QP - FX Flashcards

1
Q

The use of the Interior Designer’s time and expertise on a volunteer basis to help enhance and enrich the functionality of a non-profit organization’s outreach and benefitting society as a whole would be an example of:

a) community sustainability
b) social responsibility to the community
c) helping the triple bottom line
d) a pro-bono project commitment

A

b) social responsibility to the community

Source: Piotrowski, C. M. (2013).
Professional Practice for Interior
Designers., Glossary

“Social responsibility. Use of the designer’s expertise and time, usually on a volunteer or pro bono basis, to enhance and enrich the interiors of nonprofits and public places or otherwise perform community service.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a consumer protection complaint by a client cover?

a) a non-biased disciplinary action for a licensed/certified/registered interior designer.
b) legal action against unaffiliated designers for unfair treatment to the client.
c) recourse when goods are sold to the client at more than manufacturer’s suggested pricing.
d) ethics violations by all designers regardless of professional association affiliation.

A

c) legal action against an unaffiliated designer for unfair treatment to the cleint

Source: Piotrowski, C. M. (2013).
Professional Practice for Interior Designers., Ethics and Professional Conduct, Disciplinary Procedures

“A client cannot expect an association to discipline someone who is not a member of that association. However, clients may have recourse even with nonaffiliated designers: if the laws exist, they may file a complaint with a licensing board or a consumer protection agency in their state.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statement is NOT true of CEU’s or “continuing education units”?

a) a means to show clients that a designer is current on both trends and technical issues.
b) are a requirement by many locations to maintain a license/registration/certification.
c) are obtained through any educational seminar or course regardless of provider or duration.
d) are required by most professional design associations for membership maintenance.

A

a) a means to show clients that a designer is current on both trends and technical issues.

Source: Kennon, K. E. (2018).
Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, 2nd Edition, Professional Advancement, Lifelong Learning

“Courses that provide CEU credits are those that have been approved by a reviewing body. Not all seminars and workshops provide approved CEU credits.”

Of particular mention is that IDCEC will not accept a submission that has content related to training or preparation for passing, marking or developing a credentialing exam such as NCIDQ or LEED. Exam preparatory CEUs that address the minimum competency to practice are also not eligible for IDCEC approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ethical behavior of an Interior Designer is arguably the most important part of being a professional. According to both IIDA and ASID, what is the MOST IMPORTANT consideration for all aspects of an Interior Designer’s work?

a) to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the client and public.
b) to protect the confidentiality between client and designer.
c) to guard against unlicensed use of intellectual property.
d) to always perfom services in the best interest of their clients

A

a) to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the client and public.

Source: 9425, D.K.B.F.N. N. (2018).
Interior Design Reference Manual:
Everything You Need to Know to Pass the NCIDQ Exam., Interior Design Business Practices, Professional Ethics

From the ASID code of ethics:
Responsibility to the Public: The interior designer must at all times consider the health, safety, and welfare of the public in spaces he or she designs.

Responsibility to the Client: The designer must perform services in the best interests of the client as long as those interests do not violate laws, regulations, and codes; the designer’s aesthetic judgment; or the health, safety, or welfare of the occupants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements is true. According to generally accepted Interior Design professional Codes of Ethics, a designer

a) may accept payment from suppliers as long as they disclose it to their client.
b) must always perform services in the express interest of their client, regardless of other consideration.
c) may accept any form of legal compensation from their client for their services.
d) is restricted in the type of legal compensation they can receive for their services.

A

c) may accept any form of legal compensation from their client for their services.

Source: 9425, D.K.B.F.N. N. (2018).
Interior Design Reference Manual:
Everything You Need to Know to Pass the NCIDQ Exam, eTextbook., Interior Design Business Practices, Professional Ethics

“The designer is allowed to offer services to clients for any form of legal compensation.”

“The designer must fully disclose to the client all compensation the designer will receive in connection with a project and must not accept any form of compensation from a supplier of goods and services in cash or in kind.”

