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DIT Qs > Qs1 > Flashcards

Qs1 Flashcards

1
Q

Embryo origin of tissue just proximal to pectinate line

A

Endoderm

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2
Q

Embryo origin of tissue distal to anal canal

A

Surface ectoderm

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3
Q

ACE inhibitor teratogenic effect

A

Renal abnormalities

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4
Q

Aminoglycosides teratogenic effect

A

Ototoxicity

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5
Q

Diethylstilbesterol teratogenic effect

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma in vagina

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6
Q

Tetracycline teratogenic effect

A

Teeth discoloration

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7
Q

Valproic acid teratogenic effect

A

Neural tube defects

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8
Q

Which vitamin should not be supplemented in excess during pregnancy?

A

Vit A

Causes cleft palate, cardiac defects

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9
Q

What are nuclear localization signals necessary?

A

Allow protein to enter nucleus

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10
Q

Which cyclin complexes are involved in G1 -> S

A

Cyclin D + CDK4

Cyclin E + CDK2

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11
Q

Which cyclin complexes are involved in G2 -> M

A

Cyclin A + CDK2

Cyclin B + CDK1

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12
Q

What does golgi add to proteins to direct them to lysosomes?

A

Mannose-6-phosphate

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13
Q

Which AAs are found in the nuclear localization signal?

A

Lys, arg, pro

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14
Q

Most common cause of intellectual disability in infants

A

FAS

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15
Q

Where do Rb and p53 regulate the cell cycle?

A

G1 -> S

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16
Q

Organogenesis takes place during which weeks?

A

3-8

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17
Q

What provides structural framework for DNA in the nuclear envelope?

A

Nuclear laminins

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18
Q

What is deficient in I-cell disease

A

Phosphotransferase

tags enzymes with mannose-6-phosphate

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19
Q

AA derivative: increased bronchial tone

A

Leukotrienes, thromboxane

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20
Q

AA derivative: decreased bronchial tone

A

Prostaglandins, prostacycline

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21
Q

AA derivative: decreased platelet aggregation

A

Prostacycline

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22
Q

AA derivative: Increased uterine tone

A

PGE2, PGF2a

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23
Q

AA derivative: decreased uterine tone

A

Prostacycline

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24
Q

AA derivative: Increased vascular tone

A

Thromboxane

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25
Q

AA derivative: Decreased vascular tone

A

Prostaglandins, prostacycline

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26
Q

2 most abundant substances in the plasma membrane

A

proteins

phospholipids

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27
Q

Stages of Conception -> Inner cell mass

A

Zygote -> morula -> blastocyst (contains inner cell mass)

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28
Q

What drugs interfere with microtubules?

Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly

A 
Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Vinchristine/Vinblastine
Paclitxel
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29
Q

Which cell types constantly recycle due to absent G0 and short G1?

A

Skin, hair, bone marrow

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30
Q

Apoptosis characteristic features

A

Shrinkage, fragmentation, fading, apoptotic bodies, membrane blebbing

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31
Q

What triggers apoptosis?

A 
Growth factor deprivation
Cell stress
DNA repair failure
Cytokines
Cytotoxic T cells
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32
Q

Neural crest derivatives in PNS

A

ANS, drg, CNs, Schwann cells

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33
Q

Neural crest derivatives in ear

A

Middle ear bones

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34
Q

Neural crest derivatives in eye

A

Anterior chamber

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35
Q

Neural crest derivatives in Adrenal gland

A

Chromaffin cells in medulla

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36
Q

Neural crest derivatives in mouth

A

Odontoblasts

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37
Q

Neural crest derivatives in heart

A

aorticopulmonary (spiral) septum

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38
Q

Neural crest derivatives in digestive

A

Enteric nervous system, celiac ganglion, enterochromaffin cells

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39
Q

Neural crest derivatives in thyroid

A

Parafollicular cells (C cells)

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40
Q

Neural crest derivatives in skin

A

Melanocytes

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41
Q

Cytokine imporant for granuloma formation

A

TNF-a

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42
Q

Mediator of acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

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43
Q

Mediator of chronic inflammation

A

Monocytes + macrophages

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44
Q

Protein that transports endocytosed vesicle to endosome

A

Clathrin

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45
Q

Metals that facilitate generation of O2 free radicals

A

Iron and copper

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46
Q

AAs in collagen

A

Glycine, proline, hydroxyproline

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47
Q

AAs in elastin

A

Glycine, proline

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48
Q

Role of Vit C in collagen production

A

hydroxylation of lysine and proline

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49
Q

Chediak-Higashi (path)

A

Ineffective lysosomes of phagocytes

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50
Q

High cholesterol in plasma membrane causes

A

decreased fluidity

increased melting temp

51
Q

Antibiotic association: Tendonitis

A

Fluoroquinolones

52
Q

Antibiotic association: Red man

A

Vancomycin

53
Q

Antibiotic association: Gray baby

A

Chloramphenicol

54
Q

Antibiotic association: Cartilage in children

A

Fluoroquinolones

55
Q

Antibiotic association: Nephrotox with cephalosporins

A

Aminoglycosides

56
Q

Antibiotic association: Ototoxicity with loop diuretics

A

Amingoglycosides

57
Q

Antibiotic association: Pseudomembranous collitis

A

Clindamycin, ampicillin

58
Q

Gonorrhea DOC

A

Ceftriaxone

59
Q

Lime disease or Rocky Mountain DOC

A

Tetracyclines

60
Q

Giardia lamblia DOC

A

Metronidazole

61
Q

MRSA and C difficile collitis

A

Vancomycin

62
Q

Tx for Gram - rods with renal insufficiency

A

Aztreonam

63
Q

Big Gun: Gram + cocci, Gram - rods, anaerobes

A

Meropenem; or

Imipenem with cilastatin

64
Q

Prophylaxis in AIDS agains P pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX; or

Dapsone then pentamidine

65
Q

Solo prophylaxis against TB

A

Isoniazid

66
Q

Antibiotics safe during pregnancy

A 
Penicillins (+ aminopenicillins)
Piperacillin
Cephalosporins
Macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin)
Metronidazole (after 1st trimester)
Nitrofurantoin (UTIs)
67
Q

Hesselbach’s Triangle borders

A

Inferior epigastric artery
Lateral border of rectus abdominus
Inguinal ligament

68
Q

RLS of purine synthesis

A

Glutamine PRPP amidotransferase

69
Q

RLS of pyrimidine synthesis

A

CPS II

70
Q

What inhibits ribonucleotide reductase (pyr synth)

A

Hydroxyurea (sickle cell and cancer)

71
Q

What inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (pyr synth)

A

TMP, methotrexate

72
Q

Inhibits thymidylate synthase (pyr synth)

A

5-FU

73
Q

Inhibits IMP dehydrogenase (pur synth)

A

Mycophenolate (immunosupressant)

74
Q

Inhibitis PRPP amidotransferase (pur synth)

A

6-MP

75
Q

Orotic aciduria triad

A

Orotic acid in urine, failure to thrive, megaloblastic anemia (not helped with B12+folate)(normal ammonia)

76
Q

Antibiotic Association: inhibits 23s, which is within the 50s peptitidyltransferase

A

Chloramphenicol

77
Q

Antibiotic Association: Blocks 50s, blocking initation?

What binds here later, blocking translocation?

A

Linezolid

Macrolides (Azithromycin, erythromycin) Lincocimides (lincomycin, clindamycin) Streptogramins

78
Q

Antibiotic Association: Binds 30s preventing initiation?

Also what binds here later, blocking tRNA attachment to A site?

A

Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

79
Q

Antibiotic Association: inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase

A

Rifampin

80
Q

Antibiotic Association: inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase

A

Fluoroquinolones

81
Q

Antibiotic Association: inhibitis prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim

82
Q

Different causes of post-op fever

Wind, water, wound, walking, wonder drugs

A

Pneumonia, UTI, wound infection, DVT

83
Q

Eukaryotic DNA replication

DNA polymerase alpha

A

Builds okazaki frags on lagging strand

Makes own primer

84
Q

DNA polymerase delta

A

Eukaryotic DNA replication

Builds leading strand

85
Q

DNA polymerase beta

A

Eukaryotic DNA replication

DNA repair

86
Q

DNA polymerase gamma

A

Euk DNA replication

Mitchondrial DNA replication

87
Q

Organisms tx by Tetratcyclines

VACUUM THE BEDROOM

A 
Vibro Cholera
Acne
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Tularemia
H. pylori
Borrelia burgdorferi
Rickettsiae rickettsii
88
Q

Organisms treated by Macrolides

PUS

A

Pneumoniaes (atypical)
URIs (group a strep)
STDs (gonorrhea, chlamydia)

89
Q

Organisms treated by 2nd gen Cephalosporins

HEN PEcKS

A 
H. flu
Enterobacter
Neisseria
Proteus mirabilis
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Serratia
(and gram + cocci)
90
Q

BP of pregnant woman (3rd trimester) drops when supine, what’s up?

