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BIO DESTROYER > Questions (101-150) > Flashcards

Questions (101-150) Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is found in a prokaryotic cell?

A. Golgi bodies
B. Lysosomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Nucleus
E. A and C
A

C. Ribosomes

Prokaryotes lack organelles such as mitochondria, golgi bodies, ER, nucleus and lysosomes. They do contain ribosomes, nucleic acids, plasma membrane and a nuclear region called a nucleoid.

DONAVIN DAT

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2
Q

Amylases are secreted by:

A. Pancreas
B. Salivary glands
C. Large intestine
D. A and C
E. A and B
A

E. A and B

Salivary and Pancreatic amylase break down carbs. (Pancreas also makes proteases and lipases)

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3
Q

Which is incorrectly matched?

A. spermatogonium : diploid
B. primary spermatocyte : diploid
C. spermatid : diploid
D. oogonium : diploid
E. secondary oocyte : haploid
A

C. spermatid : diploid (incorrectly matched)

Spermatids are haploid cells which can differentiate into mature sperm cells. Sertoli cells are involved with nutrient transformation during this maturation process.

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4
Q

Which statement(s) is correct?

A. Angiosperms include monocots and dicots
B. Cambium tissue cannot develop into xylem or phloem
C. Gymnosperms are the flowering plants
D. Nontracheophytes contain vascular tissue
E. Two of the above

A

A. Angiosperms include monocots and dicots

Angiosperms are divided into monocots (narrow leaves such as grass) and dicots (broad leaves i.e. shrubs).
The undifferentiated cambium tissue develops into phloem and xylem (vascular tissue).

Xylem transports H2O and minerals UP the stem
Phloem transports nutrients DOWN the stem

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5
Q

Why is the difference between xylem and phloem?

A

Xylem transports H2O and minerals UP the stem while Phloem transports nutrients DOWN the stem

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6
Q

What does undifferentiated cambium in plants develop into?

A

Cambium develops into the xylem and phloem

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7
Q

What are the thylakoids in plants?

A

Thylakoids are a series of disks stacked on each other that contain pigments needed for photosynthesis

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8
Q

What organelle of plants control gas exchange by opening and closing?

A

The stomata

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9
Q

A nucleoside consists of:

A. Phosphate and base
B. Sugar and base
C. Phosphate, sugar and base
D. Phosphate only
E. Sugar only
A

B. Sugar and base

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10
Q

What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide?

A

Nucleoside = sugar + base

Nucleotide = sugar + base + phosphate

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11
Q

What is the difference between these types of enzymes?

  • Kinase
  • Phosphatase
  • Lyase
  • Dehydrogenase
A

Kinases transfer phosphoryl groups

Phosphatase catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of a phosphate ester bond

Lyase catalyzes the cleavage of C-C, C-O, C-N bonds by elimination; a double bond is formed

Dehydrogenase is involved in an oxidation - reduction reaction

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12
Q

Statement 1: Most prokaryotes have circular DNA and typically only a single origin of replication per circular chromosome.

Statement 2: Eukaryotes often have multiple origins of replication on each linear chromosome.

Which is correct?

A

BOTH

DNA replication begins at specific sites called “origins of replication”. The bacterial chromosome has a single origin with specific nucleotides per circular chromosome. DNA replication proteins recognize the sequence and allow DNA stand separation. In contrast to prokaryotes (bacteria), eukaryotes have thousands of replication origins associated with each linear chromosome. This helps to speed up duplication and allow for a larger storage of genetic material. Thus both statements are true.

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13
Q

A homologous chromosomal pair failed to separate during meiosis I of anaphase. the resulting cells would be:

A

Meiosis I: n-1, n-1, n+1, n+1

If this occurred during anaphase II of meiosis the resulting cells would be n+1, n-1, n, n

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14
Q

Which is incorrectly matched?

A. IgG : Most abundant circulating antibody
B. IgM : First antibody to appear in response to an antigen
C. IgA: Found in saliva, sweat tears and prevents viral and bacterial attachment to epithelial surfaces
D. IgE : Involved in allergic reactions
E. IgD : Crosses the placenta and activates T cells

A

E. IgD : Crosses the placenta and activates T cells

IgD does NOT cross the placenta and is found on the surface of B-cells. This antibody (immunoglobulin) is involved in differentiation of B cells into memory and plasma cells

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15
Q

What is the most abundant circulating antibody?

A

IgG (immunoglobulin G)

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16
Q

Which type of antibody is the first to appear in response to an antigen?

A

IgM (immunoglobulin M)

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17
Q

Which type of antibody is found in saliva, sweat and tears and prevents viral and bacterial attachment to epithelial surfaces?

A

IgA (immunoglobulin A)

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18
Q

Which type of antibody is involved in allergic reactions?

A

IgE (immunoglobulin E)

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19
Q

______ species reduced the density of the strongest competitors in a community, thus species diversity is maintained.

A. Predatory
B. Keystone
C. Dominant
D. Pugnacious 
E. Primary
A

B. Keystone

The keystone species allow for specie maintenance. The density of strong competitors is reduced, such that competitive exclusion of other species does not occur.

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20
Q

Which is incorrectly matched?

A. Goiter : improper thyroid function
B. Pancreas : endocrine and exocrine functions
C. Melatonin : Pineal gland
D. Calmodulin : Sr++ binding in smooth muscle
E. Kidney : Main target organ of ADH

A

D. Calmodulin : Sr++ binding in smooth muscle

Calmodulin is an intracellular protein to which Ca++ binds. Calcium - Calmodulin complex is capable of triggering a cascade of protein activations. The contraction of smooth muscle involves activation utilizing the Ca++ - Calmodulin complex.

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21
Q

Which gland produces melatonin?

A

Pineal gland

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22
Q

Which organ has both endocrine and exocrine function?

A

Pancreas

Endocrine: Insulin and glucagon

Exocrine: Protease, amylases

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23
Q

Which is true about hemoglobin?

A. It is an allosteric molecule
B. Contains a prosthetic group called heme
C. Exists as a tetramer
D. Binds CO with a much greater affinity than O2
E. All of these

A

E. All of these

Hemoglobin contains more than one binding site. It is allosteric. It can bind O2, CO2, CO and H+. A low pH causes Hb to unload O2, as does a high CO2 level. Hb is a tetramer consisting of two alpha chains and two beta chains. The arrangement of the two alpha and beta chains give hemoglobin its quaternary structure. Hb binds CO much tighter than O2. The non-protein portion (prosthetic group) is called heme

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24
Q

Platelets are derived from:

A. Megakaryocytes 
B. Leucocytes
C. Reticulocytes 
D. Eosinophils
E. Monocytes
A

A. Megakaryocytes

Yellow bone marrow functions as fat storage. In spongy bone, we see red marrow that functions in the formation of RBCs, certain WBCs, and platelets (thrombocytes). If blood cell supply is low, it is possible that yellow bone marrow changes into red bone marrow. Platelets arise from large, multinucleate cells in the red marrow called Megakaryocytes.

25
Q

What is the function of yellow bone marrow?

A

Stores fat

26
Q

Stem elongation and flowering in some plants are due to:

A. Gibberellins
B. Cytokinins
C. Abscisic acid
D. Ethylene
E. B and D
A

A. Gibberellins

Gibberellins are plant hormones that may induce certain plants to flower as well as allow stem elongation.

Ethylene stimulates fruit ripening.

Abscisic acid is an inhibitor of plant growth hormones.

Cytokinins are plant hormones involved with promoting cell division.

27
Q

Which statement(s) is correct?

A. Peroxisomes convert hydrogen peroxide into H2O and O2
B. Collagen consists of a double helix and is an abundant fibrous protein
C. Gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis
D. Centrioles and Chloroplasts are found in plant cells
E. None of these

A

A. Peroxisomes convert hydrogen peroxide into H2O and O2

Microbodies (Peroxisomes) convert H2O2 into H2O + O2. Collagen consists of a triple helix NOT double. In gluconeogenesis, non-carbohydrates such as fats and amino acids are made into glucose. This occurs mainly in the cytosol. Centrioles are found only in animal cells and are involved in cell division.

28
Q

Which statement is true?

A. During Anaphase the nucleolus reappears
B. Cytokinesis occurs during metaphase
C. Centriole separation occurs during prophase
D. Spindle fibers begin to form during metaphase
E. Two of these

A

C. Centriole separation occurs during prophase

Sister chromatid separation is in Anaphase. The nucleolus reappears in Telophase. Cytokinesis, when the cytoplasm separates, is in late anaphase or early telophase. During prophase, chromatids shorten and thicken, nucleoli disappears, spindle fibers form, and centrioles in animal cells move to opposite ends.

29
Q

During which phase of mitosis does the nucleolus reappear?

A

Telophase = nucleolus reappears

30
Q

During which phase does cytokinesis occur?

A

Late anaphase or early telophase

31
Q

What phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?

A

Anaphase

32
Q

How do prokaryotes reproduce?

A

Binary fission

33
Q

Circular DNA molecules that exist in bacterial cells are called _______.

A

Plasmid

34
Q

(T/F)

Blue-green algae are found in Kingdom Plantae.

A

FALSE

Algae = Kingdom Monera

35
Q

What is blue-green algae also called?

A

Cyanobacteria

In a lichen, cyanobacteria provides organic nutrients for the fungus, thus they live symbiotically (the fungus offers protection) together

36
Q

Which statement(s) is true?

A. Integral proteins are released by increase in salt concentration
B. Reagents such as detergents will allow release of integral proteins
C. Integral proteins are usually not associated with lipids
D. Peripheral proteins are usually insoluble in aqueous media
E. Two of the above

A

B. Reagents such as detergents will allow release of integral proteins

Peripheral proteins are released by increase in salt concentration

Hydrogen bonding and electrostatic interactions allow peripheral proteins to be associated with the membrane. Integral proteins are held in the membrane by hydrophobic interactions with the lipids

37
Q

What is the PCR technique used for?

A

To make multiple DNA copies

PCR was developed in 1983 by Kary mulls

38
Q

How can you remove an integral protein?

A
  • Detergents
  • organic solvents
  • ultrasonic vibrations

(pH effects peripheral proteins)

39
Q

What are teichoic acids used for in bacterial viruses?

A

Techoic acids are used as recognition and binding sites by bacterial viruses that cause infection.

40
Q

Birth control pills are most closely associated with which two hormones?

A. Testosterone and estrogen
B. Estrogen and progestin 
C. Progesterone and enterogastrone
D. FSH and LH 
E. Insulin and estrogen
A

B. Estrogen and progestin

Birth control pills are designed to deceive the body into thinking that a pregnancy has occurred. Estrogen and progestin (A synthetic progesterone-like hormone) are the most commonly used. A “mini pill” that contains progestin is quite common too. Progesterone will decrease FSH and LH, thus pregnancy will not occur. Much research is being don on a male pill which contains progesterone and a small dose of testosterone which can reduce male fertility. In the male, FSH maintains sperm production and LH stimulates the Leydig cells to make testosterone. The male pill can interfere with LH and FSH thus decrease sperm production.

41
Q

Which of these cell types can most easily change their character in response to chemical signals?

A. Megakaryocytes
B. Erythrocyte
C. Fibroblast
D. Adipose
E. Osteoclast
A

C. Fibroblast

Fibroblast seem to be the least specialized in the connective-tissue family. The fibroblast is involved in collagen and extracellular matrix synthesis. These cells are derived from mesenchyme. Fibroblasts show a remarkable ability to differentiate into other cell types. Fibroblasts can differentiate into adipose, muscle, bone and cartilage cells.

42
Q

A situation in which different body cells excess different genotypes and all the cells are derived from different fertilized eggs is called a _____.

A. Morula
B. Mosaic
C. Chimera
D. Aneuploidy 
E. Polymorph
A

C. Chimera

An animal chimera involves a single organism that is made up of two or more different populations of genetically distinct cells. Different zygotes were involved.

If different cells came from from the same zygote, we call this a mosaic

In lab, for example, we introduce cells from one species into the developing embryo or fetus of another. Great work has been done on the island of St. Kitts where immature human brain cells were transplanted into vervet monkeys in hopes of treating patients with Parkinson’s disease. This is an example of a monkey-human chimera. Mouse chimeras are also very common. Here we see a single mouse composed of distinct cell populations derived from different mice that were injected via embryonic stem cells.

43
Q

Myelin sheath production is done by which type of cells?

A

Schwann cell

44
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

In the cytosol; same place as glycolysis

45
Q

Put these nerve signals in order:

I. Presynaptic cell
II. Postsynaptic cell
III. Synaptic cleft

A

Presynaptic cell–> Synaptic cleft–> postsynaptic cell

46
Q

What three bones are contained in the MIDDLE ear?

A

Incus, malleus and stapes

47
Q

What does the INNER ear contain?

A
  1. Semicircular canals that are responsible for balance

2. Choclea is a snail-like structure where sound waves in the air are converted into neural messages

48
Q

Which hormone is correctly matched to its site of production?

A. Anterior Pituitary Gland : ADH
B. Posterior Pituitary Gland: ACTH
C. B-cells of Pancreas : Glucagon
D. Adrenal Cortex: Norepinephrine
E. Anterior Pituitary Gland : Prolactin
A

E. Anterior Pituitary Gland : Prolactin

49
Q

What are the five hormones of the Anterior Pituitary Gland?

A

HGH, LH, FSH, TSH and Prolactin

50
Q

Which hormones are stored in the Posterior Pituitary Gland?

A

Vasopressin and Oxytocin

vasopressin = ADH

51
Q

Which hormones are made in the hypothalamus and stored in the Posterior Pituitary Gland?

A

Vasopressin and Oxytocin

52
Q

Where are insulin and glucagon produced?

A

Pancreas

alpha-cells produce glucagon

beta-cells produce insulin

53
Q

What two hormones raise blood glucose levels?

A

Glucagon and cortisol

54
Q

What is aldosterone involved in?

A

Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the kidneys collecting duct, as well as a rise in blood pressure and blood volume

55
Q

Heat-stable DNA polymerases from thermophilic bacteria were isolated in a biochemistry lab. If the polymerase was mixed with human DNA, the DNA synthesized would most resemble:

A. Bacterial DNA
B. Human DNA
C. A mixture of bacterial and human DNA
D. Bacterial RNA
E. None of the above
A

B. Human DNA

Since human DNA is our template, human DNA is produced.

56
Q

What is true about fungi?

A. They are all eukaryotic 
B. Many, but not all are saprophytic
C. They are autotrophic
D. They resemble bacterial cells to a greater extent than human cells
E. A and B only
A

E. A and B only

Fungi:

  • are eukaryotic heterotrophs
  • they secrete digestive enzymes then absorb the soluble products of digestion
  • composed of filaments called hyphae; collectively the hyphae are called mycelium
  • can reproduce sexually or asexually
  • haploid state predominates, but they do alternate between haploid and diploid stages
  • Saprophytic, they break down the remains of living organisms that have died
  • Immotile and have cell walls
  • A fungus not only attacks dead matter, but many attack living tissue such as in athletes foot
  • More similar to humans than bacteria
57
Q

The position or role that an animal occupies within an ecosystem is called a:

A

Niche

The interacting of different populations of species is called a community.

A group of individuals belonging to the same species that interbreed while occupying a given area at a given time is a population

A biome is a geographic region inhabited by a distinct community

58
Q

Several microorganisms that allow for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin produce which enzyme?

A. Collagenase 
B. Trypsin
C. Coagulase 
D. Endonuclease
E. Pepsin
A

C. Coagulase

Coagulase is an enzyme produced by staphylococcus bacteria that allows blood to clot

BIO DESTROYER (3 decks)

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