Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe what is meant by drug-induced lupus erythematosus [4] - include which antibodies are commonly found [2]

Which drugs most commonly cause this? [2]

A

Most common causes
* procainamide (antiarrhythmic)
* hydralazine (antihypertensive agent)

Features:
* arthralgia
* myalgia
* skin (e.g. malar rash) and pulmonary involvement (e.g. pleurisy) are common
* ANA positive in 100%, dsDNA negative
* anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90%
* anti-Ro, anti-Smith positive in around 5%

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2
Q

Describe how you manage long term bisphosphinate treatment [1]

A

After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.

This guidance separates patients into high and low risk groups. To fall into the high risk group, one of the following must be true:
* Age >75
* Glucocorticoid therapy
* Previous hip/vertebral fractures
* Further fractures on treatment
* High risk on FRAX scoring
* T score <-2.5 after treatment

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3
Q

This guidance separates patients into high and low risk groups. To fall into the high risk group, one of the following must be true [6]

A
  • Age >75
  • Glucocorticoid therapy
  • Previous hip/vertebral fractures
  • Further fractures on treatment
  • High risk on FRAX scoring
  • T score <-2.5 after treatment
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4
Q

Alendronate can cause atypical stress fractures of which bone? [1]

A

atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft
- they reduce bone remodelling since they inhibit osteoclasts, which means micro fractures can’t be healed as well.

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5
Q

Describe the acute phase response of bisphosphinate initiation [3]

A

acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia may occur following administration

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6
Q

What change in Ca levels would occur with bisphosphinate tx? [1]

A

hypocalcaemia: due to reduced calcium efflux from bone. Usually clinically unimportant

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7
Q

What are RA x-ray changes? [5]

A

loss of joint space
juxta-articular osteoporosis
soft-tissue swelling
periarticular erosions
subluxation

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8
Q

How do you differentiate gout from pseudogout on x-ray? [1]

A

Chondrocalcinosis helps to distinguish pseudogout from gout

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9
Q

Name two drug classes that cause erythema nodosum [2]

A

penicillins; sulphonamides

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10
Q

Felty’s syndrome is a triad of []

A

Felty’s syndrome is a triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia (low white cell count).

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

Pneumonic for remembering causes of erythema nodosum? [+]

A

NO : idiopathic
D : drugs → penicillin sulphonamides
O : oral contraceptives / pregnancy
S : sarcoidosis / TB
U : ulcerative colitis / Crohn’s disease / Behçet’s disease
M : micro → strep, mycoplasma, EBV and more

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13
Q

The concurrent use of [] and [] containing antibiotics may cause bone marrow suppression and severe or fatal pancytopaenia

A

The concurrent use of methotrexate and trimethoprim containing antibiotics may cause bone marrow suppression and severe or fatal pancytopaenia

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14
Q

What would indicate that Raynaud’s is primary and not a secondary cause? [1]

A

Raynaud’s disease typically presents in young women (e.g. 30 years old) with bilateral symptoms.

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15
Q

What is the difference in treatment betwen mild and moderate fungal nail infections in terms of:
- presenting features [1]
- treatment [1]

A

Mild:
- < 2 nails impacted
- Topical amorolfine

Moderate:
- > 2 nails impacted
- Oral itraconazole

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16
Q

[] score is a useful tool to assess hypermobility.

A

Beighton score is a useful tool to assess hypermobility.

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17
Q

A patient has gout, which they are given long term treatment for.

He comes in with an acute exercabation of another illness he has.

A FBC reveals pancytopenia.

The interaction of which medications is likely to have caused this? [2]

A

Azathioprine and allopurinol have a severe in teraction causing bone marrow suppression

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18
Q

What is the difference in underlying pathologies causing:

Low calcium, raised phosphate, raised ALP, raised PTH
versus
Low calcium, low phosphate, raised ALP, raised PTH

A

Low calcium, raised phosphate, raised ALP, raised PTH = kidney failure

Low calcium, low phosphate, raised ALP, raised PTH = osteomalacia

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19
Q

What is the immediate plan for a patient who has a fragility fracture and is over 75? [1]

A

Start alendronate in patients >= 75 years following a fragility fracture, without waiting for a DEXA scan
- the most likely diagnosis is osteoporosis

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20
Q

Which two key parts of a question indicate a patient is suffering from polymalgia rheumatica? [2]

A

Shoulder Girdle pain x raised ESR

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21
Q

A 57-year-old female has noticed that the skin on her hands has become very tight and that her fingers sometimes turn blue. She has also had difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. What autoantibody is most associated with these symptoms?

