Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CSO MQF > QUAL MQF > Flashcards

QUAL MQF Flashcards

1
Q

During the EXTERIOR INSPECTION checklist, enter/exit the nose wheel area from the ____________. Do not enter/exit from the _________ of the nose wheel due to the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-8 Chap: 2A Para: Warning

A

left, right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A

168 KIAS, 250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Failure of the utility hydraulic system will result in loss of the following except: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3

A

hydraulic boost for the spoilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you have a main landing gear tire failure: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-35 Chap: 3

A

land on the side of the runway with the good tires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-39 Chap: 3

A

Do not dump fuel less than 5000 ft above the terrain.
Ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely.
Do not dump in a circular pattern.
(All the answers are correct.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at air speeds above _____ KIAS or with the landing gear extended. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-91 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A

150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During ditching, when should personnel inflate life vests? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-91 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A

After exiting and clear of the escape hatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Life raft emergency release handles must be pulled ____ for complete ejection and inflation of liferafts. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-87 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A

Though their full travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the event of either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, notify crew and passengers to: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-83 Chap: 3

A

fasten seat belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If inflight evacuation of the aircraft is required and conditions permit, the order of preference for bailout exits is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-90 Chap: 3

A

Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates that _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-121 Chap: 3

A

other associated components may have been affected by the failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The airplane should not be operated in conditions of severe turbulence. However if flight in severe turbulence cannot be avoided, flight should be in the range of _________ KIAS above power _______stall flaps up speed for the operating gross weight not to exceed _________ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A

65, off, 181

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the ________ fuel tank. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-1 Chap: 8

A

No. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary method of measuring engine power? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-2 Chap: 9

A

HP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the nose wheel is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-9 Chap: 1

A

139

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When the APU fire handle is pulled, the following occurs: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9

A

Control power to the APU start circuit interrupted.
APU Fuel supply shut-off valve is closed.
Fire extinguishing system directional flow valve is positioned
(All answers are correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

UTILITY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM: The engine-driven pumps are supplied hydraulic fluid by an ____________ from a reservoir mounted on the left side of the cargo compartment. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A

electric suction boost pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The engine driven hydraulic pumps are provided with internal control mechanisms to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately ______ PSI. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A

3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A

Flaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Booster Hydraulic System furnishes hydraulic power to: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A

The remaining portion of the flight control system only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A

Emergency lowering of the nose gear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The MC-130J has ____ portable oxygen bottles. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-3 Chap: 16

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The BIUs act as backup bus controllers in the event both mission computers become disabled. BIU back-up mode provides the functions necessary to __________ and to make a ______________, even on __________ power. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-18 Chap: 18

A

fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

VHF Communication Radio: Frequencies can be selected manually or be selecting one of ____ preset channels. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18A-3 Chap: 18A

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PFD Data Presentation: Coloring is used to further segregate differing sources of information. Cyan denotes __________, Amber denotes ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-41 Chap: 18D

A

Pilots input reference set; Flight director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CAUTION: With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is _______G in symmetrical and _________G in unsymmetrical maneuvers. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-12 Chap: 1 Para: Caution

A

2.0 / 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CNI advisories for the number 1 radios _______ displayed if MC 1 has failed, and CNI advisories for the number 2 radios ________ displayed if MC 2 has failed. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-4 Chap: 18

A

will not be; will not be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The cursor functions in one of four modes (_______, ________, __________, and __________). Each mode is designed for a particular operation, by tying the cursor position to a different reference position. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-42 Chap: 18B

A

manual; ground; computer; quick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The computer cursor switch is a snap-action, double-detent trigger switch. Pulling the switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to__________. Pulling the switch to the second detent and releasing changes the cursor mode to ____________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-46 Chap: 18B

A

computer cursor; quick cursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DIGITAL MAP STABILIZATION. Is used to select the digital map stabilization and slew mode. Pressing the digital map stabilization select switch to the left selects ________ stabilization and cursor slewing, pressing down selects _________ stabilization and cursor slewing, and pressing right selects ________ stabilization and map slewing. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-45 Chap: 18B

A

airplane; cursor; ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The vertical maneuvering resolution advisories issued by TCAS can only be determined and generated against intruder airplanes that report ________ data in their transponder replies to TCAS interrogations. For non-altitude reporting (NAR) airplanes, TCAS generates __________ only. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-28 Chap: 18B

A

altitude; traffic advisories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives _______ information higher priority. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-31 Chap: 18B Para: Note

A

RWR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TCAS: The target symbol for an RA (resolution advisory) is a _________ with a data tag. The target symbol for a TA (traffic advisory) is a _________ with a data tag. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-30 Chap: 18B

