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MSN MQF Flashcards

1
Q

Mountainous terrain as defined by ATP-56(B) and adopted by AFFSA is defined as 500 ft surface elevation change over one-half NM distance. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: Attachment 1, Terms

A

True

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2
Q

During tactical low level operations, avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CBs) by _____ NM. Also, avoid gust fronts and winds proceeding rapidly moving thunderstorms. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, para 5.14.3.3

A

5

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3
Q

Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds___________ . Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.1

A

10,000 ft MSL

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4
Q

While overwater, life preserver units (LPUs) will be sized and available at the crewmember’s station, and worn whenever below ___________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, para 5.21.4

A

2,000’ overwater (except for takeoff and landing)

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5
Q

Except MAJCOM-approved aerial demonstrations/events or during takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ above the highest obstacle within a _____ radius of the aircraft. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.3

A

1,000 ft, 2,000 ft

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6
Q

When using wind circles for inflight CARP computation, label the DZ depiction or acetate overlay with the constants used to construct the wind circles; i.e., ____, or size of constant wind circles used. Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 4.5.1.6

A

type of parachute, load weight, and TTF

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7
Q

When surface winds are unknown (e.g., blind drops to unmanned DZs), the jumpmaster and army airborne mission commander (if designated) will be advised when drop altitude winds exceed ____ knots for personnel drops. Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.3

A

30

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8
Q

Aircrews will not make airdrops using parachutes for which AFI 11-231 does not list ballistics unless the user provides approved ballistic data or “K” factor. Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.4

A

True

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9
Q

Minimum usable drop zone time for all airdrops is ____. Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 3.2.34 NOTE, 4.2.3 NOTE

A

3 seconds

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10
Q

Wind Factor and ETP data computations are required on Category I routes or Category I route segments when the total time between the last suitable airfield and the FSAF is __ hours or more. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 11.2.2.1

A

5

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11
Q

An overrun is normally not considered part of the usable runway when establishing airfield markings. Do not include overrun distances to calculate the available LZ length required for operations. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.5.11

A

True

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12
Q

When computing the minimum DZ size for personnel airdrops at 1,000 feet AGL and below, add ______ yards to the _________ for each additional parachutist when airdropping ST/Pararescue personnel. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.1

A

75, PI

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13
Q

During USAF MFF operations, aircrews should ensure the Jumpmaster/Team leader is aware when aerial power lines are within ________ meters of the intended PI. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.7.5.

A

1,000

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14
Q

The surface wind at the DZ is normally measured using an anemometer or other calibrated wind-measuring device. Wind direction is reported in magnetic degrees and wind speed in knots. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.8.1.

A

True

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15
Q

The surface wind limit for AF training bundles (SATB) airdrops is ______ knots. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.3

A

25

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16
Q

Suitable airfields are those normally within ___ NM of flight planned course centerline meeting weather, fuel, and C-130J runway requirements. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 12.8.

A

100

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17
Q

During personnel drops the surface wind limit for AF static line airdrops (land) is _______ kts. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.4

A

13

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18
Q

Drop clearance to a marked DZ is normally inherent with mission clearance and is confirmed by the aircrew observing the pre-briefed visual DZ markings. Unless radio communications are specifically required, any coordinated markings, other than red smoke, red flares, or red lights indicate a clearance to drop. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.12.1.

A

True

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19
Q

When an off DZ airdrop has been confirmed or suspected, the aircrew involved will not attempt another drop for the remainder of the mission. In the case of an off DZ drop involving injury or death to personnel, the mission will be terminated and the aircraft will land as soon as possible. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.21.1.

A

True

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20
Q

DZ/LZ surveys become obsolete ____ years after the date of MAJCOM approval and must be resurveyed prior to use. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.23, NOTE

A

5

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21
Q

The box length when using The Box and One configuration for an AMP-3 LZ is _____ feet. Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.6.4.3.

