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Basic Digital Techniques and Electronic Instrument Systems > questions 1 > Flashcards

questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the employers duty in terms of his employees? (1)

A

It is the duty of every employer to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of all employees

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2
Q

what are the employees duties in terms of health and safety? (1)

A

it is the duty of every employee while at work to take reasonable care for the health and safety of himself and of others who may be affected by his acts or omissions

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3
Q

name three policies or procedures that you should know in your work place regarding to health and safety? (3)

A
  • smoking policy
  • fire arrangements
  • assembly points
  • fire extinguishers
  • housekeeping
  • accident reporting
  • first aid supplies
  • risk assessments
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4
Q

name six areas the 1974 health and safety at work act covers (6)

A
  • levels of cleanliness
  • ventilation
  • heating
  • lighting
  • use of electric and pneumatic power
  • fire protection
  • accident prevention
  • first aid
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5
Q

what actions do you take if someone is laying on a live electrical cable? (3)

A
  • isolate electrical power
  • -
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6
Q

list six rules for a tidy and safe hangar (6)

A
  • keep floor clean free of oil and grease, floor shouldn’t be littered with equipment
  • stack equipment tidily, leaving adequate workspace and gangways for emergency escape
  • portable electrical power cables and airlines should not pose any trip hazard and should be adequately protected
  • rubbish should not be allowed to accumulate into a fire hazard
  • metal containers with spring lids for combustable materials
  • regular disposal of oily waste as can spontaneously combust
  • contaminated fuels or lubricants should be returned to stores for correct disposal, not poured down drains (environmental hazard)
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7
Q

what are the pre-use checks on a electrical hand drill? (3)

A
  • inspect cable for damage
  • check for electrical test with in-date sticker
  • before plugging in to wall, ensure power is switched off
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8
Q

what actions do you take if electrical plug has been pulled from wall? (2)

A
  • check for damage

- by an authorised person

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9
Q

what is the minimum air pressure that can be fatal? (1)

A

10-15 psi

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10
Q

list three precautions you should take when using solvents? (3)

A
  • use in well ventilated area
  • wear breathing apparatus when necessary
  • wear protective clothing, i.e. rubber gloves, rubber apron, rubber boots etc
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11
Q

list the three components of the triangle of combustion (3)

A
  • fuel
  • heat
  • oxygen
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12
Q

does oxygen burn? and what precautions should you take when working with oxygen? (3)

A
  • oxygen does not burn but acts as an oxidiser and adds to ferocity of a fire
  • shake oxygen servicing clothing after use to remove concentrations of oxygen
  • keep oil and grease away from oxygen systems (risk of explosion)
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13
Q

does oxygen burn? and what precautions should you take when working with oxygen? (3)

A
  • oxygen does not burn but acts as an oxidiser and adds to ferocity of a fire by lowering flash point
  • shake oxygen servicing clothing after use to remove concentrations of oxygen
  • keep oil and grease away from oxygen systems (risk of explosion)
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14
Q

where would you put fuel soaked rags and where would you dispose of them? (2)

A
  • metal bin with spring lid

- disposed of in same way as waste chemical, in accordance with local procedures/by a contractor

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15
Q

list the fire extinguishers you would use on the following types of fire and how you would recognise them:

  • paper fire (2)
  • fuel fire (2)
  • electrical fire (2)
  • wheel and brake fire (2)
A
  • paper fire - water extinguisher - signal red
  • fuel fire - foam extinguisher - pale cream
  • electrical fire - CO2/halon - black/green
  • wheel and brake fire - dry powder - french blue
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16
Q

you find an emergency oxygen bottle fully discharged, what do you do? (1)

A
  • return to manufacturer for checking (water pollution damage) and charging
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17
Q

list three pieces of information on the brass tally on a lifting sling

A
  • inspection date and date next due
  • safe working load
  • serial number
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18
Q

list three precautions you would take with a suspended load (3)

A
  • carry out pre use inspection
  • never use sling for lifting in excess of safe working load
  • never stand under suspended load
  • never leave load suspended
  • always have one nominated person supervising lift
  • stop lifting equipment off ground in designated place
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19
Q

list three precautions you would take to reduce the risk of taking FOD into aircraft or intake (3)

A
  • check shoes for items embedded in soles
  • empty pockets
  • security badges securely fastened
  • tool control IAW local procedures
  • check areas surrounding engine intake/ground when ground running
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20
Q

where should your mobile phone be when working on aircraft? (1)

A
  • not on your person

- locker?

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21
Q

describe a bilateral tolerance (2)

A
  • permits positive and negative variation at same time
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22
Q

describe an interference fit (2)

A
  • drive, press, or force fit
  • hole smaller than shaft
  • may require heating/freezing for fit
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23
Q

in a fundamental deviation, what does a prefix H mean? (1)

A

Hole

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24
Q

describe how a go/no-go gauge works? (2)

A
  • gauging elements represent upper and lower limits of dimension
  • engineer does not need to know actual dimension but can assess whether within tolerance
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25
Q

list four types of gauge and what they are used for (8)

A
  • plug screw gauges - hole sizes and internal diameters
  • ring screw gauges - bolts or external thread diameters
  • wire gauges - thickness of sheet and wire metal
  • drill gauges - diameters of drills, reamers etc.
  • feeler gauges - estimating clearance distances
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26
Q

what is the accuracy on inspection slip gauges, where are they kept and what are they used for? (3)

A
  • 5 millionths of an inch
  • inspection department
  • quality control of the workshop output
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27
Q

describe wringing of slip gauges, and what do you do to slip gauges after use? (3)

A
  • gauges assembled at 90 degrees
  • top slid over bottom and rotated through 90 degrees to align
  • produces tight adhesive contact
  • wiped clean after use and then thin smear of oil applied
28
Q

what can a dial test indicator DTI be used to measure? (1)

A

deviation

29
Q

if your organisation sub-contracts the calibration of your equipment, who provides the standards for calibration? (1)

A

quality control department of maintenance organisation

30
Q

what information should a calibration label have on it? (2)

A
  • due date of next inspection

- serviceability of appliance

31
Q

on a file, what is the purpose of the ferrule? (1)

A

to prevent handle splitting, steel or brass

32
Q

list three types of cut a file can have and two grades of file (5)

A 
cuts
- single cut
- double cut
- rasp cut
- dreadnought
grades
- bastard
- second cut
- smooth
33
Q

what type of metal is a dreadnought file ideal for? (1)

A

broad, soft metal surfaces

34
Q

what is the angle of the teeth on a double cut file? (1)

A
  • 45 degrees to length of file

- 70 degrees to length of file

35
Q

what distance is a 9” flat file tapered for? (1)

A

3 inches (1/3)

36
Q

what do you rub on a file to prevent pinning? (1)

A

chalking the surface of the file helps to prevent pinning

37
Q

name three types of chisel and what is the cut angle for mild steel? (4)

A 
types of chisel
- flat chisel
- cross-cut chisel
- half round chisel
- diamond point chisel
cut angles
- hard steel - 70-75 degrees
- mild steel - 60 degrees
- brass and soft metals - 40 degrees
38
Q

how do you classify a hammer? (2)

A
  • by weight

- by shape of head

39
Q

what is the set of a hacksaw blade, and how many teeth should be in contact at one time? (3)

A
  • set enables cut wider than blade thickness to prevent blade jamming
  • at least three teeth in contact at any one time
  • too many teeth in soft material will clog
40
Q

what do you use a machine vice for? (1)

A
  • used to hold work for drilling, shaping etc
41
Q

place these in order of preference for undoing a metric bolt: (2)

  • adjustable spanner
  • socket
  • open ended spanner
  • pliers
  • screwdriver
A
  • open ended spanner
  • socket
  • adjustable spanner
  • pliers
  • screwdriver
42
Q

what do you use a drift for? (1)

A
  • localising hammer blows

- preventing damage when removing/installing tight components

43
Q

list 5 safety precautions when using a pillar drill (5)

A
  • clamp or hold component to be drilled securely
  • when drill passes through the work, make sure it does not damage vice or bed of machine
  • treat all drilling equipment with care and avoid damage caused by dropping on to hard surfaces etc
  • examine drill before use to inspect for clearance and cutting angles
  • do not use unless authorised
  • check for electrical inspection
  • check cable for damage
44
Q

who can change a grinding machine wheel? (1)

A
  • an authorised, trained person
45
Q

what thickness of sheet steel and light alloy can a nibbler cut? (2)

A
  • steel sheet not exceeding 20SWG

- light alloy sheet not exceeding 18SWG

46
Q

what are the four ways in which drill sizes can be expressed and give two ways to determine the size of a twist drill? (6)

A 
drill sizes
- fractional sizes (3/16 etc...)
- number drills (correspond to steel wire gauge sizes)
- letter drills 
- metric sizes (0.32mm-100mm)
two ways to determine size of a twist drill
- micrometer and x-ref to zeus book
- drill gauge
- stamped on shank
47
Q

what do flutes do on a drill and what is the cutting angle?

A

flutes
- provide room for escape of swarf
- provide channel for drill coolant/lubricant
cutting angle
- 59 degrees
- point angle is twice cutting angle (118 degrees)

48
Q

true or false, a reamer can remove 0.006” of metal? (1)

A

false, it removes 0.007”

49
Q

name the types of tap in a set of 3 and what information would be engraved on them? (5)

A 
types of tap 
- taper/first
- intermediate/second
- bottoming/plug
information
- taper/first - one dot
- intermediate/second - two dots
50
Q

what are suitable lubricants when drilling mild steel and magnesium alloy? (2)

A
  • mild steel - water soluble oil

- magnesium alloy - kerosene

51
Q

what is the TPI of the thread of an imperial micrometer? (1)

A
  • 40 TPI
52
Q

on a 1/4 BSF spanner, does the 1/4 represent head or thread size? (1)

A
  • head size
53
Q

what is the recommended cutting speed for a 1/2” drill? (1)

A

200 rpm

54
Q

what are vee blocks made of and how many in a set? (1)

A
  • made in pairs, serialised as one
  • large made from cast iron
  • small made from high carbon steel
55
Q

3 pre-use checks on a micrometer and 3 on a vernier? (6)

A

micrometer pre-use:
- check for zero, screw so spindle meets anvil, ratchet should engage at 0
- calibration sticker in date and serviceable
- clean hammer and anvil faces
vernier pre-use:
- secureneness
- zero accuracy, close jaws check for visible light and scale
- clean faces of verniers
- calibration sticker in date and serviceable

56
Q

what is the range of an 8 inch internal micrometer? (1)

A

2”-8”

57
Q

what is the level of accuracy of a vernier protractor? (1)

A

accurate to 5’ of a degree

58
Q

give three occasions when you would lubricate an aircraft (3)

A
  • on assembly
  • as instructed in the AMM servicing schedule
  • after de-icing
  • after aircraft clean
59
Q

how does a pre-load indicator washer work? (2)

A
  • 3 washers
  • 2 outer high strength steel, indicator washer in middle
  • as nut is tightened, inner ring compressed and can no longer be rotated by stiff wire tool
60
Q

describe the rivet clearance, the grip length and the rivet allowance (3)

A
  • rivet clearance - difference between size of the hole and the rivet diameter
  • grip length - length of shank taken up by combined thickness of metals to be joined
  • rivet allowance - shank left protruding from metal (before head formed), expressed wrt Diameter
61
Q

describe pitch, land and spacing and give minimum values in terms of rivet diameter for pitch and land (5)

A

rivet pitch - distance between rivets in a row (high stress= not more than 4D, not less than 3D: attachment joint can be 8-10D)

  • rivet land - distance from edge of a plate - 2D from edge
  • rivet spacing - distance between adjacent rows of rivets, 2-4D
62
Q

what can you mark with a key seat rule and how do you classify dividers? (2)

A
  • key seat rule - scribing lines along length of bar

-

63
Q

what makes soft solder melt at a lower temperature than hard solder? (1)

A
  • differing amounts of silver content

- higher silver, lower melting point

64
Q

list three things that flux does during the brazing process (3)

A
  • prevent oxidation
  • ## help solder to flow
65
Q

what information do you need to calculate the bend allowance for a piece of metal and where would you draw a sight line for a 1/8 internal bend radius? (4)

A
  • degree of bend
  • bend radius
  • thickness of metal
  • 1/8 of an inch from one bend allowance construction line
66
Q

list 4 checks you would carry out on a weld (4)

A
  • joint and surrounding surfaces should be free from pitting, corrosion, scale, flux residue and other evidence of bad workmanship
  • filler alloy must have penetrated throughout the joint
  • in pipes, excessive penetration can cause reduced flow
  • fillets of filler alloy should be smooth and continuous
  • dimensions of assembly should tally with drawing
  • failure cracks
67
Q

how hot does metal get during pressure welding? (1)

A

plastic state (just before melting point)

Basic Digital Techniques and Electronic Instrument Systems (4 decks)

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