A

red-filled square; yellow-filled circle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If the engine status display is not selected on any HDD and an ACAWS warning or caution occurs, _______________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-2 Chap: 18 Para: Note

A

the engine status display automatically appears on HDD 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If more than one ACAWS message occurs simultaneously, the message associated with each is displayed when the alert occurs. Aural alerts associated with ACAWS messages are _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-16 Chap: 18

A

queued and presented in order of priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the APU starter duty cycle? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1

A

1 minute on and 4 minutes off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Doppler beam sharpening functions only on expanded and offset maps when the map falls within the operational limits of the mode. The basic limitations are that the map mode must be greater than _______ from the velocity vector and that the range to the far edge of the map must be less than ____________ from the airplane. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-34 Chap: 18B

A

10 degrees; approximately 40 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Wind shear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ of range coverage. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-66 Chap: 2A

A

5 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Weather (WX) Mode of the LPCR: Excessive precipitation (>50 mm/hr) is depicted as _______ on the LPCR display when WX mode is selected. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B

A

magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

LPCR: The weather mode includes an auto-tilt feature to reduce pilot workload. During auto-tilt, the radar automatically calculates an antenna tilt position that allows the radar beam to remain ________ at a distance equal to the selected range scale. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B

A

just above the terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A DRY runway condition (ICAO Good) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should the APU start light extinguish? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1

A

At approximately 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-1 Chap: 4

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-2 Chap: 4

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Takeoff Crosswind/Tailwind Restrictions: If the aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 35 knots: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-13 Chap: 1

A

takeoff is not permitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

AUTONAV causes an automatic __________ alignment and requires only a one-button push to align the EGIs, select all available sensors, and choose the best navigation source by setting the AUTO/MAN LSK to AUTO. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 6-5 Chap: 6

A

gyrocompass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

There is a limit of ____ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-2 Chap: 7

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Critical fuel decisions ___________ on the information provided by the CNI-SP calculations alone. Performance manual charts should be cross-checked before proceeding on a fuel critical course of action. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Caution

A

should not be predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Performance data (time and fuel estimates) may disappear from the PERF INIT and LEGS pages if a delay of more than approximately _________ occurs between flight plan activation and takeoff. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Note

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Any crewmember seeing a deviation of 200 feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the pilot flying. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.11.1.2

A

True

54
Q

Carry a ____________ on all flights. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.2.7

A

headset
helmet and an oxygen mask
operable flashlight
(all of the above)

55
Q

Review AFTO Form 781 before _________ or ___________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.16

A

applying power to the aircraft; operating aircraft systems

56
Q

The aircraft fire extinguisher system ________ the minimum requirements for fire protection during engine start. If available, position a portable fire extinguisher for added fire protection. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.20.5.1

A

fulfills

57
Q

Except for takeoff and landing, on overwater flights LPUs will be sized and available at the crewmember’s station and worn whenever below 2,000 feet over water. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.4

A

True

58
Q

Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of _____ liters. On missions with passengers, carry passenger oxygen kits (POKs) if flight above _____ is anticipated. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.2

A

5 / FL 250

59
Q

A flight may proceed on 3 engines to its destination if _________________. AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.27.2

A

2-engine capability exists
favorable operating conditions prevail both en route and at the point of intended landing
a suitable alternate airfield is available at all times (all of the above)

60
Q

Initiate simulated engine-out go-around at not lower than _________. Initiate simulated engine-out missed approach no lower than the minimum altitude for the approach. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 9.5.7

A

200 feet AGL

61
Q

No flap landings comply with following: Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 9.5.5

A

maximum gross weight of 120,000 pounds crosswind component within the recommended zone
(both A and B)

62
Q

The minimum runway length for 50% touch and go landings is ______ Feet. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 9.6.5

A

5,000

63
Q

Aircrew members shall not consume alcoholic beverages within ______ hours of takeoff. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 2.7.1.2

A

12

64
Q

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA +/-1 hour is less than a ceiling of ____feet and a visibility of ____ . Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Pg: 73, Attachment 2 & para 4.15.3.

A

2000 / 3 SM

65
Q

Flight Duty Period ends when engines are shut down at the end of the mission, mission leg, or a series of missions. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 2.2.1

A

True

66
Q

Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins. Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep. Crew rest period cannot begin until after the completion of official duties. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 2.1.

A

True

67
Q

The guidance found in AFMAN 11-217 is both technique and procedurally oriented. Instruction depicted in bold italics is considered procedure. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1

A

True

68
Q

Removal of a navigation station’s identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 49 Chap: 5 Para: 5.1.3.

A

True

69
Q

Initial station passage for an ADF occurs: Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 65 Chap: 5 Para: 5.5.3.

A

when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course.

70
Q

A “/” in the name of an instrument approach indicates: Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 93 Chap: 6 Para: 6.5.1.3.2.

