
Option A V1 is less than or equal to Vr
Option B V1 is greater than VLOF
Option C V1 is greater than Vr
Option D V1 is less than VMCG
Option A V1 is less than or equal to Vr
Which statement is correct ______
Option A VMCG
Option B VLOF
Option C VMU
Option D VR
Option A VMCG
Which statement is correct ______
Option A VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1
Option B VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1
Option C VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1
Option D VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1
Option C VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1
Field length is balanced when ______
Option A Takeoff distance equals accelerated stop distance
Option B Calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1 VR-VMCG
Option C All engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected takeoff are equal
Option D One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35’ are equal
Option A Takeoff distance equals accelerated stop distance
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in ______
Option A Takeoff run available
Option B Takeoff distance available
Option C Landing distance available
Option D Accelerated stop distance available
Option D Accelerated stop distance available
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clear way in takeoff calculation is correct ______
Option A V1 is increased
Option B V1 remain constant
Option C The field length limited takeoff mass will increase
Option D The usable length of the clear way is not limited
Option C The field length limited takeoff mass will increase
The takeoff distance available is ______
Option A Total runway length without clear way even if this one exists
Option B Length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clear way available
Option C Runway length minus stop way
Option D Runway length plus half of the clear way
Option B Length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clear way available
On a dry runway the accelerated stop distance is increased ______
Option A By an uphill slope
Option B By headwind
Option C By low outside air temperature
Option D By a lower takeoff mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1
Option A By an uphill slope
The length of a clearway may be included in ______
Option A The distance to reach V1
Option B The takeoff distance available
Option C The accelerated stop distance available
Option D The takeoff run available
Option B The takeoff distance available
What will be the effect on aeroplane’s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased ______
Option A It will increase the takeoff distance required
Option B It will increase the takeoff ground run
Option C It will increase the accelerated stop distance
Option D It will decrease the takeoff distance required
Option D It will decrease the takeoff distance required
How does runway slope affect allowable takeoff mass Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting ______
Option A Allowable takeoff mass is not affected by runway slope
Option B A downhill slope decreases allowable takeoff mass
Option C A downhill slope increases allowable takeoff mass
Option D An uphill slope increases takeoff mass
Option C A downhill slope increases allowable takeoff mass
What will be the influence on aeroplane’s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased ______
Option A It will increase the accelerated stop distance available
Option B It will increase the takeoff distance
Option C It will decrease the takeoff distance
Option D It will increase the takeoff distance available
Option B It will increase the takeoff distance
Uphill slope ______
Option A Increases the allowed take-off mass
Option B Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerated stop distance
Option C Decreases the accelerated stop distance only
Option D Decreases the take-off distance only
Option B Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerated stop distance
The first law of Kepler states ______
Option A Planets move in elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci
Option B Planets move around Sun in a circular path
Option C All planets orbit around Sun at the same speed
Option A Planets move in elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci
What is meant by Aphelion ______
Option A Point of Earth’s orbit furthest away from the Sun
Option B Point of Sun’s orbit furthest away from the Earth
Option C Point of Earth’s orbit closest to the Sun
Option D Point of Sun’s orbit closest to the Earth
Option A Point of Earth’s orbit furthest away from the Sun
Kepler’s second law states ______
Option A The length of radius vector sun to earth is proportional to the square root of its angular speed
Option B The area swept out by the radius vector of each planet sun to earth per hour increases with increasing length of radius
Option C The Earth’s radius vector sun to earth moves at a constant angular speed
Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time
Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time
Which of the highest latitudes listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day ______
Option A 62 degrees
Option B 66 degrees
Option C 72 degrees
Option D 68 degrees
Option B 66 degrees
The main reason for the occurrence of seasons on the Earth is ______
Option A The inclination of the Earth axis with regard to the elliptical plane
Option B The elliptical form of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun
Option C The length of day stated by the second law of Kepler
Option D The distance between the Sun and the Moon
Option A The inclination of the Earth axis with regard to the elliptical plane
Which statement is true about civil twilight ______
Option A The duration of civil twilight on 21st of March and 23rd of September is equal at all places on Earth independent of latitude
Option B Civil twilight at the equator lasts longer than 60°N and 60°S because the radius of the equator is larger than the radius of 60°P
Option C Only the declination of the Sun will affect the duration of civil twilight
Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of civil twilight
Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of civil twilight
In which statement is the mean sun best described ______
Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed
Option B The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the elliptical at uniform speed
Option C The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for mean astronomical and atmospheric refraction
Option D The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean difference in hour angle
Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed
Which statement about the orbit of Earth is correct ______
Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci
Option B The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun midway between the two foci
Option C The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at its center
Option D The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at the point next to its center
Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci
The North and South magnetic poles are the only positions on Earth’s surface where ______
Option A A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical
Option B A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal
Option C A position where the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is a maximum
Option D The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees
Option A A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical
The direction of true north for any observer is ______
Option A The direction of observer’s meridian to the north pole
Option B The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation
Option C The direction of Greenwich meridian to the north pole
Option D The direction of observer’s magnetic north corrected for local variation
Option A The direction of observer’s meridian to the north pole
Deviation on the standby compass is ______
Option A Positive if compass north is to the west of magnetic north
Option B Independent of latitude of aircraft’s position
Option C Dependent on heading of the aircraft
Option D Zero on the magnetic equator
Option C Dependent on heading of the aircraft
Which of the following variables affect deviation ______
1. Magnetic latitude
2. Aircraft heading
3. Aircraft altitude
4. Aircraft electronic equipment
Option A 1, 2, and 4
Option B 1, 2, and 3
Option C 2, and 3
Option D 2, and 4
Option A 1, 2, and 4
The direction of magnetic north at certain position coincides with direction of ______
Option A The great circle to the magnetic north pole
Option B The isogonal line to the magnetic north pole
Option C The isoclinic line to the magnetic north pole
Option D The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field
Option D The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field
In a remote indicating compass RICS the amount of deviation caused by the aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by ______
Option A Mounting the detector unit flux valve in the wingtip
Option B Mounting the flux valve in the cockpit
Option C Positioning the gyroscope in the center of aircraft
Option D Using the vertically mounted gyroscope instead of horizontally mounted one
Option A Mounting the detector unit flux valve in the wingtip
Near the magnetic pole ______
Option A The vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses
Option B The angle of dip is maximal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully horizontally aligned
Option C The angle of dip is minimal whereby a freely suspended compass needle will be almost fully vertically aligned
Option D The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses
Option D The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is too small to permit the use of magnetism and compasses
Which of the following statement about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct ______
Option A Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent
Option B Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of non-permanent nature
Option C Hard iron magnetism is non-permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is permanent
Option D Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of permanent nature
Option A Hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature and soft iron magnetism is non-permanent
The long-term periodic change in Earth’s magnetic field ______
Option A Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles
Option B Is caused by westerly movement of the geographical north pole
Option C Acts mainly on compulsivation
Option D Is caused by sunspot activity
Option A Is reflected in the slow movement of the magnetic poles
The directive force ______
Option A Is the component of Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle
Option B Equals the vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field
Option C Is zero at geographical poles
Option D Is about twice as strong on 60° North-South as on the equator
Option A Is the component of Earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle
What is the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field ______
Option A Is minimum at the magnetic equator
Option B Is very small close to magnetic poles
Option C Is maximum at magnetic poles
Option D Increases with increase in magnetic poles
Option B Is very small close to magnetic poles
The direction magnetic north is at a position on the Earth is ______
Option A The isogonal to the magnetic north pole
Option B The earth circle between the position and the magnetic north pole
Option C The direction of the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field at this position
Option D The compass north at that position corrected for variation
Option C The direction of the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field at this position
The definition of magnetic track angle is ______
Option A The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north
Option B The direction of longitudinal axis of an aircraft to compass north
Option C The direction of a line reference to isogonic lines to the magnetic north pole compass north