A

500

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22
Q

During HAAR, tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic RV equipment operating no less than ____ minutes prior to ARCT. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.37. Pg: 3-39

A

10

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23
Q

If electronic charts are used, _____________, prepared IAW chart requirements, must be immediately available for each crew member using electronic charts. Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.6

A

backup paper chart

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24
Q

For On-Call (Unplanned) HAAR/TAAR, crews will have ____, and ____ prior to join-up on any on-call track. Tanker aircrews are responsible for maintaining terrain clearance on track and will recompute track heading and refueling altitude as the terrain or threat dictate. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.15.b. Pg: 3-18 & Para: 4.15.b. Pg: 4-19

A

MSA, recommended refueling altitude

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25
Q

HAAR/TAAR contacts will not be conducted when radio communication capability between the tanker and receiver(s) is lost except during emergency fuel situation or contingency operations. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.37 Pg: 3-39 CAUTION & Para: 3.37 Pg: 4-38 NOTE

A

True

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26
Q

Radio Silent HAAR/TAAR may be conducted for tactical training and operational missions provided:_____ Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.44. Pg: 3-41 & Para: 4.44. Pg: 4.40.

A

The HAAR/TAAR pre-rendezvous briefing requirements will be covered in the pre-mission briefing.
Radio equipment on both aircraft must be operative and aircrews on both aircraft must monitor the same frequency and GUARD (243.0 MHZ) during all AAR procedures
The rendezvous requirements and altimeter setting are all briefed prior to the mission.

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27
Q

Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ___ NM. Minimum visibility for electronic rendezvous is ___ NM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.5.b. Pg: 3-7 & Para: 4.5.b. Pg: 4-9

A

3, 1

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28
Q

During HAAR, the tanker is within 3 nm of receiver prior to assuming formation lead. If visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker will maintain current altitude and continue join-up. At 1 nm electronic contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.29.a.1.b. Pg: FCIF 2015-248, Attachment 1

A

Turn 45 degrees right of track heading; lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required); slow to refueling airspeed; call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”; after 30 sec, turn left and resume track heading

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29
Q

Low-speed drogue flight limitations include a minimum speed for AR operations of ____ to an extended maximum speed of ____ KIAS. Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1, Pg: 1-8

A

105, 130

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30
Q

Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than ___ feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.6

A

200

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31
Q

For KC-135 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ____ PPM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (C) US SRD, Dec 15 Para: Appendix 8A Pg: 8-2

A

3800

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32
Q

For KC-10 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ___ PPM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (C) US SRD, Dec 15 Para: Appendix 8B Pg: 8-5

A

3000

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33
Q

During HAAR, if both visual and electronic contact are lost after your aircraft is within 3 NM of the receiver. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.29.a.1.a. Pg: FCIF 2015-248, Attachment 1

A

Immediately call “ CONTACT LOST”, establish a minimum 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, and after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.

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34
Q

When performing multiple equipment airdrops across the same DZ, _____airdrop checklists will be accomplished. Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.4.5

A

all

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35
Q

During HAAR with two or more receivers, if the tanker is ready to begin refueling operations Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.11.b.1. Pg: 3-14

A

the receiver on the left side may be cleared for contacts prior to the second element crossing over to the echelon right position.

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36
Q

Fuel transfer rates for HAAR/TAAR are normally____ pounds per minute, however, they are dependent on the tanker configuration. Specific National Annex should be consulted to determine the actual fuel transfer rate. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.2.a. Pg: 3-1 & Para: 4.2. Pg: 4-2

A

500-1000

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37
Q

During HAAR/TAAR, at the ARCP, both receivers and tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however, if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive early (no more than____ min(s)) and tankers should arrive at the ARCP late (no more than____ min(s)). Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.6.b. Pg: 3-8 & Para: 4.6.b. Pg: 4-10

A

1/1

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38
Q

During HAAR, prior to the tanker assuming formation lead, if the tanker is within 1 nm of the receiver(s) and loses visual contact, it will immediately: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.29.a.2.a Pg: FCIF 2015-248, Attachment 1

A

Establish a minimum of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed

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39
Q

During AAR strategic tanker(s) and heavy receiver(s) should communicate as soon as possible (in no case later than_________) to update ETAs. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (C) US SRD, Dec 15 Para: SE.9.2.1.8. Pg: 8-42

A

15 minutes prior to the rendezvous control time.