Anti-centromere
Anti-topoisomerase (anti-Scl-70)
Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA)
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
Anti-mitochondrial (AMA)

A

A 57-year-old female has noticed that the skin on her hands has become very tight and that her fingers sometimes turn blue. She has also had difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. What autoantibody is most associated with these symptoms?

Anti-centromere - patient has limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

Anti-topoisomerase (anti-Scl-70) - for diffuse systemic sclerosis

anti-centromere –>’mere’ and ‘limited’ are synonyms

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22
Q

[RA drug] - may result in a severe and permanent retinopathy

A

Hydroxychloroquine - may result in a severe and permanent retinopathy

Donald trump loves hydroxychloroquine- wouldn’t stop going on about it
He is orange (skin pigmentation), he is nightmarish (nightmares), always looks like he’s squinting (reduced visual acuity- bullseye retinopathy), and his brother died from alcoholism (liver toxicity)

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23
Q

Schober’s test < [] cm is suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis.

A

Schober’s test < 5 cm is suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis.

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24
Q

Which of the following antibodies is most specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

Anti-nuclear factor
Anti-centromere antibodies
Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-Jo 1antiobodies

A

Which of the following antibodies is most specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

Anti-nuclear factor
Anti-centromere antibodies
Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-Jo 1antiobodies

25
Q

[]’ and ‘[]’ deformity are typical x-ray features in psoriatic arthritis

A

‘Plantar spur’ and ‘pencil and cup’ deformity are typical x-ray features in psoriatic arthritis

26
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - x-ray findings: [3]

A

Ankylosing spondylitis - x-ray findings: subchondral erosions, sclerosis
and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

27
Q

A positive Schirmer’s test would indicate which antibodies to be present? [2]

A

Positive Schirmer’s test are suggestive of Sjogren’s syndrome. Positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies

28
Q

Co-trimoxazole contains trimethoprim and therefore should never be prescribed with []

A

Co-trimoxazole contains trimethoprim and therefore should never be prescribed with methotrexate

29
Q

Which SLE drug is safe in pregnancy? [1]

A

Aziothropine

30
Q

Inflammatory arthritis involving DIP swelling and dactylitis points to a diagnosis of []

Name another common symptom associated with this condition [1]

A

Inflammatory arthritis involving DIP swelling and dactylitis points to a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis

Commonly presents with Onycholysis

31
Q

A patient is diagnosed with dermatomyositis.

What is the initial investigation and why? [2]

A

Dermatomyositis is commonly a paraneoplastic phenomenon - therefore perform a CT chest/abdomen/pelvis

32
Q

Patients with suspected visual loss secondary to temporal arteritis are usually given [] initially

A

Patients with suspected visual loss secondary to temporal arteritis are usually given IV methylprednisolone initially

33
Q

Which complication are people with Marfan’s most likely to suffer from? [1]

A

Pneumothorax

34
Q

When does NICE recommend NOT giving bisphosphinates to patients with osteoporosis? [1]

What should you give instead? [1]

A

bisphosphinates:
- contraindicated if the eGFR is less than 35

Denosumab: used as 2nd linea after bisphosphinates

35
Q

A patient has RA.

Which medication is causing this condition? [1]

A

Hydroxychloroquine:
- ‘bull’s eye maculopathy’

36
Q

Fibromyalgia typically presents in which patient aged population? [1]

Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) typically presents in which patient aged population? [1]

Describe the difference in presentation between them [2]

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) typically presents in older adults with bilateral aching and stiffness in the shoulder and hip girdle muscles, often with morning stiffness lasting more than an hour.

Fibromyalgia typically affects younger individuals and presents with chronic widespread pain, tenderness at specific points, fatigue, and sleep disturbances.

37
Q

[] is a pharmacological option for Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

Nifedipine is a pharmacological option for Raynaud’s phenomenon
- causes vasodilation

38
Q

Describe the basic pathophysiology of osteogenesis imperfecta (more commonly known as brittle bone disease) [1]

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • abnormality in type 1 collagen due to decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides
39
Q

TOM TIP: The key feature that often appears in exams that should make you think about osteogenesis imperfecta is the []

This is a unique feature that examiners love to drop in. The exam patient may be a young child with unusual and recurrent fractures that would normally make you consider safeguarding, however “you notice a blue discolouration to the sclera”.

A

TOM TIP: The key feature that often appears in exams that should make you think about osteogenesis imperfecta is the blue sclera.

This is a unique feature that examiners love to drop in.

The exam patient may be a young child with unusual and recurrent fractures that would normally make you consider safeguarding, however “you notice a blue discolouration to the sclera”.

40
Q

Tx for osteogenesis imperfecta? [2]

A

The underlying genetic condition cannot be cured. Medical treatments include:

  • Bisphosphates to increase bone density
  • Vitamin D supplementation to prevent deficiency
41
Q

What blood results would you see in osteogenesis imperfecta? [1]

A

**Adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP and PO4 results **are usually NORMAL in osteogenesis imperfecta

Osteogenesis Imperfecta…but PERFECT blood results.

42
Q

Drug induced lupus can be indicated by which antibodies being present? [1]

A

anti-histone antibodies

Drug induced lupus: The answer is in their HISTory (drugs) –> anti-HISTone

43
Q

In which cases of osteoporosis do you manage immediately (i.e. before a DEXA scan) ? [2]

A

A postmenopausal woman, or a man age ≥50 has a symptomatic osteoporotic vertebral fracture

44
Q

How can you differentiate between septic and reactive arthritis with regards to time frame of previous infection? [2]

A

Septic arthritis:
- Usually around 1 week

Reactive arthritis:
- Precedes 2-4 weeks prior

45
Q

Pneumonic for remembering which drugs cause / trigger psoriasis [7]

A

BALI TAN ‘I got a tan in Bali’

B blockers, Antimalarials/ACEi, Lithium, Indomethacin/Inflimab
Trauma Alcohol NSAID

46
Q

Describe the pathophysiological cause of ocular complications in temporal arteritis [1]

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy accounts for the majority of ocular complications in temporal arteritis

47
Q

If a patient is having renal complications of systemic sclerosis - which drug should you give? [1]

A

Renal complications of systemic sclerosis - ACE-inhibitors

48
Q

How do you treat temporal arteritis when there is suspected visual impairment? [1]

A

Urgent IV methylprednisolone and admit to ophthalmology

49
Q

How do you adapt osteoporosis management plans if a patient is on a long term steroid?

A
  • aged > 65 no need DEXA
  • aged < 65 do DEXA first
  • if T score less than 1.5 -> give alendronate
  • If T score more than 1.5 ->repeat scan 1-3 yearly
50
Q

What is important to note before prescribing bisphosphinates? [1]

A

Hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before giving bisphosphonates

51
Q

Low levels of which one of the following types of complement are associated with the development of systemic lupus erythematous?

C4
C5
C6
C7
C8

A

SLE: complement levels (C3, C4) are usually low during active disease - may be used to monitor flares

52
Q

A patient has anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy (AION) secondary to temporal arteritis.

What is the most likely finding on fundoscopy? [1]

A

swollen pale disc and blurred margins

53
Q

Should oral bisphosphonates be taken with / without food? [1]

A

Oral bisphosphonates should be swallowed with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast

54
Q

A patient has gout and RA.

Which two medications would you avoid co-prescribing because of the risk of bone marrow suppression? [2]

A

Azathioprine and allopurinol have a severe interaction causing bone marrow suppression

55
Q
A
56
Q

Treatment for fibromyalgia? [4]

A
  • explanation
  • aerobic exercise: has the strongest evidence base
  • cognitive behavioural therapy
  • medication: pregabalin, duloxetine, amitriptyline
57
Q

AS presents with reduction of which movements in clinical examination? [3]

A
  • reduced lateral flexion
  • reduced forward flexion - Schober’s test - a line is drawn 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples (dimples of Venus). The distance between the two lines should increase by more than 5 cm when the patient bends as far forward as possible
  • reduced chest expansion
58
Q

When do you give oral prednisolone vs IV methylpredinisolone for temporal arteritis? [1]

A

Oral pred:
- no visual changes or other ischaemic organ damage

IV methylprednisolone:
- patients with visual changes

59
Q
A