Option D The direction of the longitudinal axis of an aircraft to magnetic north
Option A The direction of a line referenced to magnetic north
With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be decrease in the ______
Option A Angle of Depth
Option B Directive Force
Option C Total Magnetic Force of the Earth’s Magnetic Field
Option D Vertical Component of the Earth’s Magnetic Field
Option B Directive Force
When accelerating on easterly heading in the northern hemisphere the compass card of the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass will turn ______
Option A Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Option C Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
Option D Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Sensitivity of direct reading magnetic compass is ______
Option A Proportional to the vertical component of magnetic field of Earth
Option B Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the Earth
Option C Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the magnetic field of the Earth
Option D Proportional to horizontal component of magnetic field of Earth
Option D Proportional to horizontal component of magnetic field of Earth
When turning right from 320° compass to 50° compass in Southern Hemisphere the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will ______
Option A Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
Option B Underindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
Option C Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
Option D Underindicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
Option A Overindicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern Hemisphere from 330°C to 40°C after the turn has been stopped but before a direct indicating magnetic compass settles down will the compass ______
1. Overread or underread and
2. Is this error increased or decreased by liquid swirl ______
Option A 1 Overread 2 Increased
Option B 1 Overread 2 Decreased
Option C 1 Underread 2 Increased
Option D 1 Underread 2 Decreased
Option C 1 Underread 2 Increased
What is magnetic variation ______
Option A The angle between magnetic north and true north
Option B The angle between magnetic heading and magnetic north
Option C The angle between direction indicated on the compass and magnetic north
Option D The angle between true north and compass north
Option A The angle between magnetic north and true north
An aircraft in the Northern Hemisphere makes an accurate rate of 1 turn to the right or starboard If the initial heading was 330° after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read ______
Option A 060°
Option B More than 060°
Option C More or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used
Option D Less than 060°
Option D Less than 060°
At the magnetic equator ______
Option A Deviation is 0
Option B The isogonal is an agonic line
Option C Dip is 0
Option D Variation is 0
Option C Dip is 0
The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field ______
Option A Weakens with increasing distance from magnetic poles
Option B Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole
Option C Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60 degrees
Option D Is approximately the same at magnetic latitude 50 degree north and 50 degree south
Option D Is approximately the same at magnetic latitude 50 degree north and 50 degree south
What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism ______
Option A 45°
Option B 60°
Option C 90°
Option D 180°
Option C 90°
Which of the following is correct when the variation is West ______
Option A True North is East of Magnetic North
Option B Magnetic North is West of Compass North
Option C True North is West of Magnetic North
Option D Compass North is West of Magnetic North
Option A True North is East of Magnetic North
A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is called ______
Option A Agonic line
Option B Aclinic line
Option C Isogonal line
Option D Isotach
Option A Agonic line
How is direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or deadbeat ______
Option A Using pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly
Option B Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass
Option C Using short magnets
Option D Positioning the magnetic assembly mask close to the compass point and using damping wires
Option D Positioning the magnetic assembly mask close to the compass point and using damping wires
At what point on earth is a magnetic compass most effective ______
Option A At geographical equator
Option B Close to magnetic north pole
Option C Close to magnetic south pole
Option D Approximately midway between magnetic poles
Option D Approximately midway between magnetic poles
Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time ______
Option A Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase
Option B Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase or decrease
Option C Increases in the magnetic field cause it to increase
Option D Reduction in the magnetic field cause it to increase
Option B Movements of the magnetic poles cause it to increase or decrease
Which of the following is true of the value of magnetic variation ______
Option A It is zero degree at magnetic equator
Option B It varies between 45 degrees east and 45 degrees west
Option C It cannot exceed 90 degrees
Option D It cannot exceed 180 degrees
Option D It cannot exceed 180 degrees
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate of 1 turn to the right If the initial heading was 135 degrees after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read ______
Option A 225 degrees
Option B Less than 225 degrees
Option C More or less than 225 degrees depending on the pendulous suspension used
Option D More than 225 degrees
Option D More than 225 degrees
When using the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass in the Northern Hemisphere ______
Option A A longitudinal acceleration on westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the south
Option B A longitudinal acceleration on easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the north
