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MRCP Past Papers > Qs > Flashcards

Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Broca’s area?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

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2
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area?

A

superior temporal gyrus

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3
Q

SMA blood supply

A

Jejunum and ileum and parts of colon

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4
Q

Chronic non-healing ulcers affect which layer of the skin?

A

Reticular dermis

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5
Q

Spinal accessory nerve innervation

A

CN XI
Innervates trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

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6
Q

Long thoracic nerve innervation

A

serratus anterior

injury -> scapular winging

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7
Q

Innervation of deltoid

A

Axillary nerve

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8
Q

What does the coefficient tell us in correlation analysis

A

on average, how much y increases with each additional x

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9
Q

What factors influence precision

A

Sample size and standard deviation

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10
Q

What is an ogive

A

A continuous cumulative frequency curve where the central point has 50% of values above and 50% of values below it

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11
Q

Positive and negatively skewed data

A

Positive skew:
mean > med > mode

Negative skew:
mode > med > mean

Present median and range in skewed data

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12
Q

Absolute risk reduction =

A
  1. relative risk reduction x placebo event rate
  2. 1/NNT
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13
Q

What is the power of a study

A

the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false

synonymous with sensitivity

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14
Q

Relative risk =

A

incidence in exposed/incidence in non-exposed

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15
Q

95% confidence interval =

A

mean +/- 2standard errors

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16
Q

Standard error =

A

SD/ sq.root of n

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16
Q

Type 2 error

A

False negative ie. incorrectly accepting null hypothesis

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17
Q

SD =

A

sq root of variance

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18
Q

Type 1 error

A

False positive ie. incorrectly rejecting null hypothesis

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19
Q

drugs causing hirsutism

A

ciclosporin
anabolic steroids
danazol
minoxidil
metoclopramide
methyldopa
phenothiazines
progesterones

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20
Q

What drugs to hold prior to contrast procedures

A

metformin
ACEi

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21
Q

Renal TB

A

sterile pyuria
haematuria
dysuria
renal tract calcification

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22
Q

Blood test most likely to be elevated in nephrotic syndrome

A

cholesterol

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23
Q

High anion gap acidosis

A

Cyanide
Aminoglycosides
Toluene
Methanol
Uraemia
DKA
Paracetamol
Isoniazid
Lactate
Ethanol
Salicylates

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24
Q

Causes of T1 RTA

A

PBC
SLE/sjogrens
Amphotericin B

Hypokalaemia
Urine pH > 5.5
Met acidosis
Hyperchloraemia

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25
Q

Causes of T2 RTA

A

Multiple myeloma
Acetazolamide
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Fanconi syndrome
Wilsons disease

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26
Q

Causes of type 4 RTA

A

DM
Addison’s
Sickle cell

hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronaemic

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27
Q

Incidence of contrast induced nephropathy

A

General pop - 2-7%
In pt. with impaired renal function - 25%

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28
Q

Positive urinary cyanide nitroprusside

A

cystinuria -> hexagon shaped crystals on urinalysis

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29
Q

Wilms tumour

A

aniridia, genitourinary problems, intellectual disability
Assoc. with Ch 11 short arm deletion

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30
Q

Renal microscopy - fused podocyte foot processes

A

minimal change disease

31
Q

Sickle cell nephropathy

A

reduced urine osmolality - medullary damage due to sickling

32
Q

Absolute contraindication to lithotripsy

A

pregnancy
uncorrected coagulation disorder
uncorrected obstruction distal to stone
acute urosepsis

33
Q

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

A

Neuro symptoms typically in patients undergoing first dialysis session
Symptoms: headache, nausea, blurred vision
can progress to confusion, seizure, coma and death

34
Q

Why is long term dialysis assoc. w/ carpal tunnel syndrome

A

b2 microglobulin deposition

35
Q

Risk factors for contrast induced nephropathy

A

Age > 75
DM
Uncontrolled HTN
Renal impairment (100% of patients with Cr > 400 and DM get CIN)
Prior dehydration
NSAIDs

36
Q

Gingival hypertrophy secondary to which renal transplant med

A

Ciclosporin

37
Q

Pollakiuria

A

Increased daytime urinary frequency
assoc. w/ risperidone

38
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis causes

A

Pencillins
NSAIDs
Sulfa containing drugs eg co-trimoxazole

39
Q

Positive Rinne’s test

A

air conduction > bone
normal/SNHL

40
Q

Positive Webers test

A

lateralises to one side either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral SNHL

41
Q

presbycusis

A

bilateral SNHL

42
Q

otosclerosis

A

progressive conductive hearing loss

43
Q

TCA overdose

A

within 1 hr- gastric lavage
if cardiac involvement- sodium bicarb
if seizure- iv benzo

44
Q

Docetaxel MoA

A

binds to microtubules reducing tubulin availability and therefore reducing mitotic activity

45
Q

baclofen MoA

A

GABAb agonist

46
Q

Drugs that undergo high rates of first pass metabolism

A

Propranolol
Verapamil
Morphine

47
Q

When to discontinue metformin

A

in women when Cr > 130
in men when Cr > 150

48
Q

Anti-emetic for motion sickness

A

Cinnarizine - vestibular system depression and suppresses SM contraction in gut

49
Q

What is prothrombin complex concentrate

A

inactivated factors II, IX and X + variable amounts of factor VII

50
Q

Carbimazole side effects

A

alopecia, nausea, agranulocytosis, jaundice, rash, arthralgia, pruritus

51
Q

Entamoeba histolytica treatment

A

metronidazole

52
Q

Hazardous drugs in desensitisation therapy for allergies

A

ACEi

53
Q

Bosentan class of drug

A

Endothelin A and B antagonist

Ambrisentan = selective for endothelin A

54
Q

First line for schizophrenia

A

risperidone

55
Q

Risk factors for ciprofloxacin induced achilles tendonitis

A

concomitant steroid use
age > 60
previous tendon rupture
renal impairment
organ transplant

56
Q

HLA A3

A

haemochromatosis

57
Q
A
58
Q

HLA-B51

A

Behcet’s

59
Q

HLA-B27

A

Reactive arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

60
Q

HLA-Cw6

A

Psoriasis

61
Q

HLA-DR2

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome
MS

62
Q

HLA-DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

63
Q

HLA-DR3

A

Addison’s disease

64
Q

HLA-DQ2 and DQ8

A

Coeliac

65
Q

Factors that shift Hb-O2 dissociation curve to the right (Decreasing oxygen affinity)

A

Rise in 2,3-DPG
Rise in CO2
Fall in bicarb
Rise in temp

66
Q

Arthus reaction

A

type III hypersensitivity reaction following vaccination due to formation of immune complexes as vaccination site

67
Q

Action potential phases

A

Phase 0 - sodium influx
Phase 2 - plateau phase - potassium channels open (K out of cell) AND calcium channels open (Ca into cell) = stable, no change
Phase 3 - Calcium channels close tf. more potassium efflux

68
Q

Grade C oesophagitis

A

Lower oesophageal sphincter pressure
< 75% of mucosal circumference involved

69
Q

Where is intrinsic factor produced

A

parietal cells in fundus of stomach

70
Q

Surfactant

A

Made of phospholipids by type 2 pneumocytes

71
Q

Where in cell is circular double stranded DNA found?

A

Mitochondria

NB - nucleus contains linear DNA

72
Q

What are Type C drug reactions?

A

Type C reactions occur in the setting of prolonged drug use, such as analgesic nephropathy or visual-field defects with vigabatrin

73
Q

What characterizes Type B adverse drug reactions?

A

Type B adverse drug reactions are unpredictable, not related to a predictable pharmacological effect, idiosyncratic, unexpected, usually rare, and may be serious

Type B reactions are typically not dose-related.

74
Q

What are Type A adverse drug reactions?

A

Type A adverse drug reactions occur as an anticipated effect arising from a particular pharmacological property of the drug and are dose-related

An example is bradycardia as an adverse effect of B-adrenoceptor blocking drugs.

75
Q

What is the defining feature of Type D adverse drug reactions?

A

Type D adverse drug reactions emerge late after treatment, such as teratogenic or carcinogenic reactions

An example is phocomyelia after administration of thalidomide in pregnancy.

76
Q

What do Type E adverse drug reactions relate to?

A

Type E adverse drug reactions are related to drug withdrawal phenomena observed after a drug is discontinued

Examples include SSRI cessation and agitation, or opioid withdrawal syndrome.

MRCP Past Papers (2 decks)

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