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40
Q

A receiver call to “Toboggan” is a request for the tanker to: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: Annex 1A Pg: 1A-16

A

Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

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41
Q

______________ is the minimum electronic equipment required for conducting an electronic rendezvous. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.5.b. Pg: 3-7 & Para: 4.5.b. Pg: 4-9

A

Equipment with the ability to determine receiver range (e.g. A/A TACAN).

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42
Q

Receivers will use the brevity term “TEXACO” to request an on-call HAAR/TAAR. Tanker aircrews, after examining the terrain on track will compute and relay ____________, __________ and ____________ to receivers. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.15.a. Pg: 3-18 & Para: 4.15.a. Pg: 4-19

A

refueling altitude, MSA, time status

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43
Q

Who is the approval authority for Jumpmaster Directed Airdrops? Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.1.5

A

Group/CC

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44
Q

For HAAR/TAAR, during a RV Hotel (random rendezvous), the tanker will be established on RV altitude at least ____ NM from the receivers and maintain this altitude until visual contact is established. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.H.2. Pg: 3H-1 & Para: 4.H.2. Pg: 4H-1

A

5

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45
Q

The response reset switch must never be actuated with the receiver engaged, as this could cause loss of all response capability. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 4.9.c. Pg: 4-14 CAUTION & Para: 3.9.d. Pg: 3-13 CAUTION

A

True

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46
Q

After the 1- or 2- minute warning, any crewmember observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit _____on interphone. Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 17.18.9.2

A

“no drop”

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47
Q

During HAAR/TAAR, a small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer requires immediate termination of air refueling operations due to the possibility of fire. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.31.c. Pg: 3-37 & Para: 4.31.c. Pg: 4-35

A

False

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48
Q

During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR/TAAR), the tanker will: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 3.33. Pg: 3-38 & Para. 4.33. Pg: 4-36

A

Perform a receiver high RV.
Execute the join-up to place the receiver on the side of the tanker with the intended refueling hose.
Establish refueling airspeed and set refueling hoses prior to reaching the receivers abeam position.
(All of the above)

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49
Q

During Fixed Wing AAR, receivers maintain altitude separation of at least _____ feet until _____ from the tanker. Once the recever is visual with the tanker, receivers are clear to join and should initiate a progressive climb towards the tanker. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 2.2.d. Pg: 2-2

A

1,000 / 1 NM

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50
Q

For fixed wing AAR procedures conducting an RV Delta, the receiver will be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVCP. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 2.D.2.d.1. Pg: 2D-5

A

False

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51
Q

A “No-Drop” condition exists if the aircraft location is not within pre-coordinated parameters at the ___________________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.6

A

“10 second” call

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52
Q

For fixed wing AAR while conducting a RV Golf (En Route), the tankers and receiver(s) navigate independently to arrive at the ARIP at: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 2.G.2.a. Pg: 2G-1

A

a designated ARCT

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53
Q

The subtle inaccuracies of unverified survey points and chart printing combined with position round off errors and physical over flight limitations can easily introduce navigation errors of 500 yards or more (in regards to manual position update). Even an unkeyed GPS receiver used for position updates is generally more accurate than a crew-entered update. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 9-72

A

True

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54
Q

During combination drops, if the computed release point will result in any jumper landing within _____ of any boundary of the DZ, ___________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130V3, Para: 17.18.13.2

A

150 yards, inform the jumpmaster

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55
Q

There can be up to ____separate airdrops (CARPS) in each flight plan route, with each one having the capability to run multiple passes over the drop zone. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 12-54

A

10

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56
Q

When inputting IPRA parameters, runway alignment should be referenced to true north. A runway alignment referenced to magnetic or grid north may prevent optimum DA/FD performance. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 11-71

A

True

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57
Q

When the airplane is between the TP and DZ ESC waypoints, the CNI-MS switches to a sensitive steering mode (approach gains) and reports the crosstrack error in ______ instead of miles. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 12-61

A

Yards

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58
Q

When building an IPRA, the IAF should be located so that the course change from the IAF to the IF is less than _____ degrees (____ degrees or less is recommended). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 11-71

A

120, 60

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59
Q

Maximum recommended gross weight for max effort landings is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-2

A

142,000lbs

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60
Q

Maximum Main tank limit, with AR pods is 28,000lbs. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-3

A

True

61
Q

When dropping a door bundle in conjunction with personnel, the _____ will be the first to exit. Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.18.20

A

Bundle

62
Q

High-speed drogue extension/retraction/AR operations: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-16

A

185-250 KIAS

63
Q

During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF. When the false signal is generated, the RWR ignores emitter signals that it should identify. When threat conditions dictate limiting airplane emissions, ensure the LPCR is in____mode and not transmitting.

A

Standby

64
Q

LTM is a Class IV laser that produces invisible non-ionizing IR radiation that can cause permanent blindness to people and animals. To prevent blindness to personnel or livestock, fire laser only over areas where firing Class IV laser is authorized. Do not fire the LTM at areas where people or animals are present within: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2D-81

A

1,000 feet

65
Q

In the event of an overheat indication, all EO-IR circuitry will continue to operate until failure. If the failure is caused by an overhead condition, shutting down the EO-IR for____ minutes or more may correct the condition. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2D-86

A

10

66
Q

Emergency Safe Altitude is an altitude that will provide positive terrain clearance in IMC during situations that require the exiting of the low-level environment. To compute ESA, add ____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the highest obstacle or terrain feature within __NM of route centerline or intended flight path (whichever is greater), rounded to the next 100-foot increment. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.9.2

A

1,000, 2,000, 10

67
Q

From the ___________call, parachutist will be mobile/standing in the cargo compartment. Unless situation dictates otherwise (e.g., combat), avoid abrupt maneuvering of the airplane to reduce the injury potential to personnel in the cargo compartment. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-105

A

6 minute advisory

68
Q

When notified of an airdrop malfunction, the PM will: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: AIRDROP EMERGENCY OPERATIONS , Page 2A-109

A

Computer drop switch to MAN
Activate the red light
(A and B)

69
Q

If a parachutist is towed after exit from a paratroop door, avoid turning the airplane away of the towed parachutist as this often causes parachutist to swing violently and increase the possibility of injury. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: AIRDROP EMERGENCY OPERATIONS, Page 2A-109

A

False

70
Q

Although 100 percent flaps selection provides an improved airflow for a towed parachutist, under certain conditions the gear down, 100 percent flaps configuration may reduce airplane performance. The AC should consider: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-109

A

Density altitude
Airplane Weight
Position in formation
(All of the above)

71
Q

With multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes deployed outside the airplane, maximum thrust may be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent. The drag produced by the extraction parachutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off. This reduction in drag could permit level flight or reduce the rate of descent should level flight not be possible. Reduce power to achieve this airspeed change and do not slow below VS carat +20. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-109

A

False

72
Q

Minimum Safe Altitude provides terrain clearance and limited threat avoidance during situations that require the interruption of low-level operation. To compute MSA for each leg or leg segment, add ___ feet to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle with __ of router centerline or the planned flight path (whichever is greater), and round up to the next ___ foot increment. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.9.3

A

500, 3, 100

73
Q

Perform a reset each time the tanker airplane stabilized airspeed changes more than____. This must be done prior to granting receiver clearance to engage the hose. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-116

A

10 KCAS

74
Q

Minimum airspeed for the Reel response test should be ____ for the high-speed drogue and____ for the low-speed drogue (maximum for the low-speed drogue). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-118

A

200 KCAS, 120 KCAS

75
Q

Do not allow the hose to rewind completely into the pod using the R/L-TEST LSK Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-118

A

True

76
Q

If a Drogue/Hose is damage, failure to immediately place the CNI-MU POD CTRL page 1/2_________ to OFF may result in AR pod/wing fire and/or damage to the refueling pod. The remaining hose will rapidly rewind completely into the pod and not stop, since the drogue stops will not be actuated, causing the hose to whip around in the pod until power is removed from the drum/system. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-121

A

MASTER POWER LSK

77
Q

In the event of an AR Pod Fire, refer to Wing Fire emergency procedures. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-128

A

True

78
Q

Once the GUILLOTINE switch is placed to CUT, do not move switch back to normal/OFF until maintenance has been performed on the reel. The pod remains enabled until the GUILLOTINE switch is placed back to normal/OFF. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-125

A

False

79
Q

Use of an AR pod or hose when a fuel leak is observed may result in a broken hose and/or an AR pod/wing fire. Any time fuel is observed originating from an AR pod: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-127

A

Discontinue use
Report discrepancy
Ensure that no further refueling from the affected pod occurs
(All of the above)

80
Q

The location of the FLCVs in the outboard main tanks allow these tanks to be overfilled in flight if AR pods are installed. To avoid overfilling tanks 1 and 4 in flight, use the preset fuel quantity function. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-133

A

True

81
Q

Upon hearing “emergency climb”, the CSO will state____________, monitor terrain and call “_________” when above all critical terrain. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.2

A

MSA or ESA as appropriate, clear of terrain

82
Q

In-flight, when transferring fuel into a main fuel tank with an inoperative boost pump and the fuel tank is near full capacity, movement of the airplane could result in fuel siphoning through the fuel vent system. Should this occur, stop the fuel transfer and lower the level in that tank to where the fuel venting stops. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-135

A

True

83
Q

Extend or retract the lowspeed drogue at a maximum speed of ____KIAS, and the high-speed drogue at a maximum of ____KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-118

A

120/250

84
Q

The red pod status light is energized whenever the hydraulic pressure switch detects a pressure of ____ PSI or less. Power for the light is only supplied when the pod MASTER POWER LSK is ___. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-6

A

1,700/ON

85
Q

Set radar altimeter to no lower than __% below the planned en route altitude. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.11.1

A

20

86
Q

Duplicate controls between the CNI-MU REFUEL CONTROL page and the REFUEL CONTROL panels follow the last input override rule. The Last control initiated determines the state of the system. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-9

A

True

87
Q

Pylon chaff dispenser (if installed) will be disabled when flaps are set greater than 15%. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 12-5

A

True

88
Q

In BIU backup mode operations, assume defensive systems are ____ and review the mission profile. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18-18

A

Non-functional

89
Q

TAWS video display color Medium Density Yellow indicates a terrain separation of: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18B-15

A

Between 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below and 1,000 feet above current altitude

90
Q

The skin paint display is an offset radar presentation shown in monochrome. SP is available in range scales up to ____ in all sector sizes up to+/- ___ degrees and expands on the full channel. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18B-35

A

20 NM, 60

91
Q

When recording video with the MRPS, audio selected at the Pilot station will be recorded. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18B-61

A

False

92
Q

The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a ______ warm-up. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2

A

5 second

93
Q

CMDS STBY may be overridden by utilizing the jettison function. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2

A

True

94
Q

____ mode ensures CMDS dispensing in the event of a major failure which disables the programmer. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2

A

BYP

95
Q

The defensive systems cannot be zeroized when the airplane is on battery power only. To zeroize the defensive systems equipment, AC power must be available. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-3

A

True

96
Q

The RWR components are ____________, one C/D band antenna, four DF receivers, one C/D band receiver/power supply, one analysis processor, one superheterodyne receiver, and one superheterodyne receiver controller: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-7

A

Four E/J band antennas

97
Q

When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives ___ information higher priority. This prioritization leads to delays of over ____ seconds ins in the update of TCAS symbol color and shape. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-8

A

RWR, 8

98
Q

During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF. When threat conditions dictate limiting emissions, ensure the LPCR is in ____ and _____. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-8

A

Standby mode, not transmitting

99
Q

The MASTER switch is a two position (OPR, STBY) lever-lock switch. In the STBY position, all components of the defensive system are inhibited from radiating or ejecting. This allows all defensive systems to be safetied by a single switch. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-7

A

True

100
Q

For a correlated launch, a triangle shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18D-24