A

more than one type of equipment MAY be required to execute the final approach

71
Q

When checking the altimeter, the maximum allowable error between the indicated altitude and a known checkpoint elevation is _______ ft. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 121 Chap: 6 Para: 6.6.7.2.

A

75

72
Q

No matter what method of IFR departure is used, climb at least 200 feet per minute unless a higher climb gradient is published. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 128 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.4.

A

False

73
Q

The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is ____ when holding above 14,000 feet. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 151 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.1.

A

1 1/2 minutes

74
Q

A standard holding pattern has _____ turns and legs of 1 min ________ ft and 1 1/2 min ________ ft. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 151 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.1.

A

right / at or below 14,000 / above 14,000

75
Q

You are considered to be established in holding: Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 154 Chap: 8 Para: 8.3.2.

A

after initial passage of the holding fix

76
Q

The localizer glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM unless stated otherwise on the IAP; the localizer signal is usable and accurate to range of ____ NM unless stated otherwise on the IAP. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 210 Chap: 12 Para: 12.2.1.3.

A

10 / 18

77
Q

An ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if localizer course becomes unreliable or full scale deflection of the CDI occurs; do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than _____ or ______ the glideslope. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 210 Chap: 12 Para: 12.2.1.3.1.

A

1 dot below / 2 dots above

78
Q

A clearance for an approach includes clearance for the missed approach published on the IAP, unless you intend to perform a full stop landing. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Pg: 250 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.

A

False

79
Q

Aircraft maximum waiverable gross weight is ________ pounds. Ref: MC-130J Operations CONOPS, Annex C Para: 5.1.

A

175,000

80
Q

Aircraft maximum gross weight is ________ pounds. Ref: MC-130J Operations CONOPS, Annex C Para: 5.1.

A

164,000

81
Q

Declare “Emergency Fuel” when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than _______ lbs. Declare “Minimum Fuel” to ATC when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than ______ lbs plus the Required Reserve. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 12.7.6

A

4,000 / 4,000

82
Q

An ATC clearance is authority to deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 1.6

A

False

83
Q

In the National Airspace System (NAS), do not exceed ____ KIAS at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized/required by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, para 6.3.2.1

A

200

84
Q

Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within the National Airspace System (NAS) unless ____. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 6.3.2.3

A

within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs)
within DoD/FAA instrument/visual routes or unpublished joint MAJCOM- and FAA-designated areas or routes
on MAJCOM-approved large exercises or short-term special missions with appropriate coordination
the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability (All of the above)

85
Q

Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least ___ ft. above the departure end of the runway elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway. (Does not apply to closed patterns) Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 5.2

A

400

86
Q

Avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CB) by ___ NM at FL 230 and above Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.14.3

A

20

87
Q

Pilots shall respond to all resolution advisories (RA) as directed by the TCAS system unless doing so would jeopardize the safe operation of the aircraft. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.23.2.2

A

True

88
Q

For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet both the published ceiling and visibility requirements for that approach. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 4.15.2.1.1.1

A

False

89
Q

For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet ____ requirements. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 4.15.2.1.1.2

A

both the ceiling and prevailing visibility

90
Q

An alternate is required when the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) at the ETA (+/- 1 hour) for first point of intended landing does not permit a VFR descent from the minimum IFR altitude (MIA) and is less than a ceiling of 2,000 ft. and visibility of 3 SMs. MAJCOMs may lower this requirement to a ceiling of 1,000 ft. and a visibility of 2 SMs, if ________________________. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Page 73, Attachment 2

A

two or more suitable independent precision approaches are available and operable for the airport of intended landing at ETA (+/- 1 hour)

91
Q

The use of the term “Radar Contact” by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, ____________ terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.29

A

but does not mean that

92
Q

The flight duty period will begin when the aircrew shows for flight duties. Crews may complete initial alert activities (e.g., briefing, preflight, cocking, engine runs of their alert aircraft) without starting their FDP. This time should not exceed ____hours. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.5.1.5 (AFSOC)

A

3

93
Q

The crew rest period is normally a minimum ____hour non-duty period before the flight duty period (FDP) begins. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.1

A

12

94
Q

Controlled cockpit rest is restricted to non-critical phases of flight between cruise and ___ prior to planned descent. A rest period shall be limited to a maximum of ___. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.8.2

A

1 hour, 45 minutes

95
Q

USAF pilots flying under IFR will delay all turns until at least ____________________________unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Para: 7.2.3.

A

400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation

96
Q

Perform a missed approach when the missed approach point, decision height (DH), or decision altitude (DA) is reached and ____________. Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1 Para: 14.4.2.1.

