Past papers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most useful way to differentiate toxoplasma infection?

A

CSF PCR
(IgG antibody titre is less reliable given high chance of previous exposure)

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2
Q

Which enzyme transports fatty acids within the cell?

A

Carnitine acyltransferase

Carnitine deficiency in kids can lead to cardiomyopathy

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3
Q

Initial intervention for toxoplasma?

A

Pyrimethamine

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4
Q

What is Charles Bonnet syndrome?

A

syndrome of visual hallucinations with preserved consciousness associated with visual impairment

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5
Q

Latex fruit syndrome

A

Bananas, kiwis, avocados

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6
Q

Ragweed allergy

A

Food allergies to banana and melon

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7
Q

Avoidant vs schizoid personality disorder vs schizotypal

A

Avoidant - has a need for human contact and feels lonely, anxiety is limiting socialisation

Schizoid - emotional aloofness, indifference to praise or criticism

Schizotypal - schizoid + abnormalities of thought

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8
Q

Medical management of bowel ischaemia

A

Fluids and analgesia

no role for steroids

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9
Q

Common peroneal nerve palsy vs L5 lesion

A

Preserved foot inversion and plantar flexion = common peroneal nerve palsy

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10
Q

Medication causing acute pancreatitis

A

furosemide

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11
Q

Carbamazepine MoA

A

Voltage dependent sodium channel inhibition

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12
Q

Somatostatinoma symptoms

A

Pentad of DM, cholelithiasis, weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea and hypochlorhydria

10% assoc. with NF-1
45% assoc. with MEN-1

Can secrete VIP, insulin, gastrin, ACTH calcitonin and pancreatic polypeptide

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13
Q

Engorged episcleral vessels, gritty feeling, watery eyes- diagnosis?

A

Episcleritis

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14
Q

Medication that worsens psoriasis symptoms?

A

beta blockers

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15
Q

Poor prognostic factors in infective endocarditis

A

S. aureus infection
Prosthetic valve
Culture negative infection
Depletion of complement levels

Strep. infection = better prognosis

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16
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency genetics

A

SERPINA1 gene mutation
Autosomal codominant
PiMM = normal
PiZZ = severest homozygous form

A1 antitrypsin = alpha 1 proteinase inhibitor made in liver
Mutations -> abnormal protein accumulation in liver causing scarring -> cirrhosis

Deficiency -> accumulation of neutrophil elastase in lungs -> emphysema

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17
Q

Tertiary syphilis vs Yaws

A

Tertiary syphilis - confusion, dorsal column involvement, nodular rash, West Africa

Yaws- ulceration of palate and nasopharynx, subcutaneous nodules, osteoperiostitis

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18
Q

Hypopigmented macular lesions with decreased sensation in the centre?

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

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19
Q

Which cytokine production is reduced by ciclosporin?

A

IL-2 (aka T cell growth factor)

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20
Q

Which cytokine production is reduced by tacrolimus?

A

IL-2

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21
Q

Treatment of prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonists - cabergoline, ropinirole, bromocriptine

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22
Q

Medications that worsens myasthenia gravis

A

Calcium channel blockers
Beta blockers

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23
Q

Treatment of cat scratch disease (Bartonella henselae)

A

If not immunocompromised - reassurance as likely to self resolve

If immunocompromised - ciprofloxacin or azithromycin

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24
Q

Metabolic acidosis + QRS >100 in overdose

A

Sodium bicarbonate due to risk of ventricular arrhythmia

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25
Q

Gynaecomastia, tall stature, microochidism, hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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26
Q

Most concerning complication of recurrent gonorrhoea infection

A

Infertility

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27
Q

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

A

Peri hepatitis secondary to chlamydia or gonorrhoea

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28
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

transient reaction secondary to antibiotic administration for sphirocyte infection (syphilis, lyme disease, leptospirosis)

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29
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis vs PBC vs PSC antibodies

A

AH - anti-smooth muscle
PBC - anti-mitochondrial
PSC - assoc. w/ IBD

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30
Q

Pleural fluid pH < 7.3

A

malignant effusion

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31
Q

Indications for surgery in IE

A

-cardiac failure
- haemodynamic instability
-large vegetations
-septic emboli
-septal abscess (prolonged PR interval)
-fungal infection
- failure to respon to abx after 5 days

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32
Q

Normal bladder emptying occurs because of…

A

increased parasympathetic activity of S2-S4

hyperactivity treated with muscarinic antagonists

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33
Q

Hyponatraemia in lung Ca

A

Small cell
can also occur in mesothelioma

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34
Q

Necrotic changes around stoma site?