A

False

101
Q

For an uncorrelated launch, a barbed circle (a circle with four lines, one at each corner) shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18D-24

A

True

102
Q

The uncorrelated launch takes priority over the correlated launch. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18D-24

A

False

103
Q

A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately _______ pounds in each main tank, 0 pounds in each auxiliary tank, and 0 pounds in each external tank (if installed). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 3-39

A

1520

104
Q

_____ is the approval authority for IMC SCA operations. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.14.3.1

A

HQ MAJCOM/A3V

105
Q

The crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the fuel in the main tanks from being dumped overboard. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 3-39

A

True

106
Q

(AR Pods) Green Light. The green light operates in parallel with the GRN pod status indicator on the CNI-MU POD CTRL pages. The green light illuminates when fuel flow reaches ____ GPM. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-7

A

50

107
Q

To avoid possible loss or damage to receiver airplanes, do not select _____ while the receiver airplane is in contact with orclose to a partially trailed hose. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-116

A

Reset

108
Q

During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at pressures greater than 50 PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through theAR pod venturi-pressure reducer vent line. It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable _______ listed in Section 1. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-116

A

Fuel Weights

109
Q

Transferring fuel during taxi or in flight into a nearly full main tank when its ________ is not operating is prohibited because it can result in rapid and continuous venting of fuel. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-135

A

Boost Pump

110
Q

The value displayed on the total quantity indicator does not include the fuel quantity for tanks that have a failed indicating system. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-17

A

True

111
Q

On the AN/ARC-231, the default sound level on initial power up is 23, which can/will damage the ICS system if not lowered prior totransmitting/receiving. The sound level preset should be changed to ______ before transmitting so as not to damage ICS system. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2D-40

A

11/12

112
Q

Minimum HAAR/TAAR altitude is ____ feet AGL. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.20.1

A

500

113
Q

The helo air refueling 70 percent flaps minimum operating speed is defined as? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, Page 7-4

A

that speed which is 5 knots above stall warning with power required for level flight

114
Q

The minimum recommend refueling airspeed for gross weights up to 148,000 pounds is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, Page 7-4

A

105 knots

115
Q

The minimum recommend air refueling speed [HAAR] is based on: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, Page 7-4

A

Drogue Stability
Reel response characteristics
Receiver’s stability
(All of the above)

116
Q

The minimum runway length for shortfield operation landings is ________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.22.3.4

A

ground roll plus 500 feet

117
Q

Use of non-hard surfaced runways or taxiways require _____ approval (or deployed equivalent). Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.22.3.1

A

GP/CC

118
Q

The primary concern with inoperative fuel boost pumps or quantity indicators is fuel balance and wing loading. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 4.7

A

True

119
Q

If a landing gear system or position indicator malfunction is encountered, only a full stop landing will be made. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 4.8

A

True

120
Q

During NVG operations, on blacked out runways, a go-around point will be identified to all crew members prior to execution. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 6.22.3.6

A

True

121
Q

When conducting Drop Zone (DZ)/LZ operations, only the CSO will verify CNI-MU CARP/LZ information with a valid DZ/LZ survey. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 5.8.2

A

False

122
Q

To conduct NVG/IMC low-level operations as lead or single-ship. The following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1

A

One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS.

123
Q

To conduct day low-level operations as lead or single-ship. The following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1

A

One radar altimeter and one INS

124
Q

To conduct an NVG SCA the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1

A

One radar altimeter and one INS

125
Q

To conduct an NVG SCA at an AMP-4 airfield, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.11

A

One radar altimeter and one INS with either an EO/IR or APN 241 radar

126
Q

To conduct an IMC SCA, the minimum equipment that must be operational is one radar altimeter and either a minimum of FOM 2 on the EGI or one INS and APN 241 radar. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1

A

True

127
Q

Visual airdrops require two operative INS. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1

A

False

128
Q

Start climb points will be computed during planning, annotated on all charts, and briefed during route study for all significant climbs when there is a terrain differential of _____ feet or greater over 3 nautical miles or less. Ref: AFTTP 3-3.E/MC-130J, Para 2.5.7.2.2

A

1500

129
Q

During NVG low-level, higher altitudes should be flown if terrain-masked. However, the minimum altitude is ____ foot AGL (non-mountainous) and ____ foot AGL (mountainous terrain). Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.9.6.2

A

300, 500

130
Q

Crews may fly low-level in IMC at MSA altitudes during training, conduct planned IMC routes under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless FLIP or host nation rules define other procedures. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.9.4

A

True

131
Q

You are planning on flying into an OCONUS airfield that does not have any instrument approaches and are likely to use the airfield as a staging base for the next 30 days. You are thinking that creating and submitting an IMC SCA to HQ MAJCOM/A3V is your quickest and smartest avenue just in case for bad weather. If the IMC SCA is approved, weather minimums will be no lower than ________________. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.14.3.1

A

200 feet and 1/2

132
Q

Minimum Descent Altitude. To compute MDA for VMC operations, add 100 feet to the Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE). For approved IMC SCA operations, add 200 feet to the TDZE. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.14.4

A

True

133
Q

When constructing an SCA, significant obstacles are those within ________ of the desired glideslope. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.15.6

A

300 feet

134
Q

Prior to entering MNPS airspace, both _____ must be fully operational to meet the MNPS requirements of having two fully serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 11.1.1.7

A

INSs

135
Q

Minimum formation takeoff interval is 20 seconds. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.19.3

A

False

136
Q

Minimum spacing for reduced flap setting drops, i.e., CDS and CRS, is ______ feet between aircraft. Minimum spacing for visual formation airdrop is ______ feet. MCADS minimum spacing is ______feet. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.19.6.1

A

6,000 / 2,000 / 500

137
Q

The pilot in command must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough reserve fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ____percent (up to a maximum of _____minutes) or ____minutes, whichever is greater. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 4.18.3

A

10, 45, 20

138
Q

Prior to Refusal Speed, any crew member noting a safety of flight condition/malfunction will state _____ and give a brief description of the malfunction. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 6.1

A

“Reject”

139
Q

Do not operate aircraft over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a ____ ft radius of the aircraft. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 6.2.3.3

A

1000, 2000

140
Q

Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than ____ ft above the surface, except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 6.2.3.2

A

500

141
Q

Fly over national parks or monuments no lower than ____. (Assuming no special use airspace, LATN or MTR) Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 6.2.3.4

A

2000’ AGL

142
Q

Any occupant, not trained IAW AFI 11-403, limits the time at cabin altitudes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft without supplemental oxygen to ______. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 3.14.2.1.4

A

3 hours

143
Q

Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL. For unpressurized operations, all persons will use supplemental oxygen while above______feet MSL. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 3.14

A

14,000

144
Q

Aircrew should preflight NVDs with a certified tester (Hoffman 20/20 Infinity tester if available) prior to each NVD flight to ensure proper operation and optimum night visual enhancement. Aircrew will document their visual acuity on the approved NVD preflight log. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, para 2.9.5 (AFSOC)

A

True

145
Q

Fuel will not be jettisoned except in combat, emergency conditions, or rescue missions requiring gross weight reduction. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 5.27.3

A

True

146
Q

What are the basic USAF VFR minimums for Class G airspace below 10,000 feet according to AFI 11-202 Vol 3? Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Table 6.1

A

500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal, visibility 3 SM

147
Q

For basic aircrew, the maximum flight duty period (FDP) is ___hours. No tactical training, HAAR/TAAR below 3,000 feet AGL, pilot proficiency training, or functional check flights (FCF) will be accomplished after ____ hours. No AAR/HAAR/TAAR at or above 3,000 feet AGL will be accomplished after ___ hours. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, Table 2.1

A

16, 12, 14

148
Q

During TAAR within 3 nm of receiver prior to assuming formation lead, if visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker is to maintain current altitude and continue join-up. At 1 nm electronic contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 4.29.a.1.b. Pg: 4-27

A

Slow to AAR airspeed; call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”; maintain electronic contact 1-2 NM in trail of receiver(s) until positive visual contact is reestablished or proceed as briefed.

CSO MQF (2 decks)

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