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POWELL PRACTICE EXAM TITLE 22 - NOVEMBER > QUESTIONS 101-201 > Flashcards

QUESTIONS 101-201 Flashcards

1
Q 
How often does the QA Committee meet?
F-520
1. Annually
2. Quarterly
3. Monthly
4. No requirements
A

Quarterly

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2
Q 
Per Title 22, how often does the QA Committee meet?
72525
1. Not required
2. 6 month intervals
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly
A

Not required

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3
Q 
What is the consequences to a facility for not being found in substantial compliance within 3 months after being found out of compliance?
(Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P)
1. Civil penalties
2. Denial of payment for new admissions
3. POC
4. Notice of Isolated Deficiencies
A

Denial of payment for new admissions

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4
Q 
what is another term for the Enforcement Grid?
(Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P)
1. Citation Grid
2. Scope & Severity Grid
3. State Grid
4. Substantial Compliance Grid
A

Scope & Severity Grid

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5
Q 
Scope refers to what?
(Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P)
1. Isolated
2. Pattern
3. Widespread
4. All the above
A

All the above

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6
Q 
The best example of severity is which of the following?
(Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P)
1. Substantial compliance
2. K
3. POC
4. Immediate Jeopardy
A

Immediate Jeopardy

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7
Q

What is the civil money penalty for a category 2 deficiency? (Deficiencies Matrix, SOM, Appendix P)

  1. $1000 - $5000 per violation
  2. $50 - $3000 per day of non-compliance
  3. $3050 - $10,000 a day
  4. $1000 - $5000 per instance
A

$50 - $3000 per day of non-compliance

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8
Q

Which of the following is part of Task 1?
(SON, Appendix P)
1. Entrance
2. Sample Selection
3. Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report (CASPER)
4. Tour

A

Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Report

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9
Q 
What report provides information from a facilities last survey compared to State, Region and National averages?
(Survey Protocol, SOM. Appendix P
1. Resident Level Summary
2. OSCAR/Casper Report 3
3. Facility QI Report
4. OSCAR/Casper Report 4
A

OSCAR/Casper Report 4

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10
Q 
What report shows the compliance history of a history of a facility for the last four surveys?
(Survey Protocol, SOM, Appendix P)
1. OSCAR/Casper Report 3
2. OSCAR
3. OSCAR Report 4
4. Facility Quality Indicator Profile
A

OSCAR/Casper Report 3

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11
Q 
What is the allowable time span between the evening meal and the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack?
(F-368)
1. 10 hours
2. 16 hours
3. 12 hours
4. 18 hours
A

16 hours

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12
Q 
Per State regulations, what is the allowable time span between the evening meal and the breakfast meal given that there was an evening snack?
72335
1. 14 hours
2. 16 hours
3. 12 hours
4. 18 hours
A

14 hours

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13
Q

What is the full name of the regulatory changes to the Federal Social Security Act in 1987 that significantly changed how nursing homes and home health agencies are regulated for Medicare and Medicaid certification?

  1. National Labor Relations Act
  2. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
  3. Surveyor Guidelines
  4. Older American Act
A

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act OBRA

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14
Q

What report shows the facilities quality indicators with State and National comparisons?
SOM Appendix P
1. Facility Characteristics Report
2. Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile
3. Resident Level Summary Report
4. Resident Listing Report

A

Facility Quality Measure/Indicator Profile

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15
Q 
What report do the surveyors use to pick their sample selection?
SOM Appendix P
1. Facility QI Report
2. Resident Listing Report
3. Facility Characteristic Report
4. Resident Level Summary Report
A

Resident Level Summary Report

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16
Q 
How often should dose reduction be attempted regarding sedatives/hypnotics?
F - 329
1. Quarterly
2. 2 timer per year
3. 3 times within 6 months
4. 2 times every 6 months
A

Quarterly

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17
Q 
What best defines a significant change?
F - 274
1. A substantial improvement
2. A substantial decline
3. A substantial improvement or decline
4. Any noticeable change
A

A substantial improvement or decline

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18
Q

Per OBRA, what best describes the approach towards dose reduction of psychopharmacological medications?
F-329
1. 2 times within a year
2. 2 quarters within the first year at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated
3. 3 times within 6 months
4. No requirements

A

2 quarters within the first year at least one month apart and annually thereafter unless contraindicated

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19
Q 
Which of the following best describes a Stage IV pressure sore?
F-314
1. Partial thickness of skin loss
2. Area of redness
3. Exposed bone and muscle
4. Full thickness of skin loss
A

Exposed bone and muscle

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20
Q 
Which of the following describes an "unnecessary drug"?
F-329
1. No indication for use
2. Excessive dose
3. Inadequate monitoring
4. All the above
A

All the above

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21
Q

Per OBRA, which of the following is true regarding the bed hold process?
F-205 & F - 206
1. After 7 daybed hold expires not required to provide bed
2. Must give next available bed even after 7 day bed hold expires
3. Bed hold are only offered to Medical residents
4. If bed hold state regs followed…not required to provide next available bed after 7 day bed hold expires

A

Must give next available bed even after 7 day bed hold expires

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22
Q

What best describes a Stage I pressure sore?
F-314
1. Presents as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater
2. Exposed bone and/or muscle
3. Full thickness of skin loss
4. Persistent area of skin redness

A

Persistent area of skin redness

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23
Q 
A citation "AA" would be a result of what?
Health & Safety code 1424.5
1. G deficiency
2. A deficiency resulting in death
3. J Deficiency
4. Citation C
A

A deficiency resulting in death

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24
Q

Which of the following are allowable reasons for transfer or discharge?
F - 177, F - 201-204
1. Residents welfare cannot be met in the facility
2. Resident’s health has improved not longer needing facility services
3. Resident has not paid facility after reasonable notice
4. All the above

A

All the above

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25
Q 
Title 22 is found in what book of regulations?
(No reference)
1. 42 CFR (Code of Federal Regulations)
2. CCR (California Code of Regulations)
3. Health & Safety Code
4. OBRA
A

CCR (California Code of Regulations)

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26
Q

The required internal temperature when cooking poultry should be what?

  1. 145 F
  2. 155 F
  3. 165 F
  4. 175 F
A

165 F

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27
Q 
The required internal temperature when cooking red meat should be what?
F - 371 & 372
1. 145 F for 15 seconds
2. 165 F for 15 seconds
3. 155 F for 15 seconds
4. 175 F for 15 seconds
A

145 F for 15 seconds

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28
Q 
The require internal temperature when cooking fish should be what?
F - 371 & 372
1. 145 F for 15 seconds
2. 165 F for 15 seconds
3. 155 F for 15 seconds
4. 175 F for 15 seconds
A

145 F for 15 seconds

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29
Q

A family member and/or visitor is allowed to bring food and give it to a specific resident and/or other resident’s
F - 371 & 372
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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30
Q 
The grievance process is a part of what program?
F - 223
1. Abuse prevention
2. Admission packet
3. Resident Council
4. Family Council
A

Abuse prevention

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31
Q

The facility must allow a resident to keep all of their belongings in the facility regardless of quantity and/or of available space?
F-174
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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32
Q 
In issuing a citation which of the following is considered regarding the likelihood that an incident/event did happen?
72701, 73701
1. Time frame to correct
2. Number of residents affected
3. Equipment needed to make correction
4. Substantial probability
A

Substantial Probability

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33
Q 
Which citation involves a minimal relationship?
72701 & 73709
1. Citation "B"
2. Citation "AA"
3. Citation "C"
4. Citation"A"
A

Citation “C”

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34
Q

When all residents are involved in the writing of a citation what must be given?
73715
1. A partial list
2. No list at all
3. A list of all residents
4. Not relevant what residents were affected

A

No list al all

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35
Q 
What is a QIS?
SOM
1. Quality Insurance Survey
2. Quality Indicator System
3. Quality Indicator Survey
4. Quality  Insurance Set
A

Quality Indicator Survey

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36
Q 
How many tasks are in a QIS?
SOM
1. 7
2. 10
3. 8
4. 9
A

9

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37
Q

Substandard Quality of Care (SQOC) found during a QIS standard survey will result in aQIS extended survey/
SOM
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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38
Q

