QUESTIONS 1-100 Flashcards

1
Q

No nursing facility, agency, or public institution shall make or disseminate false or misleading statements or advertisements regarding training provided.
71828
TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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2
Q

Which of the following is a requirement of the DSD or Instructor during a performance evaluation for non-certified nursing assistants?
71833
1. A performance evaluation is not a requirement
2. Must be an LVN or RN
3. Must be free from other responsibilities
4. Non-certified nursing assistants are not allowed to work in a SNF

A

Must be free from other responsibilities

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3
Q
In a certified treaing program, supervised clinical training shall be done between what hours?
71835
1. 6:00am to 6pm
2. 7:00am to 5:00pm
3. 9:00am to 4:30pm
4. 6:00am to 8:00pm
A

6:00am to 8:00pm

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4
Q

Prior to any direct contact with a patient at least 16 hours of training shall be provided in the following areas except?
71835
1. Communications and interpersonal skills
2. Promoting the independence of patients
3. Infection Control
4. Assessment and diagnosis

A

Assessment and diagnosis

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5
Q
Which module addresses bed making, admissions, collections of specimens, bandages and dry dressing?
71835
1. Patient care skills
2. Long term care patients
3. Patient care procedures
4. Introduction
A

Patient care procedures

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6
Q

When a non-certified or certified assistant has a change of address who is responsible to notify the Department?
71837
1. The DSD or instructor
2. The individual applying or holding the certificate
3. The Facility
4. The administrator

A

The individual applying or holding the certificate

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7
Q
When an individual completes the CNA program and passes the examination, who notifies the Department?
71837
1. Administrator
2. Individual completing the program
3. The DSD or instructor
4. The facility
A

The DSD or instructor

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8
Q
One hour of class room theory shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's?
71845
1. 1 hour
2. 2 hours
3. 3 hours
4. 0 hours
A

1 hour

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9
Q
Three hours of clinical training shall be accepted as how many hours of CEU's?
71845
1. 1 hour
2. 2 hour
3. 3 hours
4. 0 hours
A

1 hour

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10
Q
What is the wage requirement for a CNA attending an in service training session? 
71847
1. Half the normal rate
2. Minimum wage
3. At least the normal hourly wage
4. Double time
A

At least the normal hourly wage

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11
Q
Providers who are out of compliance with chapter 2.5 shall make the corrections to the program within what time frame?
71856
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 2 months
4. 90 days
A

60 days

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12
Q
An object or an article of clothing or material that is not in itself contaminated but is able to harbor pathogenic microorganisms which may by that means be transmitted to others is known as what?
72049
1. Fomites
2. Scabies
3. Carrier
4. Host
A

Fomites

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13
Q
A voluntary agreement of a patient or representative of an incapacitated patient to accept a treatment or procedure after receiving information is known as what?
72052
1. Voluntary consent
2. Informed consent
3. Consent to treat
4. Admission agreement
A

Informed consent

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14
Q

A licensed Psychiatric Tech is also a licensed nurse.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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15
Q
Unit patient health record is also known as what?
72119
1. Financial chart
2. Patient medical record
3. Patient chart
4.Patient care plan
A

Patient medical record

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16
Q

Separate licenses are required for separate buildings even though they are on the same grounds or adjacent grounds.
72207
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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17
Q

LICENSE RENEWAL FEES ARE REQUIRED TO BE PAID EVEN DURING THE PERIOD OF SUSPENSION.
72215
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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18
Q

How does a licensee keep their license current if their license automatically expires because it was not reinstated during an approved period of suspension?
72215
1. Apply for reinstatement
2. Automatic renewal one year after completion of suspensions
3. Apply for a new license
4. At completion of suspension license will automatically renew

A

Apply for a new license

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19
Q

If an unusual occurrence involves the discontinuance or disruption of services occurring during other than regular business hours of the Department, which of the following would be true?

  1. Fax a written notice to the Department immediately
  2. Call it in and leave a message
  3. Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours
  4. Report verbally within hours of the next business day
A

Make a telephone report ASAP when the Department resumes business hours

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20
Q
How often mud the advisory dentist provide oral hygiene in-service to personnel and review oral hygiene policies and procedures?
72301
1. Quarterly
2. Annually
3. Every 6 months
4. Not required
A

Annually

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21
Q

An unlicensed person may under direct supervision of a licensed nurse or licensed medical personnel may administer the following except which?
72313
1. Medicinal shampoos and baths
2. Laxative, suppositories and enemas
3. Non legend topical applications for intact skin
4. Eye and/or ear drops

A

Eye and/or ear drops

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22
Q

Initials may be used for administering medications or treatment only when?
72313
1. The person’s signature is in the medication/treatment record
2. It is the initials of the nurse giving the medication
3. Only if Policy and Procedure is being followed
4. Only when the 2 hour rule is applied

A

The person’s signature is in the medication/treatment record

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23
Q
What must be taken upon admission?
72315
1. Weight
2. Weight and Length
3. Length
4. Weight, length and height
A

Weight and length

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24
Q

PRN orders for physical restraints are allowed in a
SNF.
72319
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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25
Q

Placing a patient in a room alone as a form of seclusion is allowed.
72319
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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26
Q

Required documentation of the episode leading to a physical restraint is all of the following except which?
72461
1. Type of restraint used
2. Length and restraint time
3. The location in the facility where the restraint was applied
4. Name of person applying the restraint

A

The location in the facility where the restraint was applied

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27
Q

All the following shall be available at the nursing station except which one?
72321
1. Infection control P&P
2. Administrative P&P
3. Drug reference materials
4. Name and address and telephone number of local Health Department

A

Administrative P&P

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28
Q

Recipes for all items that are prepared for therapeutic and regular diets shall be available.
72335
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Plastic ware, china and glassware with chips, cracks or only loss of glaze are not considered hazardous?
72345
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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30
Q
Which of the following method is not appropriate for allowing utensils to drain and dry?
72347
1. Baskets
2. Racks
3. Dry cloths
4. Non absorbant surfaces
A

Dry cloths

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31
Q

Canned food with only seam and/or rim dents may still be used.
72349
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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32
Q

Milk may be poured from plastic water and/or juice dispensers as long as the milk is pasteurized.
72349
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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33
Q

There must be a policy and procedure for left over food.
72349
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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34
Q

The Dietary Supervisor is allowed to do what kitchen task as long as they have sufficient time to do their managerial task?
72351
1. Inspect the kitchen hood sprinkle system
2. Do the food shopping
3. Cook
4. Wash dishes

A

Cook

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35
Q
As a general rule all new drug orders, except when the drug wouldn't start until the next day, shall be available when?
72355
1. The same day 
2. The next day
3. Within 2 hours
4. Within 4 hours
A

The same day

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36
Q

What is the rule for internal and external drugs?
72357
1. They are stored together unless contraindicated
2. They must be stored separately
3. Both are stored in the freezer
4. There are no rules

A

They must be stored separately

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37
Q

Drugs may be transferred between containers.
72357
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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38
Q

What is the storage alternative to discontinued drugs that are not marked?
72357
1. Throw them in the trash
2. Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs
3.. Maintain a separate log
4. Return to pharmacy

A

Store in a separate location marked solely for discontinued drugs

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39
Q

Signature stamps are permissible in being used for signing orders.
72361
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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40
Q
A report of irregularities found during the pharmacy consultant monthly review of the drug regimen should be given to whom?
72375
1. Administrator
2. Primary physician & DON
3. DON
4. Administrator and DON
A

Administrator and DON

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41
Q

It is not a requirement to file an application with the Department for the approval of optional services.
72401
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

42
Q
Special Treatment Program is only allowed in a facility licensed as a what?
72443
1. SNF only
2. ICF only
3. SNF or ICF
4. Neither
A

SNF only

43
Q
A Special Treatment Program is specifically designed for what group?
72443
1. Alcohol and drug abuse
2. Developmentally disabled
3. Mental retardation
4. Mentally disordered
A

Mentally disordered

44
Q

A physician may deny or limit a patient’s right for good cause except for which one?
72453
1. Right to refuse lobotomy
2. Right to refuse shock treatment
3. Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment
4. Right to refuse medication

A

Right to refuse lobotomy and shock treatment

45
Q

The delegation of any authority by a licensee shall do what?
72501
1. Diminish the responsibility for the licensee
2. Alleviates 50% of the responsibility for the license
3. Delegate 100% of the responsibility to another authority
4. Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee

A

Does not diminish the responsibility of the licensee

46
Q

In a Special Treatment Program, care plans must be approved, signed and dated by the licensed healthcare professional.
72471
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

47
Q

In the event of a language or communication barrier between staff and patients, arrangements must be made for an interpreter.
72528
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

48
Q

Skilled Nuring facilities are allowed to notify the consumer that they have been approved by the Department with the words “Approved by the California Department of Health Services”
72509
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

49
Q
Who is responsible to make available to staff a copy of Title 22 Division 5 Regulations specific to Skilled Nursing Facilities?
72513
1. Not required
2. Licensee
3. Administrator
4. DON
A

Administrator

50
Q
Who is responsible for keeping staff informed of appropriate additions, deletions and changes to skilled nursing facility regulations?
72513
1. Not required
2. Licensee
3. Administrator
4. DON
A

Administrator

51
Q

Alterations in the Standard Admission Agreement may be made without the Departments approval.
72516
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

52
Q
Who must provide evidence of reviewing recommendations provided by outside resources such as consultants?
72511
1. DON
2.. Administrator
3. Not Required
4. Medical Records
A

Administrator

53
Q

A licensee who follow the bed hold process in its exactness as required by Title 22 is still required to provide the next available bed even if it is beyond the 7 day bed hold.
72521
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

54
Q

What is the exception to the required Admission and Discharge Policy and Procedure specific to race, color, religion, ancestry or national origin?
72521
1. Exempt for profits
2. Any bona fide non-profit
3. Any bona fide non-profit that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section
4. There are no exceptions

A

Any bona fide non-profit proving that its substantial purpose is not to evade this section

55
Q

What type of documentation must be in the patient health record when an interpreter is used?
72528
1. The full name of the interpreter
2. The interpreter’s relationship to the patient and the facility
3. The name of the interpreter, the agency and their license number
4. Both 1&2

A

The full name of the interpreter
AND
The interpreter’s relationship to the patient and the facility

56
Q
In order for there to be no violation for a treatment given in an emergency situation with no informed consent there must be what?
72528
1. A notice to responsible party
2. Documentation
3. Signed doctors orders
4. No other alternative
A

Documentation

57
Q

Space approved for specific uses at the time of licensure shall be converted to other uses without the approval of the Department.
72603
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

58
Q

A facility discontinuing its re-certification training program must also formally discontinue any beds designated for training purposes.
72607
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

59
Q
In an ICF, what is the time frame for a license application approval or disapproval?
73203
1. 30 Days
2. 60 Days
3. 90 Days
4. No time frame
A

30 days

60
Q

In an ICF, what happens if the department does not give an approval or disapproval for a license application within the given time frame?
73203
1. Nothing, the licensee just waits
2. It is automatically deemed approved
3. It is the licensee’s responsibility to make it happen
4. Must re-apply

A

It is automatically deemed approved

61
Q

If the supervisor of Health Services is an LVN, not an RN, what must be provided?
73319
1. RN consultant not less than 4 hours weekly
2. Part time RN Consultant
3. Full Time RN Consultant
4. No other requirements

A

RN consultant not less than 4 hours weekly

62
Q
In an ICF, what type of milk is the exception and may be served from a dispensing device approved for such use?
73345
1. Buttermilk
2. Homogenized
3. Pasteurized
4. Non-fat milk
A

Homogenized

63
Q

A facilities action to expel or treat negatively a patient within a 120 days of that patient filing a formal complaint to the Department shall be considered what?
73727
1. Illegal
2. Abuse
3. A violation
4. Retaliation for the filing of the complaint

A

Retaliation for the filing of the complaint

64
Q
A resident account on site and available immediately upon request is know as a what?
72529
1. Demand Trust
2. Personal Account
3. Petty Cash
4. Drawing Account
A

Drawing account

65
Q
Which of the following is not a required policy and procedure in the Administrative Manual?
72521
1. Health records
2. Health & Grooming
3. Nursing Services
4. Out on Pass
A

Nursing Servies

66
Q

An organizational chart is required to be in the Administrative Manual.
72521
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

67
Q
Which of the following is not a required physicians services Policy and Procedure in the Patient Care Policy and Procedures manual?
72523
1. Orientation to the facility
2. Physician visits
3. Physician alternate schedules
4. All required physician services
A

All required physician services

68
Q

Which of the following is not a required physician service?
72303
1. Consultant to the DON
2. Health record progress note
3. Patient Diagnosis
4. Written and signed orders for all treatments

A

Consultant to the DON

69
Q

The phone numbers of all of those physicians providing emergency services if the attending physician is unavailable shall be conspicuously posted in the facility.
72301
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

70
Q
Who is responsible to ensure that residents are served their diets as prescribed?
72311
1. Dietician
2. CNA
3. Dietary Supervisor
4. Nursing
A

Nursing

71
Q

In an ICF, what is the basic staffing requirement for a facility with less than 100 beds?
73319
1. RN 8 hours day shift 7 day week
2. LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week
3. Full time RN or LVN
4. RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week

A

RN or LVN 8 hours day shift 7 day week

72
Q
How long should sanitizing and disinfecting recording thermometer charts be kept on file?
72619
1. 3 years
2. 1 year
3. 4 years
4. No requirement
A

1 year

73
Q

Mop heads are required to be changed daily.
72621
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

74
Q

If a physician’s discharge orders do not include provisions for drug disposition, drugs shall be furnished to the patient.
72371
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

75
Q

Doors to resident’s rooms meet the requirement of visual privacy.
72615
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

76
Q
What are the requirements of the head of housekeeping?
72621
1. Experience and training
2. 5 years experience in housekeeping
3. No requirements
4. 90 hours certification program
A

Experience and training

77
Q
Who is responsible for providing medical and standard dictionaries, directories of community resources and current publications relating to gerentological nursing?
72557
1. Facility
2. Nursing
3. Pharmaceutical services
4. Medical Director
A

Facility

78
Q
Which of the following is not required to be provided by the facility?
72557
1. Reading light
2. Flash lights
3. Night stand
4. Transportation
A

Transportation

79
Q

Resident identification at a minimum must include which of the following?
72555
1. Resident name, doctor’s name, facility name
2. Facility name and number
3. Facility name and number, doctor’s name and number
4. Resident and facility name

A

Resident and facility name

80
Q

The name, address and telephone number of the treating psychologist, if such practitioner is primarily responsible for the treatment of the patient, is required to be on the admission record.
72545
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

81
Q

It is not a requirement to note whether a PRN medication was effective or not.
72547
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

82
Q
The patient care Policy Committee shall review and approve the following serves except which one?
72525
1. Nursing Services
2. Infection Control
3. Housekeeping
4. Administration
A

Administration

83
Q

Who reviews and approves Administrative Policy and Procedure Manual?

  1. Administration
  2. Patient Care Policy Committee
  3. Governing body or licensee and Medical Director
  4. Medical Director
A

Governing body or licensee and Medical Director

84
Q
The Pharmaceutical Committee shall be composed of all the following except?
72525
1. Medical Director
2. DON
3. Administrator
4. Pharmacist
A

Medical Director

85
Q
Who is in charge of monitoring Policies and Procedures for storage, distribution and use of drugs?
72525
1. Pharmaceutical Committee
2. QA Committee
3. Patient Care Committee
4. Pharmacy Consultant
A

Pharmaceutical Committee

86
Q
Per OBRA, who is responsible for monitoring the storage, distribution and administration of drugs?
F-520
1. Pharmaceutical Committee
2. QA Committee
3. Patient Care Committee
4. Pharmacy Consultant
A

QA Committee

87
Q
What is Task 4 of the survey process?
(SOM, Appendix P)
1. Tour
2. Information gathering
3. Analyzing information
4. Sample Selection
A

Sample Selection

88
Q
Within what time frame must the results of an abuse investigation be submitted?
F-223
1. 7 days
2. 24 hours
3. 5 days
4. 5 working days
A

5 working days

89
Q

What are the requirements for screening a patient for tuberculosis?
72523
1. Upon admission
2. 30 days prior or 15 days after admission
3. Within 90 days of the date of admission to the facility
4. Both 1&3

A

Upon admission
AND/OR
Within 90 days of the date of admission to the facility

90
Q
What are the requirements to be the Supervisor of Health Services?
73319
1. RN
2. LVN
3. Licensed Nursing Home Administrator
4. RN or LVN
A

RN or LVN

91
Q
In an ICF who is allowed to review medications monthly?
73313
1. Pharmacist
2. RN
3. RN or Pharmacist
4. Licensed Nurse or Pharmacist
A

RN or Pharmacist

92
Q
Which of the following is discussed in the second 8 hours of orientation?
71833
1. Communication System
2. Facility tour
3. Philosophy of care
4. Unusual Occurrence
A

Philosophy of Care

93
Q
Which of the following is not a general area of service?
72443
1. Self help skills
2. Behavior intervention
3. Prevocational preparation
4. Interpersonal relationships
A

Prevocational preparation

94
Q
Out-of-home placement is a part of what therapeutic service?
72445
1. Social counseling
2. Pre-vocational training
3. Pre-release planning
4. Home making
A

Pre-release planning

95
Q
Frustration tolerance, money management, use of transportation and physical fitness are a part of what general area of service?
72445
1. Pre-release planning
2. Self help skills
3. Behavior intervention
4. Interpersonal relationships
A

Self help skills

96
Q

Helium is a medical gas.
72649
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

97
Q

A Speech Pathologist in a SNF at a minimum must have the following qualifications.
72107
1. A related Degree
2. Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision
3. Licensed by the California Board of Medical Quality Assurance
4. Approved speech tech program

A

Masters degree in the field with authorization to practice under supervision

98
Q
A class "B" violation is best described by what?
73705
1. Imminent danger
2. Minimal relationship
3. Direct relationship
4. Isolated Deficiency
A

Direct relationship

99
Q
"Good Faith" is considered in what process?
72711
1. Issuing a citation
2. Writing a citation
3. Fixing a civil penalty
4. Issuing a 2567
A

Fixing a civil penalty

100
Q
Per OBRA, irregularities found during the monthly drug regimen review are reported to whom?
F-329 and F-428
1. Administrator and DON
2. Administrator, DON and physician
3. Physician and DON
4. Administrator
A

Physician and DON