A

Uterus compression of IVC

91
Q

Drugs to reverse neuromuscular blockade?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigimine)

92
Q

3 Rs of Rifampin

A

Rifampin
Inhibits RNA polymerase
Red secretions (tears, sweat)
Revs of cytochrome p450 (induces)

93
Q

What regulates Lac operon transcription?

A

CAP: allows RNA polymerase to bind to DNA and transcribe B-galactosidase gene (only binds if glucose absent)

Lac Repressor: Prevents RNA polymerase from binding to DNA (bound to operator region unless lactose is present)

94
Q

What conditions cause the Lac operon to be switched on?

A

Glucose absent

Lactose present

95
Q

Common causes of meningitis

in newborns

A

Group B strep
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

96
Q

Common causes of meningitis in 6m-6y

A

Strep pneumo (bacterial)
Neisseria meningitidis
H. influenzae
Enteroviruses (aseptic)

97
Q

Common causes of meningitis in 6-60y

A

Strep pneumo
Neisseria meningitidis
Enteroviruses
HSV

98
Q

Common causes of meningitis in 60y+

A

Strep pneumo
Gram - rods
Listeria monocytogenes

99
Q

Dantroline MOA

A

Prevents release of Ca from Sarc Retic of skeletal muscle

100
Q

NE reuptake inhibitors

A

Cocaine

TCAs

101
Q

What elongation factors are required for translocation in proks and euks?

A

Prok: EFG
Euk: EF2

102
Q

What inhibits EF2?

A 
Diptheria toxin
Exotoxin A (pseudomonas)
103
Q

What enzyme matches amino acids to tRNA?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

104
Q

Boot shaped heart

A

RVH -> Tetralogy of Fallot

105
Q

Tendon xanthomas

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia

106
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots

A

NF1, McCune-Albright

107
Q

Tuberous sclerosis triad

A

Seizures
Intellectual disability
Angiofibromas

108
Q

What cell type proliferates during lung damage?

A

Type II pneumocytes

109
Q

Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

Thyroidectomy

110
Q

Most common cause of metastatic disease to brain

Lots of bad stuff kills brain

A

Lung and Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (RCC)
GI tract tumors

111
Q

Most common cause of lysosomal storage disease

A

Gaucher

112
Q

Most common cause of myocarditis

A

Coxsackievirus, echovirus

113
Q

What amniotic fluid measurement is indicative of fetal lung maturity?

A

Lecithin-sphingomyelin ration > 2.0

114
Q

What stimulates NE release from neurons?

A

Ca
Amphetamines
Ephedrine
Tyramine

115
Q

Zoonotic bacteria: cat scratch fever

A

Bartonella

116
Q

Zoonotic bacteria: recurrent fever from variable surface antigens

A

Borrelia recurrentis

117
Q

Zoonotic bacteria: bloody diarrhea

A

Campylobacter

118
Q

Zoonotic bacteria: tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis (rabbits)

119
Q

Zoonotic bacteria: cellulitis and osteomyelitis from cat/dog bites

A

Pasturella multocida

120
Q

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

A 
Ipsi UMN signs below lesion
Ipsi DC loss of info below lesion
Contra pain/temp loss 2-3 segments below lesion
Ipsi pain/tem loss at level of lesion
LMN signs (flaccid paralysis)
121
Q

Drug prevents release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscles

A

Dantrolene

122
Q

Pregnant, dark pigment on face?

A

Melasma

123
Q

What organism typically causes mastitis?

A

S. aureus

124
Q

50 y o Smoker develops new cough + flu sx. Gram stain shows nothing, silver stain shows gram - rods

A

Legionella pneumophila

DIT Qs (3 decks)

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