A

the runway environment is not in sight unable to make a safe landing
directed by the controlling agency
(Any of the above)

97
Q

Pressing the AUTONAV on the power up page initiates: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 6-5

A

INU GC alignment, align EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to AUTO

98
Q

There are(is) ____EGI systems on the aircraft. Each EGI consists of a ______ & ______. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 9-70

A

2, INS, GPS

99
Q

A discontinuity is a segment in the flight plan where there is no _______ flight plan definition. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 7-7

A

lateral

100
Q

Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected? Page 6-2 Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 6-2

A

COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios).

101
Q

A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of “C” defines: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 7-22

A

Fixed Start of Climb (SOC)
Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD)
(A or B)

102
Q

If flammable fumes are present or suspected, electrical equipment not required to carry out the FIRE/SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION checklist should not be turned on or off. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Page 3-80

A

True

103
Q

To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than 6 °F (3.3 °C) above the freeze point defined in Figure 1-5. The fuel temperature should be considered to be equal to the _____. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Page 1-15

A

Total Air Temperature (TAT)

104
Q

During engine start, for all ACAWS _________ (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2A Para: Note

A

WARNINGS

105
Q

If a circling approach is required, maintain ___________ until established on final approach. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-3 Chap: 2B

A

approach speed

106
Q

The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of _________ degrees C or less. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-5 Chap: 2B Para: Caution

A

10

107
Q

To ensure cross-ship manifold priming is successful, the ___________ indicator shall be observed/monitored during the priming procedure. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-7 Chap: 2D Para: Note

A

FUEL PRESS

108
Q

For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within approximately 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds for 100% flap landings by __ knots and add any gust factor up to a cumulative total of __ knots. For 50% flap landings increase approach and threshold speeds by __ knots and do not add a gust factor. For zero flap landings add __ knots to approach and threshold speeds and do not add a gust factor. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-48

A

6, 10, 10, 20

109
Q

CAUTION: When the airplane is parked with the fuel tanks more than three-quarters full (6,400 pounds in the outboard and 6,000 pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-6 Chap: 2D Para: Caution

A

closed

110
Q

A WARNING is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

111
Q

The fuel quantity totalizer _____ any error caused by a degraded or failed fuel quantity indicator. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-6 Chap: 2D Para: Note

A

reflects

112
Q

Operation in severe icing conditions, including operation in freezing rain/drizzle is _________ and shall be avoided. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-4 Chap: 2B

A

not recommended

113
Q

The left and right auxiliary tanks each have one (____________) AC-powered transfer pump. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-3 Chap: 8

A

28 - 40 PSI

114
Q

What temperature would you use cold weather procedures? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-9 Chap: 2B

A

0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below

115
Q

The recommended fuel management for normal approach and full stop landings is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-9 Chap: 2D

A

tank-to-engine operation

116
Q

Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at the final destination with less than _________ lbs of fuel. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-17 Chap: 5

A

6,000

117
Q

During APU start or operation, the APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-30 Chap: 2A Para: Caution

A

maintenance is required prior to APU restart

118
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine control to RUN? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-10 Chap: 2D

A

2,000 Pounds

119
Q

A CAUTION is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

120
Q

Before the application of de-icing fluid, __________________ . Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-12 Chap: 2B Para: Warning

A

shut down the APU and close all doors and hatches

121
Q

Do not select AUTONAV ___________ show correct present position. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-17 Chap: 2A Para: Note

A

until both of the CNI-MUs

122
Q

Oxygen system: Under a continuous breathing condition, the pressure should indicate __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-1 Chap: 16

A

270-340 psi

123
Q

Hot weather operation is operation in temperatures above ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-17 Chap: 2B

A

35 degrees C/95 degrees F

124
Q

A NOTE is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward

A

Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

125
Q

Procedures for engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. For all ACAWS __________ (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shutdowns and shutdowns for ACAWS CAUTIONS and ADVISORIES, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Although pulling the FIRE handle on the ground does not damage equipment, it does cycle numerous valves and the auxiliary feather pump. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3

A

WARNINGS

126
Q

Maximum normal landing weight and associated sinkrate are: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-2 Chap: 1

A

164,000 lbs/300 fpm

127
Q

Any cruise speed up to recommended clean (VH) may be utilized in conditions up to and including ________ turbulence. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-5 Chap: 1

A

moderate

128
Q

The normal flap setting for landing is __________% Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-59 Chap: 2A

A

100

129
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A

183 KIAS

130
Q

Due to engine exhaust heat, entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-4 Chap: 2D Para: Warning

A

engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended

131
Q

The alarm bell signal for ground evacuation is what? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-3 Chap: 3

A

1 long sustained ring

132
Q

Failure of the booster hydraulic system causes _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3

A

the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls

CSO MQF (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions