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OPC A330 Knowledge > Question Bank A330 JAN13 > Flashcards

Question Bank A330 JAN13 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

Either 41,100
or 41,450
as per MSN

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2
Q

What is the aircraft maximum structural
taxi weight, takeoff weight, landing
weight, and ZFW?

A

All structural weights are as specified in the LIM

chapter.

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3
Q

What are the maximum speeds for each

flap/slat configuration?

A

As specified on the cockpit placard and PFD.

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4
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which

the landing gear may be extended?

A

21,000 ft.

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5
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which

the slats/flaps may be extended?

A

20,000 ft.

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6
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

Ground Speed

A

204 kts

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7
Q

What is the maximum speed with the

cockpit window open?

A

230 kts

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8
Q

What is the maximum speed to operate

the windshield wipers?

A

230 KTS

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9
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated or
certified crosswind for takeoff/landing on
a dry runway (Gusts Included)?

A

It is greater than 30 knots. Exact values are as

specified in the LIM Chapter.

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10
Q

What is the maximum recommended
crosswind for landing on a wet or
contaminated runway (Gusts
excluded)?

A

Varies with conditions, as specified in FCOM: PRO-SUP and QRH: EY SUPP

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11
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed?

A

The maximum taxi speed is 30 knots.
In Low Visibility Operations the maximum taxi speed
is reduced to 10 knots, assuming no tires are
deflated.

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12
Q

What is the air conditioning limitation

when using an LP Ground Unit?

A

Do not use an HP ground unit when the APU supplies

bleed air. (This is to avoid bleed system damage.)

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13
Q

What is the minimum weight for use of

autoland?

A

123,000 kg

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14
Q

What is the minimum height for use of

the autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode?

A

100 ft AGL

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15
Q

What is the minimum height for use of
the autopilot during a Straight-in Non-
Precision Approach?

A

Applicable MDA

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16
Q

What is the minimum height for use of

the autopilot during a Circling Approach?

A

Applicable MDA minus 100 ft

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17
Q

What is the minimum height for use of
the autopilot during a Straight-in
LNAV/VNAV Approach?

A

Applicable DA

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18
Q

What is the minimum height for use of
the autopilot during an ILS Approach
without CAT 2 or CAT 3 displayed on the
FMA?

A

160 ft AGL

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19
Q

What is the minimum height for
engagement of the autopilot during a Go
Around?

A

100 ft AGL

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20
Q

What is the minimum height for use of
the autopilot during all phases other than
take-off, instrument approach or goaround?

A

500 fth AGL

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21
Q

What is the general limitation regarding
the use of the autopilot and/or the FD
during an approach in OPEN DES or
DES mode?

A

Use of the AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode is
not permitted in approach, unless the FCU altitude is
set to, or above, MDA or 500 feet, whichever is
higher.

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22
Q

What is the general limitation/precaution
regarding obstacle clearance and
constraints programmed into the FMGS?

A

Obstacle clearance and adherence to airspace

constraints remains the flight crew’s responsibility.

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23
Q

What are the maximum wind conditions
for a CAT 2 or CAT 3 ILS Automatic
Approach, Landing, & Rollout?

A

HW: 35 Kts
TW: 10 Kts
XW: 20 Kts

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24
Q

What is the limitation/precaution
regarding the fuel, time
predictions/performance information
available through the FMGC?

A

This information is provided for advisory purposes

only.

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25
Q

What are the only approach types that
may be flown using NAV, or NAV and
FINAL APP?

A

VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, NDB/DME or RNAV

approaches.

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26
Q

What are the pre-requisites for
performing VOR, VOR/DME, NDB,
NDB/DME approach procedures in NAV,
or NAV and FINAL APP mode?

A

The AP or FD must be used and the reference navaid
and the corresponding airborne equipment must be
serviceable, tuned, and monitored during the
approach.

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27
Q

Is it authorized to fly a RNAV approach

without GPS PRIMARY?

A

No. Etihad policy prohibits RNAV approaches without

GPS PRIMARY.

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28
Q

What are the pre-requisites for using

NAV mode in the terminal area?

A

NAV mode may be used in the terminal area,
provided:
- GPS PRIMARY is available, or
- HIGH accuracy is displayed, and the appropriate
RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, or
- NAVAID raw data is monitored.

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29
Q

What is the limitation regarding the use
of the autopilot to perform a Non-
Precision Approach if one engine is
inoperative?

A

No limitations.

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30
Q

What is the applicable Alert Height during
a CAT 3 Fail Operational (Dual) ILS
Automatic Approach?

A

200 ft

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31
Q

What are the general limitations
applicable to CAT 2 and CAT 3 auto
landings in regards to configuration and
engine out procedures?

A

Only approved in (CONF FULL - A320), (CONF 3 -
A330/340), and if engine-out procedures are
completed before reaching 1000 ft.

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32
Q

What are the permissible flap/slat

configurations for a CAT 2/CAT 3 ILS?

A

CONF 3 and CONF FULL

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33
Q 
What are the mandatory precautions that
must be taken if performing an automatic
landing using a CAT 1 ground installation
or on CAT 2/3 ground installations when
the ILS sensitive areas are not
protected?
A
  1. Practice low visibility approaches and/or autoland
    are only permitted on runways certified for LVO,
    with prior ATC coordination and assurance of
    protection against signal disturbance. (OM A
    8.4.13).
  2. The crew is aware that LOC or GS beam
    fluctuations, independent of aircraft systems, may
    occur and the PF is prepared to immediately
    disconnect the AP and take appropriate action,
    should unsatisfactory guidance occur.
  3. At least CAT 2 capability is displayed on the FMA,
    and CAT 2/CAT 3 procedures are used.
  4. Visual references are obtained at an altitude
    appropriate to the performed CAT 1 approach,
    otherwise a go-around is initiated.
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34
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for

takeoff?

A

As Specified in the LIM Chapter
A320/A330: The WING TK LO LVL warning must not
be displayed on ECAM for takeoff.
A340: The ALL INRS LO LVL warning must not be
displayed on ECAM for takeoff.

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35
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature

for takeoff?

A

300 deg. C with the brake fans off.
If however, the brake fans have been used at any
time during the taxi out, the maximum brake
temperature for takeoff is 150 deg. C.

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36
Q

What are the maximum speeds for

landing gear extension and retraction?

A

As specified on the cockpit placard

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37
Q

What is the limitation regarding pivot

turns?

A

No braked pivot turn is allowed
(i.e. Differential braking cannot
be used to fully stop one main
gear.)

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38
Q

What are the limitations regarding taxi
operations with one or more deflated
tires?

A

If tire damage is suspected after landing or after a
rejected takeoff, inspection of the tires is required
before taxi.
If the tire is deflated but not damaged, the aircraft can
be taxied at low speed, provided the
imitations/restrictions specified in the LIM chapter are
observed.

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39
Q

Is it authorized to use the EGPWS

display for navigation purposes?

A

No.

40
Q

When must the EGPWS TERR Pb. be

switched off?

A

The EGPWS enhance function should be inhibited
(TERR pushbutton to OFF, on the GPWS panel)
when the aircraft position is less than 15 NM from
the airfield:

41
Q

What is the minimum oxygen required for

a particular flight and flight crew?

A

As specified on the chart (A330F) / tables in LIM

Chapter

42
Q

Following a loss of cabin pressure, the
minimum oxygen required for a particular
flight and flight crew, assumes the mask
regulator is in what position?

A

The assumption is that the mask regulator is in the
NORMAL (diluted oxygen) position.
Note: Based on the use of a sealed mask, may be
shorter for bearded crew (in terms of performance,
pressure, or duration).

43
Q

The minimum oxygen required for a
particular flight and flight crew provides
what protection against smoke with
100% Oxygen?

A

15 min at 8.000 ft

44
Q

What is the operating limitation of the
APU if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM
advisory is displayed?

A

The APU may be started and operated even if the
message is displayed. However, maintenance action
is required within the time limits specified in the LIM
Chapter

45
Q

What is the limitation regarding

consecutive start attempts of the APU?

A

After 3 consecutive start attempts (duty cycles), a 60-

minute cool down is required before the next start.

46
Q

What is the maximum APU EGT limit for

any phase of operation?

A

The red line limit on the EGT scale

47
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to

start the APU?

A

25.5 V with BATT sw. OFF
(if not elec. powered for 6hr or more). 23.5 V with BATT sw. AUTO (if
elec. powered during last 6hr &
batt. only start.)

48
Q

What is the maximum altitude for starting
(using an engine generator) and using
the APU for electrical power?

A

Aircraft Ceiling

49
Q

What is the maximum altitude for
attempting an APU start with the aircraft
batteries only (ELEC EMER CONFIG)?

A

25,000 ft.

50
Q

What is the maximum altitude for using

the APU Bleed with One Pack?

A

22,500 ft.

51
Q

What is the maximum altitude to use the

APU bleed for an Engine Start?

A

20,000 ft (A330).

52
Q

What is the maximum altitude for using

the APU Bleed with Two Packs?

A

17,500 ft (A330)

53
Q

What is the limitation of the APU

regarding the use of wing anti-ice?

A

APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice is not

permitted.

54
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity

for each flight?

A

As specified in PRO-NOR-SOP

55
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for

takeoff?

A

20 degrees (A330)

56
Q

What is the maximum time limit for using

TOGA thrust?

A

5 Minutes under normal conditions

10 Minutes in case of engine failure

57
Q

What is the max. EGT for any phase?

A

The red line limit on the EGT scale

58
Q

What are the engine starter limitations for

the A330?

A

For all A330: The max continuous operation of the
starter is 5 minutes.
Two 3-minute duty cycles and a consecutive 1-
minute cycle are permitted with a run down to zero
N3 between each cycle.
After one continuous operation, or the three cycles, it
is required to wait 30 minutes to allow the starter to
cool.
There must be no running engagement of the starter
when the N3 is above 10% on ground, or 30% in
flight.

59
Q

What are the limitations regarding the use

of Reverse Thrust?

A
  1. Selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited.
  2. Backing with reverse thrust is not permitted.
  3. Maximum reverse should not be used below 70
    knots (60 Kts A340). Idle reverse is allowed down
    to aircraft stop.
60
Q

Is reduced thrust take-off allowed on

contaminated runways?

A

No.

61
Q

Is reduced thrust take-off allowed with
inoperative aircraft systems or
components that affect performance?

A

Yes, provided the associated performance shortfall
has been applied to meet all performance
requirements.

62
Q

What are the memory items associated

with Pilot Incapacitation?

A

If a cockpit crew member becomes incapacitated, the
remaining crew member must call a cabin attendant
as soon as practicable. The best way to request
assistance from the cabin crew is by means of the
passenger address system: “ATTENTION, CABIN
MANAGER (SOMEBODY – A330F) TO THE
COCKPIT IMMEDIATELY”.
Then as specified in PRO-ABN-80 - Miscellaneous.

63
Q 
What are the memory items associated
with the following EGPWS alerts?
– ″PULL UP″
– ″TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP″
–″TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP″
– ″OBSTACLE AHEAD PULL UP″
A 
State: “PULL UP - TOGA” and then,
SIMULTANEOUSLY:
AP OFF
PITCH PULL UP (to full backstick)
THRUST LEVERS TOGA
SPEED BRAKE lever CHECK RETRACTED
BANK WINGS LEVEL or ADJUST
- When flight path is safe and the warning
stops:
o Decrease pitch attitude and accelerate.
- When speed is above VLS, and V/S is +ive:
o Clean up aircraft, as required.
64
Q

What are the memory items associated
with “TERRAIN TERRAIN” and “TOO
LOW TERRAIN” EGPWS alerts?

A

Adjust the flight path, or initiate a go-around.

65
Q

What are the memory items associated
with ″TERRAIN AHEAD″ and
″OBSTACLE AHEAD″ EGPWS alerts?

A

Adjust the flight path.
Stop descent.
Climb and/or turn, as necessary, based on analysis of
all available instruments and information.

66
Q

What are the memory items associated
with “SINK RATE” and “DON’T SINK”
EGPWS alerts?

A

Adjust pitch attitude and thrust to silence the alert.

67
Q

What are the memory items associated
with “TOO LOW GEAR” and “TOO LOW
FLAPS” EGPWS alerts?

A

Perform a go-around.

68
Q

What are the memory items associated

with “GLIDE SLOPE” EGPWS alerts?

A

Establish the aircraft on the GS, or set the G/S MODE

pb-sw to OFF, if flight below the GS is intentional.

69
Q

What are the memory items associated
with a Predictive Wind shear alert
WINDSHEAR AHEAD RED warning?

A 
- TAKEOFF
o Before Takeoff – delay or select the most
favorable runway
o During Takeoff run – RTO
o When Airborne – TOGA/SRS follow
- LANDING
o GO AROUND
70
Q

What are the memory items associated
with a Predictive Wind shear alert
WINDSHEAR AHEAD AMBER caution?

A
  • BEFORE TAKEOFF
    o Delay take-off, then apply precautionary
    procedures specified in PRO-SUP chapter.
  • DURING APPROACH
    o Delay landing or divert, then apply
    precautionary procedures specified in PROSUP
    chapter.
71
Q

What are the memory items associated
with a Reactive Wind shear alert
(WINDSHEAR) warning?

A
  • TAKEOFF
  • Before V1 – RTO if sufficient runway remains
  • After V1 – State: “WINDSHEAR TOGA and:
    o TOGA / ROTATE at VR / SRS follow
  • AIRBORNE: Initial climb or landing
  • State: “WINDSHEAR TOGA and:
    o TOGA / AP (keep) / SRS follow
    DO NOT CHANGE CONFIG (FLAPS/SLATS/GEAR)
72
Q

What are the memory items associated

with an Unreliable Airspeed Indication?

A

State: “UNRELIABLE SPEED” and then, if safe
conduct of flight is impacted:
- accomplish the memory actions as per the
UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION/ADR
CHECK procedure in the QRH.

73
Q

What are the memory items associated

with a TCAS “TRAFFIC” warning?

A 
State: “TCAS, I HAVE CONTROL” Then:
For TA: Do not perform a maneuver based on TA only
For RA: AP (if engaged) OFF
o BOTH FDs OFF
o Adjust/Maintain Pitch to keep VSI in
green
o Perform GO AROUND procedure if
CLIMB/INCREASE CLIMB occurs on final
approach
74
Q

What are the memory items associated

with an Emergency Descent?

A

State: “EMERGENCY DESCENT” and then:
accomplish the actions as per the EMER DESCENT
procedure in the QRH.

75
Q

What are the memory items associated

with a loss of braking?

A

State: “LOSS OF BRAKING” and then: accomplish
the actions as per the LOSS OF BRAKING procedure
in the QRH.

76
Q

What are the indications of a stall?

A

AURAL WARNING (STALL, STALL) and /or buffet

77
Q

What are the memory items associated

with a STALL RECOVERY?

A

State: “STALL RECOVERY” and then: accomplish the
actions as per the STALL RECOVERY procedure in
the QRH.

78
Q

What are the memory items associated

with a STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF?

A

State: “STALL RECOVERY” and then: accomplish the
actions as per the STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
procedure in the QRH.

79
Q

What happens to the FMS aircraft
position when the thrust levers are
advanced for takeoff?

A

The aircraft position is updated to the coordinates for

the threshold of the runway entered in the MDCU.

80
Q

When can both autopilots be engaged

simultaneously?

A

After the APPR push button has been armed or

engaged for an ILS approach.

81
Q

What is the significance of the message
”EXTEND SPD BRK” on the PFD?
(“MORE DRAG” on A320)

A

The aircraft is above the descent profile and requires
the use of ½ speed brakes to intercept the vertical
profile.

82
Q

Can a managed vertical NAV be
engaged without being engaged in a
lateral NAV?

A

No.

83
Q

What is the significance of an amber box

on the MCDU?

A

It means that an entry is mandatory.

84
Q

What is the significance of a blue bracket

on an MCDU page?

A

It means that an entry is optional.

85
Q

What happens when the V/S knob on the

FCU is pushed?

A

This commands an immediate level off (engages VS

mode 0.0)

86
Q

What is the significance of a flashing
RED AUTO LAND light on the
Glareshield?

A

This light illuminated at or below 200 feet if:
Loss of both autopilots
Excessive ILS Beam Deviation (LOC or GS)

87
Q

What is the purpose of the LOC push

button on the FCU panel?

A

This button is used to arm, disarm, or disengage the

Localizer Mode.

88
Q 
During the application of takeoff power,
you notice that the normal “RWY”
indication does not appear in the lateral
window of the FMA. What could be the
cause of this?
A

The takeoff runway is not equipped with a working

localizer.

89
Q

What is the possible cause of an
illuminated FAULT light on the hydraulic
ENG PUMP switch or an ELEC PUMP
switch?

A 
Reservoir Low Quantity or,
Reservoir Low Pressure or,
Reservoir Overheat or,
Low Pump Output Pressure or,
Pump Overheat
90
Q

If the RAT is deployed via the hydraulic
RAT MAN ON push button, does the
EMER ELEC generator come on line?

A

No.

91
Q

Which hydraulic system is powered by

the engine 1 pump?

A

Green and

Blue Systems

92
Q

What pressurizes the blue hydraulic

system?

A

Engine 1
Pump & Blue
Elect. Pump

93
Q

What pressurizes the yellow hydraulic

system

A

Engine 2
Pump, Yellow
Elect. Pump, Hand Pump

94
Q

What system normally powers the

landing gear extension & retraction?

A

Green System

95
Q

What flight control law would result if two

hydraulic systems failed?

A

Alternate Law (Initially)

OPC A330 Knowledge (4 decks)

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