“The designer must perform services in the best interests of the client as long as those interests do not violate laws, regulations, and codes; the designer’s aesthetic judgment; or the health, safety, or welfare of the occupants.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the term “social responsibility” is used in relation to the Interior Design profession it usually means:

a) it means a responsibility to the business entity’s profitability
b) it is the use of the interior designer’s expertise to enhance public places
c) it is tied with the concept of green design to mean “sustainablility”
d) it is meant as the term related to professional association volunteering

A

b) it is the use of the interior designer’s expertise to enhance public places

Source: Piotrowski, C. M. (2013).
Professional Practice for Interior Designers., Glossary

“Social responsibility. Use of the designer’s expertise and time, usually on a volunteer or pro bono basis, to enhance and enrich the interiors of nonprofits and public places or otherwise perform community service.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which element of design is one of the most powerful tools for the interior designer and is also one of the most complex to understand and apply?

a) color
b) harmony
c) proportion
d) texture

A

a) color

Source: Jones, M., L. Beginnings of Interior Environments, 11th Edition, Elements and Principles of Design

Color is one of the most dominant perceptions of the physical world and one of the most powerful tools for interior designers. At the same time, color response is one of the most complex physical and psychological phenomena to understand and use correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The interior designer is utilizing a color palette to achieve a restful, natural, cheerful space that will help maintain a calm environment.

Which colors are most likely to be a part of the palette?

a) blue, green and yellow
b) green, yellow and orange
c) monochromatic blues
d) blue, orange and yellow

A

a) blue, green and yellow

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 6th Edition, The Psychology of Color

Cooler colors tend to elicit calm and restful feelings in a space:
Blue creates a calm and restful environment.
Green brings a natural element.

Yellow represents a cheerful attitude in the space.

Warmer colors tend to bring higher energy to a palette, so orange would add more energy than desired for a space to be considered “restful, natural, cheerful” that “will help maintain a calm environment”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The need for basic comfort is based in what behavioral human factor?

a) sociological
b) psychological
c) physiological
d) anthropological

A

c) physiological

Source: Piotrowski, C. M. Designing Commercial Interiors., Retail Facilities, Overview of Retail Business Operations

Physiological needs include those needs required for survival and basic comfort, such as food, clothing, and housing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two groups of needs does Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs further describes?

a) environmental and ecological needs
b) territorial or personal needs
c) growth and deficiency needs
d) political and economic needs

A

c) growth and deficiency needs

Source: 9425, D.K.B.F.N. N. (2018). Interior Design Reference Manual:
Everything You Need to Know to Pass the NCIDQ Exam., Developing Design Concepts, Psychological and Social Influences, Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

The correct answer is “Growth and deficiency needs.”

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is one of the basic theories of human motivation proposed by Abraham Maslow. His conceptual model was a hierarchy of needs. According to Maslow’s theory, humans have various needs divided into two groups: deficiency and growth needs. Maslow theorized that humans must meet their most basic needs first before moving to the next highest level of needs satisfaction. Meeting needs and moving to the next highest level motivates behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which chair is most appropriate for the waiting area at a bariatric physicians office?

Patients and most guests are over 60 years old.

this is one is hard bc i can;t add images so list 3 characteristics for what the furniture is required to have

A
  1. wide
  2. firm armrests for pushing up out of the seat
  3. seat cushion shouldn’t be too deep or too plush

Source: Qpractice Lesson Summary: Universal Design, Bariatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sensory considerations when designing egress and other accessible portions of a project should include what combination of elements?

a) acoustical and tactile based elements
b) scent and visual elements
c) acoustical and visual elements
d) visual and tactile elements

A

d) visual and tactile elements

Source: Kennon, K. E. Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, 2nd Edition, Means of Egress, Accessible Exit Signs

In addition to the lit exit signs, exit stairways must have a visual and tactile sign and an area of refuge requires visual and tactile signage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which well-known proportioning system uses the human body as a starting point?

a) golden ratio
b) golden section
c) Finonacci series
d) Modulor system

A

d) Modulor system

Source: Ching, F.D. K. (09/2014). Architecture: Form, Space, and Order, 4th Edition., Renaissance Theories, Modulor

A well-known proportioning system is the Modulor system, developed by the architect Le Corbusier. It is loosely based on the golden section but uses the human body as a starting point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Territoriality is best described as?

a) fundamental aspect of human behavior that attemps to lay claim to the space people occupy and the things they own
b) how people relate to a space based on their cultural background
c) the concept of designing all products and the built environment to be usable by the everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life
d) the way humans defend self preservation

A

a) fundamental aspect of human behavior that attemps to lay claim to the space people occupy and the things they own

Source: Ballast, D. K., FAIA, 9425, N. N. PDF – Interior Design Reference Manual: Everything You Need to Know to Pass the NCIDQ Exam, eTextbook., Design Concepts and Programming, Psychological and Social Influences, Territoriality

Territoriality is a fundamental aspect of human behavior and refers to people’s need to lay claim to the spaces they occupy and the things they own. Although partially based on the biological imperative for protection, territoriality in humans is more related to the needs for selfidentity and freedom of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In regards to behavioral settings, personalization

a) happens only in a work setting
b) should not be a factor in final design solution
c) is one of the ways territoriality manifests itself
d) is one of the 4 basic distance theories of proxemics

A

c) is one of the ways territoriality manifests itself

One of the ways territoriality manifests itself is with the personalization of space.

This is a behavior that may happen at home, at the office, or in a coffee shop, where people will often arrange thee furniture to reflect their presence. So for example, when you rearrange the tables and seating at Starbucks to study with your friends, that is a form of personalizing your space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which principle of design would a designer use if their goal was for the user to visually move around or through an entire space?

a) line
b) harmony
c) balance
d) rhythm

A

d) rhythm

One of the most powerful design principles is rhythm, which assists the eye in moving easily about a design or room from one area to another, creating a flowing quality, continuity, and visual interest.

Rhythm can be achieved through use of repetition, transition, and gradation or progression.

Because rhythm sets up a sequence of multiple elements through space, it also includes a time component as the eye or body moves past the individual pieces. In most situations, elements are related either by physical connection or by an imaginary line that the eye and mind use to tie elements together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When desiging a home for a client who uses a wheelchair, what is the most important factor when considering windows in a living room?

a) provide jalousie windows to provide ventilation
b) provide crank handles
c) provide a large bay window to provide pleasing view
d) provide wire glass for safety

A

b) provide crank handles

Source: Null, Roberta. Universal Design, Chapter 3 – The Universal Design Process

When engaging in universal design, the most important purpose is to maintain functionality. Preferred features include:
- View windows with 36” or less sill height
- Crank-operated casement windows

Providing crank handles will allow for any user to easily open and close the windows as needed. Bay and Jalousie windows do not provide added functionality and wired glass is not necessary is this space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the main attributes of bariatric design in furniture?

a) width is smaller and height is lower
b) cushions are water resistant and height is lower
c) frames are shallower and weight is increased
d) width is wider and frames are stronger

A

d) width is wider and frames are stronger

Source: Kennon, K. E. Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, 2nd Edition, Millwork, Casework, and Furnishings

Bariatric seating is designed to accommodate overweight people. Seats are wider and frames and cushions are able to support greater weights. Bariatric seating is often specified in health care institutions, but is also useful in other applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of these include the four broad categories of window treatments?

a) shades, decorative panels, operable and fixed coverings
b) shades, blinds, soft coverings, and fixed coverings
c) operable, motorized shades and blinds
d) shades, blinds, soft coverings and motorized

A

b) shades, blinds, soft coverings, and fixed coverings

Source: Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, 3rd Edition ePDF, Wall and Window Finishes

Window coverings can be classified in different ways, such as
1. shades,
2. blinds,
3. soft coverings, and
4. fixed coverings.

or into broad categories such as

Hard Window Treatments
- Shutters
- Blinds, including Venetian, mini, and vertical blinds
- Fixed panels or grilles

Soft Window coverings
- drapery, including different fullness and pleats
- curtains or side panels
- shades, including roman, austrian and roller shades

Howerver, motorized and operable describe the operation of these such as shades or blinds, not a catergory in itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

216 pitch carpet has

a) a commercial-grade stitch rate
b) an equivialent gauge of 16
c) a pile height that is almost 1/4” high
d) 8 surface yarns per inch

A

d) 8 surface yarns per inch

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 6th Edition, Flooring, Carpet, Manufacturing Processes

Pitch is the number of ends of surface yarn in a 27 in width. To convert this measurement to gauge (the spacing between stitches) divide 27 in into 216 stitches. This gives 8 stitches/in, or 8 surface yarns/in, so the gauge is 1/8.

The higher the pitch, the more dense the carpet is, so would be applicable for commercial use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you were specifying the fabric for sofas in a sunroom, which would be the LEAST desirable choice?

a) rayon
b) modacrylic
c) polyester
d) acrylic

A

a) rayon

Source: Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, Fibers, Textiles, and Leather

Rayon is a cellulosic fiber made from wood pulp and while it is soft with excellent drapability, it is one of the least desirable fabrics in general due to its high flammability. It has moderate abrasion resistance, low resiliency, and specifically has very poor resistance to fading from sunlight.

A better choice would be Sunbrella, the registered trademark for a proprietary blend of solution-dyed acrylic and polyester for superior weather-resistance and commercial indoor and outdoor use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All are true about pictogram signage except?

a) text description must be placed directly below the pictogam
b) signs must have a non-glare finish
c) signs must be at least 12” wide
d) signs must be at least 6” high

A

c) signs must be at least 12” wide

ADA 703.6.1 Pictogram Field.
Pictograms shall have a field height of 6 inches (150 mm) minimum. Characters and braille shall not be located in the pictogram field.