Option C A longitudinal deceleration on the westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the north
Option D A longitudinal acceleration on the easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the south
Option B A longitudinal acceleration on easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the north
What is the main cause of permanent magnetism in aircraft ______
Option A Electrical currents in internal wiring and electrical storms
Option B Exposure to the terrestrial magnetic field during normal operation
Option C The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the terrestrial magnetic field
Option D Hammering and the effect of Earth’s magnetic field whilst under construction
Option D Hammering and the effect of Earth’s magnetic field whilst under construction
When accelerating on westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere the compass card of Direct Reading Magnetic Compass will turn ______
Option A Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Option B Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
Option C Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Option D Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
Option C Anticlockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Isogonal coverage at the ______
Option A Magnetic equator
Option B North magnetic pole only
Option C North and south magnetic poles only
Option D North and south geographic and magnetic poles
Option D North and south geographic and magnetic poles
The value of magnetic variation ______
Option A Must be 0 degrees at the magnetic equator
Option B Varies between maximum of 45 degrees east and 45 degrees west
Option C Cannot exceed 90 degrees
Option D Has maximum of 180 degrees
Option D Has maximum of 180 degrees
The first law of Kepler states ______
Option A Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci
Option B Planets move around the Sun in a circular path
Option C All planets orbit around the Sun at the same speed
Option D The angular speed of planets in the orbit around the Sun is constant
Option A Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci
What is meant by Aphelion ______
Option A The point of Earth’s orbit furthest away from the Sun
Option B The point of Sun’s orbit furthest away from the Earth
Option C The point of Earth’s orbit closest to the Sun
Option D The point of Sun’s orbit closest to the Earth
Option A The point of Earth’s orbit furthest away from the Sun
Kepler’s second law states ______
Option A The length of radius vector sun to earth is proportional to square root of its angular speed
Option B The area swept out by the radius vector of each planet sun to earth per hour increases with increasing length of the radius
Option C Each planet’s radius vector sun to earth moves at a constant angular speed
Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time
Option D Each planet revolves so that the radius vector sun to earth sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time
Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day ______
Option A 62°
Option B 66°
Option C 72°
Option D 68°
Option B 66°
The main reason of the occurrence of seasons on Earth is ______
Option A The inclination of Earth’s axis with regard to the elliptic plane
Option B The elliptical form of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun
Option C The length of day stated by the second law of Kepler
Option D The distance between Sun and the Moon
Option A The inclination of Earth’s axis with regard to the elliptic plane
Which statement is true ______
Option A The duration of civil twilight on 21st of March and on 23rd of September is equal at all places on Earth independent of latitude
Option B Civil Twilight at the Equator lasts longer than at 60° North or 60° South because the radius of the Equator is larger than the radius of 60° parallels
Option C Only the declination of the Sun will affect the duration of civil twilight
Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of the twilight
Option D The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer will affect the duration of the twilight
In which statement is the mean sun best described ______
Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed
Option B The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the elliptic at uniform speed
Option C The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean astronomical and atmospheric refraction
Option D The mean sun is a fictitious sun the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun but is corrected for the mean difference in r-angle
Option A The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed
Which statement about the orbit of the Earth is correct ______
Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci
Option B The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun midway between the two foci
Option C The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at its center
Option D The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is a circle with the Sun at the point next to its center
Option A The orbit of Earth around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci
The reason that solar day lasts longer than sidereal day is that ______
Option A Both the direction of rotation of Earth around its axis and its orbital rotation around the Sun are the same
Option B The Sun has its own movement through the Universe opposite to the movement of the Earth due to gravitational forces of the celestial bodies
Option C The orbital speed of the Earth around its axis diminishes slowly
Option D The orbital track of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse
Option A Both the direction of rotation of Earth around its axis and its orbital rotation around the Sun are the same
Which definition describes the best-notion poles ______
Option A The poles are the points of intersection between the surface of Earth and the extended line joining the star Polaris with the center of Earth
Option B The poles are the points on the surface of Earth which have the same distance to all points on the elliptic
Option C The poles are the points on the surface of Earth where gravity acts under the angle of exactly 90 degrees
Option D The poles are the points of interaction between the Earth’s axis and the surface of the Earth
Option D The poles are the points of interaction between the Earth’s axis and the surface of the Earth
The length of the apparent solar day varies continuously throughout the year This is caused by ______
Option A The tilt of the Earth’s axis and the elliptical orbit of the Earth around the Sun
Option B The fact that the Earth is closest to the Sun around 1st of January
Option C The fact that the Earth is closest to the Sun around 1st of July
Option D The equation of time
Option A The tilt of the Earth’s axis and the elliptical orbit of the Earth around the Sun
Which definition of the equator is correct ______
Option A The equator is a great circle with its plane parallel to Earth’s rotational axis
Option B The equator is a small circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth’s rotational axis
Option C The equatorial small circle with its plane parallel to Earth’s rotational axis
Option D The Earth’s equator is a great circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth’s rotational axis
Option D The Earth’s equator is a great circle with its plane perpendicular to Earth’s rotational axis
What is the correct definition of latitude of a position on Earth ______
Option A Latitude is the angle between the plane of the equator and the line from the center of the Earth to the position
Option B Latitude is the angle between the plane of the prime meridian and the plane of the meridian of the position
Option C Latitude is the angle between the Earth’s rotational axis and the line from the center of the Earth to the position
Option D Latitude is the angle between the plane of the elliptic and the parallel of the position
Option A Latitude is the angle between the plane of the equator and the line from the center of the Earth to the position
Geodetic latitude and geographic latitude coincide ______
Option A At the poles and on the equator
Option B At 45°N S
Option C Only at the equator
Option D Only at the poles
Option A At the poles and on the equator
Which statement is correct about the apparent solar day ______
Option A The duration of the apparent solar day is constant throughout the year due to the constant rotational speed of the Earth
Option B The duration of apparent solar day is constant throughout the year due to constant velocity of the Earth in its orbit
Option C The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the true sun through the same meridian
Option D The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the mean sun through the same meridian
Option C The apparent solar day is the period between two successive transits of the true sun through the same meridian
The time interval between sunrise and sunset is dependent on ______
Option A The declination of Sun and the latitude of the observer
Option B The inclination of the axis of the Earth and the longitude of the observer
Option C The date and the longitude of the observer
Option D The latitude and the longitude of the observer
Option A The declination of Sun and the latitude of the observer
Which statement regarding the apparent sun and the mean sun is correct ______
Option A The mean sun moves along the elliptic
Option B The apparent sun moves along the celestial equator
Option C The apparent sun is not important for navigation as differences in time with the mean sun is normally 4 seconds
Option D The apparent sun is the visible sun The mean sun is a fictitious sun
Option D The apparent sun is the visible sun The mean sun is a fictitious sun
The declination of the Sun is defined as ______
Option A The angular distance of the Sun north or south of the celestial equator
Option B The arc from the celestial horizon to the Sun measured along the vertical line perpendicular to the horizon
Option C The arc of the meridian of the Sun measured from the nearest pole to the Sun
Option D The arc along the celestial sphere from zenith to the Sun
Option A The angular distance of the Sun north or south of the celestial equator
An observer is situated on the parallel of latitude 23.5°S Which statement about the passage of the apparent sun in relation to this position is correct ______
Option A It passes through the Zenith i.e. overhead once a year around 21st March
Option B It passes through the Zenith twice a year March 21st and September 23rd
Option C It passes through the Zenith twice a year around 21st June and December 22nd
Option D It passes through the Zenith once a year around December 22nd
Option D It passes through the Zenith once a year around December 22nd
Kepler’s second law states that ______
Option A The radius vector Sun-Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal time
Option B The length of the radius vector Sun-Earth is directly proportional to the square root of its angular speed
Option C The area swept out by the radius vector Sun-Earth per hour increases with the increase in length of the radius vector
Option D The radius vector Sun-Earth moves at constant angular speed
Option A The radius vector Sun-Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal time
Which statement is correct ______
Option A The solar system consists of Sun planets and stars
Option B Sun moves in an elliptical orbit around the Earth
Option C The Earth is one of the planets which are all moving in elliptical orbits around the Sun
Option D The planets move around the Sun like all the stars of the solar system
Option C The Earth is one of the planets which are all moving in elliptical orbits around the Sun
Consider the positions 00NS 00EW and 00NS 180EW on the ellipsoid Which statement about the distances between these positions is correct ______
Option A The route via north pole is shorter than the route along the equator
Option B The route via south pole is shorter than the route via north pole
Option C The route via equator is shorter than the route via south pole
Option D The route via either pole and the route via equator are of equal length
Option A The route via north pole is shorter than the route along the equator