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

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35
Q

Hepatitis with mixed cryoglobulinaemia and consequent renal impairment

A

Hep C > hep B

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36
Q

Best antidepressant while breastfeeding

A

Sertraline

Fluoxetine and citalopram accumulate

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37
Q

Diagnostic test for Wilson’s disease

A

liver biopsy

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38
Q

Most common renal manifestation of tuberous sclerosis

A

angiomyolipomas
can be detected on USS or MRI

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39
Q

Risk factors for sudden cardiac death in HOCM

A

non-sustained VT
family history
syncope
LVH

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40
Q

Enlarged left atrium in HOCM increases risk of

A

AF

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41
Q

Clopidogrel MoA

A

binds to P2Y12 component of ADP on platelet surface, preventing platelet aggregation

same as ticagrelor

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42
Q

TTP symptoms

A

Thrombocytopaenia
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Neurological symptoms
Fever
Renal impairment

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43
Q

Shingles virus

A

Herpes zoster

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44
Q

Goserelin MoA

A

GnRH agonist

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45
Q

Thyroid cancer associated with MEN 2

A

Medullary thyroid cancer
Amyloid deposits on aspiration

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46
Q

Why monitor for osteoporosis in patients on levothyroxine?

A

Increase osteoclast numbers and activity lead to increased bone turnover

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47
Q

Cardiac lesion most associated with coarctation of aorta

A

bicuspid aortic valve

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48
Q

Treatment for alopecia areata

A

Intralesional corticosteroids

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49
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon

A

worsening of MS symptoms after heat exposure

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50
Q

Inheritance pattern of Turner syndrome

A

No inheritance pattern
Random error of non-disjunction -> 45X

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51
Q

Gram positive rods meningitis in immunocompromised patient

A

Listeria
treat with ampicillin/amoxicillin
also occurs after eating unpasteurised foods

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52
Q

Extensive skin thickening + Raynaud’s

A

diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Anti-topoisomerase I antibody

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53
Q

Most likely arrhythmia in WPW patient

A

AVRT

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54
Q

Most common causative organism of anterior blepharitis

A

Staph aureus

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55
Q

Treatment for avascular necrosis

A

Core decompression with bone grafting

THR for older patients

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56
Q

Bowel obstruction anti-emetic

A

haloperidol

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57
Q

Fear of germs

A

Mysophobia

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58
Q

Treatment of gastric MALToma

A

H pylori eradication
even if negative test

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59
Q

Genetics of Fabry disease

A

X linked recessive
alpha galactosidase a enzyme deficiency

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60
Q

Port wine stain + epilepsy + cognitive impairment

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome
epilepsy secondary to leptomeningeal angiomas

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61
Q

Treatment of serotonin syndrome

A

Benzodiazepines and cyproheptadine (histamine antagonist)

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62
Q

Contraindication to pneumonectomy

A

vocal cord palsy
implies local invasion of tumour
FEV1 < 0.8 predicted post pneumonectomy
SVCO

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63
Q

Treatment of lupus

A

hydroxychloroquine for joint disease
mycophenalate mofetil for renal disease

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64
Q

Function of lysosomes

A

Protein degradation

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65
Q

Witnessed and monitored VF/VT arrest management

A

3 successive shocks at same joules
then cpr
then increase joules

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66
Q

Calculating osmolarity

A

2 x Na + 2 x K + glucose + urea

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67
Q

Fixed split second heart sound

A

Ostium secundum ASD

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68
Q

Pansystolic murmur loudest at left lower sternal edge

A

VSD

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69
Q

Grapefruit juice effect on statin metabolism

A

CYP3A4 inhibitor
tf. increases statin bioavailability

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70
Q

Gag reflex innervation

A

sensory - CN IX
motor - CN X

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71
Q

Complications of infliximab

A

Reactivation of TB
Worsening of hepatitis

72
Q

Actions of BNP

A

Sodium excretion
Reduced renin
Reduced aldosterone

73
Q

Paralysed hemidiaphragm pulmonary function tests

A

Reduction by 30% of FVC

74
Q

How do B cells change from producing IgM to IgG

A

switching of the constant region of the heavy chain

75
Q

Greatest risk factor for future diabetic ulcer

A

Previous diabetic ulcer

76
Q

Sight threatening thyroid eye disease symptoms

A

Loss of colour vision and blurred vision
suggest pressure on optic nerve

77
Q

Hep A

A

faeco-oral transmission
self limiting
often associated with short diarrhoeal illness

78
Q

Gull wing/inverted T pattern on X ray

A

Erosive osteoarthritis

79
Q

Somatisation disorder

A

Multiple physical symptoms lasting 2 years or more

80
Q

Vitamin C is essential for which process of collagen synthesis

A

Hydroxylation of proline and lysine

81
Q

Pemphigoid

A

spares buccal mucosa
autoantibodies to hemidesmosomal BP180 and BP230

82
Q

Pemphigus

A

involves buccal ulceration
desmoglein 3 and 1 antibodies

83
Q

Long term immunosuppression and skin lesion

A

SCC most likely

84
Q

Malignancy associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Papillary thyroid

85
Q

DNA splicing

A

removes introns (non-coding sequences of RNA)

86
Q

Initial driver of T2DM

A

ectopic fat deposition

87
Q

Most common deficiency after gastric bypass surgery

88
Q

Epilepsy with lip smacking and feelings of deja vu

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

89
Q

Abx for close contacts of pt. with meningococcal meningitis

A

ciprofloxacin

90
Q

MND treatment

A

Riluzole (glutamate release inhibitor)

91
Q

Dermatomyositis

A

CK elevated
Anti-Mi-2 positive (in 25% of pt)

92
Q

Swollen, oedematous and erythematous rash after insect bite

A

Erysipelas - strep. pyogenes
treat with co-amox
(clari and met if pen allergic)

93
Q

Low faecal elastase

A

Chronic pancreatitis

94
Q

ECG leads posterior descending artery

A

V1 V2

the circumflex supplies the posterior surface of the heart, via the posterior descending artery in around 15% of people, called a left dominant system;
in 85% of people, the posterior descending artery arises from the right coronary artery, called a right dominant system.

95
Q

Left anterior descending

96
Q

Cowden syndrome

A

PTEN (phosphate tensin homologue) mutation
AD
Breast, thyroid, endometrial and colon ca

97
Q

Strep. gallolyticus

A

= strep bovis
risk of colon cancer

98
Q

First line treatment for acromegaly

A

pituitary surgery
pegvisomant is for persistent elevated GH post surgery

99
Q

Noonan syndrome

A

neck webbing
short stature
undescended testes
cognitive impairment

assoc. pulmonary stenosis

AD - PTPN11 gene

100
Q

Best marker to measure post-thyroidectomy for cancer recurrence

A

thyroglobulin

101
Q

95% Confidence interval

A

2 standard deviations above and below mean

102
Q

Adjustment disorder

A

emotional/behavioural reaction to significant life event
symptoms start within 3 months of event and are completed by 6 months

103
Q

Lambert Eaton myasthaenic syndrome treatment

A

1st line - Amifampridine (3, 4 diaminopyrimidine)
2nd line - pyridostigmine

104
Q

Abx for cellulitis in DM

105
Q

IE management

A

Native valve - IV amox + gent
Prosthetic valve - vanc + gent + rifampicin

Staph - fluclox (+ rifampicin and gent if prosthetic valve)
MRSA - vanc + rifampicin
HACEK - amox + gent (consider cef + gent)
Strep - benpen
Q fever - doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine

106
Q

Where is CSF absorbed?

A

Arachnoid granulations
(Choroid plexus produces CSF)

107
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Lamivudine, zidovudine, tenofovir

108
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Efavirenz
Nevirapine

109
Q

Integrase inhibitors

A

Raltegravir, elvitegravir

110
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

ritonavir, daranuvir

111
Q

Where are beta 3 receptors found

A

Adipose tissue

112
Q

Treatment of chlamydia in pregnancy

A

Azithromycin
(doxy is contraindicated as it leads to tooth staining)
[erythromycin or amoxicillin]

113
Q

Drugs that reduce thyroxine absorption

A

Omeprazole
Iron
Bile acid resins
Phenytoin

114
Q

Pregabalin MoA

A

voltage gated calcium channel inhibitor

115
Q

Effect of calcitonin

A

Inhibits osteoclast activity

116
Q

Which pituitary hormone falls in pregnancy

A

growth hormone (rises initially but begins to fall at week 15-17)

117
Q

Parkinsonism with poor response to levodopa + postural hypotension

A

Multi-system atrophy

PSP - vertical gaze palsy and no postural hypotension

118
Q

Causes of wide pulse pressure

A

aortic stiffness
aortic regurge
high output heart failure (seen in hyperthyroidism)

119
Q

Dialysis related peritonitis cause

A

staph epidermidis
(coagulase negative)
treat with vanc - usually methicillin resistant

120
Q

Cocaine induced MI

A

GTN then PCI

121
Q

What is most associated with increased risk of heart failure with trastuzumab use

A

co-prescription of doxorubicin

122
Q

Gold standard for leptospirosis diagnosis

A

Microscopic agglutination test

123
Q

OCP reduces risk of which cancer?

A

colorectal
renal to a lesser extent

124
Q

Best way to monitor disease progression in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

FVC

FVC most useful in monitoring restrictive lung disease
FEV1 most useful in monitoring obstructive lung disease

125
Q

Main triggers for acne

A

In women:
Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation

In men + women with PCOS:
androgen excess

126
Q

Medications causing sterile pyuria

A

NSAIDs
corticosteroids
PPIs

127
Q

Parkinson’s drug that potentiates risk taking and gambling

A

Ropinirole

128
Q

Can you continue ACEi/ARB in pregnancy for HTN?

A

No - both are second trimester teratogens
Switch to labetalol

129
Q

What type of receptor is insulin receptor?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor

130
Q

Site of action of ADH

A

cortical collecting duct

131
Q

Primary action of insulin

A

Inhibition of gluconeogenesis

132
Q

Which cancers does alcohol have biggest impact on risk

A

Mouth
Oesophageal
Breast
Colon
Liver

133
Q

Treatment for constrictive pericarditis secondary to recurrent viral pericarditis

A

IL-1 antagonist eg. Anakinra
Then pericardectomy if no improvement
Furosemide provides symptomatic relief

134
Q

RMSF via lyme disease

A

RMSF (rickettsia rickettsi) = macular rash
lyme disease = erythema migrans

135
Q

Most common defects in HOCM

A

myosin binding protein C
beta myosin heavy chain 7

136
Q

AST:ALT ratio >/= 2

A

Alcoholic liver disease

137
Q

Best antihypertensives to use with lithium

A

CCBs
Beta blockers

ACEi, ARBs and diuretics lead to accumulation of lithium and toxicity

138
Q

Main constituent of gallbladder stones

A

Bile pigment

139
Q

Most useful investigation in suspected IgA nephropathy

A

24 hour urine protein estimation
Renal biopsy reserved for those with marked proteinuria or those who don’t respond to meds

140
Q

HNPCC mutation

A

MutS homolog 2

141
Q

Most frequent diseases causing haemoptysis

A

Bronchiectasis
TB
Fungal infections
Cancer

142
Q

Diarrhoea following terminal ileum resection

A

Bile salt induced diarrhoea
Malabsorption -> excess bile salts in colon leading to irritation and diarrhoea

143
Q

Diarrhoea associated with systemic sclerosis

A

Small bowel overgrowth syndrome

144
Q

Physiological response to Valsalva maneouvre in healthy person

A

Increased intrathoracic pressure shifts blood from the pulmonary circulation to the left atrium, and also causes reduced systemic return to the right side of the heart.
JVP will increase initially and cardiac output drops. Heart rate, and therefore pulse, drops during phase 1 of Valsalva manoeuvre.

145
Q

Which Ig responsible for hyperacute rejection

146
Q

Microscopy in gout and pseudogout

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals cause pseudogout, and are seen on microscopy as positively birefringent rhomboid crystals. Gout crystals are needle-shaped with negative birefringence.

147
Q

Dominant parietal lobe lesion symptoms

A

receptive dysphasia, dyslexia, inattention and sensory impairments, and also Gerstmann syndrome, which is characterised by finger agnosia, acalculia, agraphia and left–right limb disorientation

148
Q

Which investigation is most useful to determine whether goitre is the cause of breathlessness?

A

Lung function tests
Flow volume loop

149
Q

Associations of constrictive pericarditis

A

Hepatomegaly (most common)
Ascites
Pericardial knock
Pleural effusion (uncommon)

150
Q

MI in relation to pregnancy

A

Coronary artery dissection

151
Q

What structure is implicated in the pathophysiology of lipodermatosclerosis?

A

Hypodermis

152
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis symptoms

A

erythematous scaly rash involving the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and mid sternum, with mild scaling of the scalp

153
Q

Collapsing pulse

A

Moderate to severe aortic regurgitation

154
Q

Anacrotic pulse

A

low volume pulse seen in aortic stenosis

155
Q

Pulsus alternans

A

Severe LVSD - cardiomyopathy, HTN, AS

156
Q

Pulsus bisferiens

A

Moderate to severe aortic regurgitation

157
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

158
Q

Risk factors for completed suicide

A

Male
Older age
Alcohol
Previous attempts

159
Q

Single nucleotide polymorphisms

A

Swapping of one nucleotide for another
Most commonly found in non-coding DNA between genes

160
Q

Which drug would be most likely to maintain sinus rhythm following DC cardioversion

A

Class IA (disopyramide phosphate, quinidine sulfate)
Class IC (flecainide acetate, propafenone hydrochloride)
Class III (amiodarone, dofetilide, dronedarone, sotalol hydrochloride)

Amoidarone > propafenone > sotalol

161
Q

ISMN MoA

A

increased cyclic guanosine monophosphate production

162
Q

Where is BNP released

A

myocytes in cardiac ventricles

163
Q

Indications for ivabradine in HF

A

left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 35% + HR above 75 beats/min

164
Q

Site of action of haloperidol

A

D2 receptor antagonist that acts on area postrema, which is a medullary structure controlling vomiting

165
Q

What is the mechanism of renal injury with aciclovir?

A

crystalluria

166
Q

Causative organism for acute epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenza

167
Q

Best statins with warfarin

A

Atorvastatin/pravastatin

168
Q

Gram positive diplococcus meningitis

A

Strep pneumoniae
treat with ceftriaxone and vancomycin

169
Q

Chondrocalcinosis in hereditary haemochromatosis

A

secondary to pyrophosphate arthropathy

170
Q

Treatment of oculogyric crisis

A

benztropine
procyclidine
diphenhydramine

171
Q

ECG change in hyperkalaemia with highest risk of arrest

A

QT prolongation

172
Q

APML treatment

A

all trans retinoic acid

t15,17

173
Q

Most common abnormality in lung function testing in obesity

A

expiratory reserve volume
reduced even in moderate obesity

174
Q

Recurrent calcium oxalate renal stones

A

potassium citrate
thiazide diuretics

175
Q

SAAG > 11 indicates

A

portal HTN secondary to cirrhosis