703.6.2 Finish and Contrast.
Pictograms and their field shall have a non-glare finish. Pictograms shall contrast with their field with either a light pictogram on a dark field or a dark pictogram on a light field.

703.6.3 Text Descriptors.
Pictograms shall have text descriptors located directly below the pictogram field. Text descriptors shall comply with 703.2, 703.3 and 703.4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why would you investigate using a leveling compound when researching the proper application of the desired finished flooring material?

a) to allow the use of a “polished” concrete finish floor material
b) to help increase the subfloor assembly stiffness to eliminate squeaks
c) to eliminate irregularities and provide for a smooth subfloor surface
d) to help increase the point load impact of the flooring assembly

A

c) to eliminate irregularities and provide for a smooth subfloor surface

Source: Qpractice NCIDQ Exam Guide, Horizontal Structural Units, Flooring Systems, Concrete Slabs

Subflooring material must be smooth, level, and suitable for installation of the floor’s finish material. Sometimes an existing concrete floor receives a new subfloor or the application of a leveling material to smooth out irregularities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An interior designer has been retained for a building project that is currently being planned by an architect. On the second floor of the building, slate flooring over a concrete subfloor is being used. What is the best method of installation?

a) standard thin-set application
b) a bonded thick-set installation
c) a thick-set application using a cleavage membrane
d) a 1/2” layer of motar with the stone dry-set on top

A

c) a thick-set application using a cleavage membrane

Slate does not have a uniform thickness and a concrete subfloor above grade may deflect and cause cracking. If a subfloor deflects or moves in some way, a thin-set tile installation will probably develop cracks, thus the best installation is a thick-set method with a cleavage membrane.

The thick-set or full mortar bed installation method allows the tile setter to adjust the bed according to the exact thickness of each stone.

The tile and reinforced mortar bed are separated from the structural floor with a cleavage membrane — 15 lbm roofing felt or 4 mil polyethylene film.

This allows the finish floor to float above any slight deflection of the concrete floor, and on precast or post-tensioned concrete floors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When selecting a fabric wall textile for an exit corridor, careful attention should be given to what aspect of the specification?

a) any backing added to the already approved fabric selection must be manufacturer-approved
b) requirements for maintaining the flame rating do not need to include cleaning materials
c) adhesive needs to be appropriately selected according to the wall substrate
d) fabric wall systems must include manufacturer-approved acoustical material information

A

a) any backing added to the already approved fabric selection must be manufacturer-approved

If a backing is added to an approved textile during installation, it may make the original [flame spread or other tests required by code] invalid. However, the manufacturer may be able to provide a list of manufacturer approved backing that will not adversely affect the material’s fire rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tekton is a trade name for what?

a) nylon
b) acetate
c) olefin
d) polyester

A

c) olefin

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 6th Edition, Selection of Materials, Finishes, and Furnishings

Tekton is the brand name for Olefin (polypropylene) fibers used in carpeting and carpet backing. It’s most well known asa brand of housewrap, which reduces the risk of air and moisture infiltration that could ultimately waste energy or lead to mold.

Olefin is inexpensive and is highly resistant to chemicals, mildew, and microorganisms. It is highly resilient and nonabsorbent. Its desirable qualities make it useful for carpeting and carpet backing, but its low resistance to sunlight, heat, and flame makes it undesirable for most upholstery fabric.

TEKTON® and all TEKTON products denoted with ® or TM are registered trademarks or trademarks of Avintiv, which is owned by Berry Global.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For the home of a family of 4 with two young children, the client has indicated that they would like to use a natural and environmentally-friendly hard flooring throughout the main areas of their home. The flooring must be durable and appropriate for their 2 and 4 year old children.

Which of the following would be your best choice to meet their needs?

a) palm wood flooring
b) distressed walnut hardwood flooring
c) 100% wool broadloom
d) oak hardwood with sisal and coir area rugs

A

a) palm wood flooring

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 6th Edition, Sustainable Design, Flooring

In addition to the commonly used maple, oak, birch and beech there are many wood species, both domestic and imported, that can be used for flooring.