A resident using the phone at the nursing station and/or staff offices satisfies the requirement of having a phone available for the resident.
72617 & F - 174
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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39
Q

Meats being cooled after having been cooked must meet the following requirements.
F - 371&372
1. 140 - 4 degrees within 6 hours
2. 165-70 degrees within first 4 hours
3. 140 - 70 degrees within the first hour
4. 135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours

A

135 - 70 degrees within the first 2 hours

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40
Q

Menus shall be planned with consideration of cultural background and food habits of patients
72341
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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41
Q

Powdered milk may be used as a beverage but not for cooking.
72349
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

42
Q

Meat cooling from 70 degrees after having been cooled for 2 hours must meet what requirement?
F - 371 & 372
1. 70 - 45 degrees in 4 hours
2. Immediately frozen
3. 70 - 41 degrees within the next 4 hours
4. No requirements

A

70 - 41 degrees in next 4 hours

43
Q

Milk may be dispensed from an approved dispensing device in which of the following?
72349
1. Into a glass pitcher to be poured into the resident’s drinking glass
2. Individual cartons of milk must be opened in front of the resident right before they drink it
3. No specific requirements
4. Must be poured directly into patient’s drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons

A

Must be poured directly into patient’s drinking glass from the approved dispenser or served in individual cartons

44
Q 
Married couples have the right to what?
F 175
1. Share a room
2. Privacy
3. Choice
4. Dignity
A

Share a room

45
Q 
The issue of dignity most relates to what?
72527 & F-241
1. Privacy
2. Individuality
3. Respect
4. All the above
A

All the above

46
Q 
What is the medication error rate for 45 doses of which 2 were not given and 2 were given at the wrong time?
F-332-333
1. 8.8%
2. 10%
3. 4.65%
4. 5%
A

8.8%

47
Q

All facilities get a QIS survey.
SOM
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

48
Q 
Who approves the facility for the QIS survey?
SOM
1. CMS
2. HCFA
3. DHS
4. The State
A

CMS

49
Q 
Health and Safety Code is to Title 22 what the Code of Federal Regulations is to what?
SOM
1. Quality of Life
2. OBRA
3. Quality of Care
4. Welfare and Institutions Code
A

OBRA

50
Q 
Staff speaking their primary language such as Spanish in front of a resident when the resident only speaks English or any other language is a violation of what regulation?
72527 & F - 241
1. Privacy & Confidentiality
2. Free choice
3. Dignity
4. Abuse
A

Dignity

51
Q 
What is the civil money penalty per instance of noncompliance for a category 2 deficiency?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. $3,050 - $10,000
2. $1000 - $10,000
3. $50 - $3000
4. $5000
A
  1. $1000 - $!0,000
52
Q 
What is the civil money penalty per instance of noncompliance for a category 3 deficiency?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. $3050 - $10,000
2. $1000 - $10,000
3. $50 - $3,000
4. $5000
A

$1000 - 10,000

53
Q 
What is the deficiency for a wide spread finding resulting in no actual harm with less than minimum potential?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. F
A

C

54
Q 
What is the deficiency for an isolated finding with actual harm that is not immediate?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. I
2. G
3. D
4. E
A

G

55
Q 
What is the civil money penally per day of noncompliance for a category 2 deficiency?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. $3050 - $10,000
2. $1000 - $10,000
3. $50 - $3000
4. $5000
A

$50 - $3000

56
Q 
What is the civil money penalty per day of noncompliance for a category 3 deficiency?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
1. $50 - 3000 per violation
2. $3050 - $10,000 per day
3. $1000 - $10,000
4. No penalty
A

$3050 - $10,000 per day

57
Q 
Termination of management involves what?
Deficiencies Matrix SOM
1. Category 2 deficiency
2. Substantial probability
3. Category 3 deficiency
4. G deficiency
A

Category 3 deficiency

58
Q 
What is an isolated deficiency causing actual harm that is immediate?
Deficiencies Matrix, SOM
!.  K
2. J
3. I
4. L
A

J

59
Q 
HOW MAUST WASH RAGS IN THE KITCHEN THAT ARE CURRENTLY BEING USED FOR THE DAY BE STORED?
F - 371
1. On a rack
2. Laid out flat
3. Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water
4. No requirements
A

Soaking in a mix of sanitizer & water

60
Q

Hand sanitizer is allowed to be used in the kitchen as a replacement for hand washing with soap & water.
F 371&372
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

61
Q

Which of the following is a required part of the Infection Control Program?
F - 441
1. Isolation procedures
2. Work restrictions for ill employees
3. Screening employees for communicable disease
4. All the above

A

All the above

62
Q

The facility should follow the CDC’s “Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Health Care Settings”
F - 441
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

63
Q 
Which of the following are "Black Box Warning" drugs?
F - 329
1.  Antipsychotics
2 . Antidepressants
3. Beta blockers and narcotics
4. All the above
A

All the above

64
Q

An alert resident who does not have a medical necessity for full length side rails may be allowed to have them if it is his/her preference.
F - 222
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

65
Q

What is true of the reduction process for side rails being used as a restraint?
F - 222
1. There are no reduction requirements
2. The patient must be able to release the device themselves
3. Side rails must be removed immediately
4. Reduction must be gradual

A

Reduction must be gradual

66
Q

Life Safety Code is not an OBRA requirement but rather an OSHA requirement.
F - 454-469
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

67
Q 
When a legal obligation is owed and that obligation is not delivered resulting in a wrong to an individual is known as what?
NHA Book
1. Negligence
2. Malpractice
3. Battery
4. Tort
A

Tort

68
Q 
Intentional threat or action that causes fear to another individual with reasonable alarm for harm is known as what?
NHA Book
1. Negligence
2. Malpractice
3. Battery
4. Assault
A

Assault

69
Q 
Intentional touching of another person without consent of that individual is know as what?
NHA Book
1. Tort
2. Battery
3. Assault
4. Abuse
A

Battery

70
Q

A consent to treat signed upon admission will also suffice as an informed consent.
72528
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

71
Q 
What is the financial fine for writing an insufficient fund check or a fictitious check to the Department for CNA fees?
71841
1. $1000 plus jail
2. $500
3. $10
4. $250 plus community service
A

$10

72
Q

Bed and room assignments for each LN & CNA must be posted daily in a clearly visible space.
72329.1
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

73
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the direct care giver to patient ratio requirement?

  1. 1
  2. Day shift 1:8; Evening shift 1:10; Night shift 1:12
  3. Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13
  4. Day shift 1:6; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:12
  5. Day shift 1:10; Evening shift 1:12; Night shift 1:13
A

Day shift 1:5; Evening shift 1:8; Night shift 1:13

74
Q

Which of the following is the required LN to patient staffing ratio?

  1. 1
  2. 1 LN for 8 or less patients
  3. 1 LN for 10 or less patients
  4. 1 LN for 8 or less depending on census
  5. 1 LN for 15 or less patients
A

1 LN for every 8 or less depending on census

75
Q

In staffing ratios regarding calculations what is the rule regarding census?

  1. 1
  2. Include bed holds
  3. Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period
  4. Base on total number of licensed beds
  5. Use the census at the beginning of the day rather than the end of the day
A

Use the highest census number within the 24 hour period

76
Q

The following statement: “This record shall be retained by the certified nurse assistant for a period of four (4) years starting form the date of enrollment” shall be kept in each CNA personnel file documenting in-service attendance.
71849
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

77
Q 
Of all the theory and clinical hours for the CNA training program which area has by far the greatest focus?
71835
1. Long term care patient
2. Patient care procedures
3. Patient care skills
4. Interpersonal skills
A

Patient Care skills

78
Q

Which of the following are considered direct care givers?
72038
1. CNA’s and LVN’s
2. Psych tech’s and RN’s
3. Nurse assistants in approved training program
4. All the above

A

All the above

79
Q

A patient who is able to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is know as what?

  1. 1
  2. Non ambulatory
  3. Independent
  4. Ambulatory
  5. High level functioning
A

Ambulatory

80
Q

A patient who is unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions is known as what?

  1. 1
  2. Non Ambulatory
  3. Dependent
  4. Handicapped
  5. Low level functioning
A

Non Ambulatory

81
Q

A patient who needs a cane to leave a building under emergency conditions would be considered what?

  1. 1
  2. Independent
  3. Ambulatory
  4. Non Ambulatory
  5. There is o such definition
A

Non Ambulatory

82
Q

Per OBRA, what best defines the regulations for the Medical Director?
F - 501
1. Liaison between administrator and attending physician
2. Consultant to DON
3. Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services
4. Approve Administrative Manual

A

Implement Resident Care Policies and coordinate medical treatment and services

83
Q

Patient call lights should be answered promptly not because it is a regulation but because it is the right thing to do.
72315
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

84
Q

Menus’s shall include seasonal items.
72341
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

85
Q

What is the requirement regarding consultants?
72517
1. Must visit monthly
2. Must visit quarterly
3. No specific requirements
4. Must participate in staff development program

A

Must participate in staff development program

86
Q

If the licensee ever visits the building he/she must have what?
72535
1. Annual health exam
2. No requirement
3. The same health exam requirements as employees
4. Clearance for TB and communicable diseases

A

The same health exam requirements as employees

87
Q 
What are the basic requirements in order to admit a new patient?
72515
1. Bed available
2. An admitting physician
3. Able to provide adequate care
4. Both 2&3
A

An admitting physician
AND
Able to provide adequate care

88
Q 
Who is responsible for screening and accepting patients for admission?
72513
1. Administrator or designee
2. DON
3. Medical Director
4. Both A&B
A

Administrator or designee

89
Q 
Refund policies and out on pass policies are required to be in what manual?
72521
1. No requirement
2. Business office manual
3. Administrative manual
4. Nursing manual
A

Administrative manual

90
Q

If a patient or the patient’s representative cannot communicate with the Licensed Healthcare Practitioner because of a language or communication barrier the facility shall arrange for an interpreter/
72528
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

91
Q

A patient’s medical record may be moved from the facility to an off site forage unit without a waiver from the Department under what circumstances?
72543
1. Patient has expired or discharged
2. Patient has been in the facility for more than 10 years
3. Per patient request
4. Both A&C

A

Patient has expired or discharged

92
Q

Under what circumstances does a facility need a waiver/approval from the Department to move a patient’s record off site?

  1. Patient has expired
  2. Current patient records
  3. Patient has discharged home
  4. There are no exceptions to needing a waiver
A

Current patient records

93
Q 
Which of the following is required to be on the admission record?
72545
1. Podiatrist
2. Dentist
3. Psychologist
4. None of the above
A

None of the above

94
Q 
The route of the administration of drugs must be documented unless given how?
72547
1. Crushed
2. Injection
3. Orally
4. G-tube
A

Orally

95
Q 
Refund Policies, rate of charge for services, basic rate and type of services provided are all required to be in what Manual?
72521
1. Patient Care P&P manual
2. Business office P&P manual
3. Administrative P&P manual
4. Personnel P&P manual
A

Administrative P&P Manual

96
Q

All policies and procedures are available to the public.
72521
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

97
Q 
A violation of a statute or regulation which causes a direct relationship to the health, safety or security of the patient is know as what?
73705
1. Direct relationship
2. Class "A" violation/citation
3. Class "B" violation/citation
4. Both 1&3
A

Direct relationship
AND
Class “B” violation/citation

98
Q 
A violation of a statute or a regulation relating to the operation or maintenance of any facility which the department determines has only minimal relationship to the health and safety of the patients would be considered what?
72701, 73709
1. Class "C" violation
2. Class "A" violation
3. Direct relationship
4. Class "B" violation
A

Class C violation

99
Q 
A violation of a statute or regulation which presents an imminent danger to the patient's health and or safety is best defined as what?
73702
1. Class "C" violation
2. Class "A" violation
3. Direct relationship
4. Class "D" violation
A

Class “A”

100
Q 
What is the required internal temperature for re-heating food to ensure safety from food borne illness?
F - 371 & 372
1. 165 F
2. 175 F
3. 165 F for all parts
Refer to standard temp chart
4.
A

165 F for all parts

101
Q

If a licensee wants to make changes to the Standard Admissions Agreement, they may receive the Department’s approval by submitting specific changes.
73518
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

POWELL PRACTICE EXAM TITLE 22 - NOVEMBER (2 decks)

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