Of the many available, two qualify as sustainable products: bamboo and palm wood. Palm wood is harvested as a by-product from plantation grown coconut palms. Palm wood flooring is available in 3⁄4” x 3” (19mm x 76mm) wide strips with tongue and groove edges like those of standard strip flooring. It is harder and more stable than maple, red oak and white oak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following fabrics would be considered the most environmentally friendly option in its attributes by removing items from the waste stream?

a) wf-2 blumen
b) wf-7 memory
c) wf-1 wool check
d) wf-8 abacus

A

d) wf-8 abacus

Source: Oeko-Tex, Overview

WF-8 Abacus with 54% Post- Industrial Recycled Polyester, 46% Post-Consumer Recycled Polyester is the most friendly to the environment as it is all recycled content.

Of the other choices:

  • WF-1 Wool Check with 100% wool and Greenguard Certified but doesn’t remove items from the waste stream
  • WF-2 Blumen has no waste stream attributes, but it is Oeko-Tex Certified
  • WF-7 Memory is made from Trevira CS polyester, which is a petroleum product and does not remove products from the waste stream.

The more recycled content a material has the less raw materials and energy is required to process the raw materials into a final product. Each of the three types of recycled content should be considered:
1. post-consumer materials
2. post-industrial materials
3. recovered materials

If a product is labeled as Oeko-Tex Certified it is free from harmful chemicals and safe for human use. To attain Oeko-Tex Standard 100 certification, the fabric has been tested and certified to be free from harmful levels of more than 100 substances known to be harmful to human health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acoustic glass is also known as

a) tempered glass
b) laminated glass
c) plate glass
d) wired glass

A

b) laminated glass

Laminated glass should be used in areas where acoustic properties are desired.

Laminated glass is actually 2 layers of glass with an inner layer of PVB, and provides superior acoustic privacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In specifying materials to be used for the custom fabrication of window treatments in an assisted living facility, which of the following is the most important consideration when selecting the fabric?

a) heat gain and heat loss
b) colorfastness to light
c) offgassing
d) flammability

A

d) flammability

When selecting drapery for commercial, institutional and public residential application, one of the most important considerations is flammability. This takes precedence over other criteria such as durability, fading, resistance and style.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which is the flammability test for upholstery textiles?

a) nfpa 701
b) ul
c) cal tb 133
d) cal tb 117-2013

A

d) cal tb 117-2013

The flammability tests are:

Upholstery
California Technical Bulletin (Cal TB)
117-2013, Section 1-Pass

Drapery
NFPA 701

Upholstered walls and fabric wrapped panels
ASTM E 84 (unadhered mounting)

Direct glue wallcoverings and adhered panels
ASTM E 84 (adhered mounting)

California Technical Bulletin 133, or CAL 133, was repealed by the State of California in 2019.

Underwriters Laboratories or UL testing pertains to fully assembled seating units or panel systems and can only be coordinated by the furniture manufacturer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most sustainably responsible thing you can do as a designer when a client wants to specify a rare wood veneer from an historically over-forested area?

a) specify the wood type from the vendor who says they forest responsibly in the region
b) tell the client the veneer they want is not sustainable and therefore cannot be used
c) specify the wood type requested from an FSC source
d) specify a veneer with similar appearance from a domestic source

A

c) specify the wood type requested from an FSC source

Specifying a wood veneer from an FSC certified source ensures that the wood came from a responsibly forested area. You will be able to provide your client with the aesthetic they want while maintaining ecologically sound sourcing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When selecting classroom desks for an elementary school what should a designer consider in order of importance?

a) quality, flammability, comfort
b) cost, design, comfort
c) durability, cost, design
d) flammability, durability, comfort

A

c) durability, cost, design

Because institutional furniture takes much abuse and must last a long time, its durability is important. Cost is usually an important factor in furniture selection for this type of client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the relationship between NSF/ANSI 336 and Facts?

a) not related
b) facts is based on NSF/ANSI 336
c) NSF/ANSI 336 is based on Facts

A

b) facts is based on NSF/ANSI 336

Source: Association for Contract Textiles, FACTS Sustainability Certification

Facts is based on NSF/ANSI 336, specifically written for textiles used in commercial interiors.

ANSI, or the American National Standards Institute, is a nonprofit organization that oversees and accredits voluntary consensus-based standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the most important considerations for light quality?

a) color
b) lamp type
c) uniformity
d) glare

A

b) lamp type

The quality of light is just as important as the quantity. Important considerations are

glare
contrast
uniformity
color

While important, lamp type instead refers to the specific type of light source used rather than the quality of the light itself.

… their explanaition makes no sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If a material does not ignite and burn it is considered to be?

a) fire retardant
b) noncombustible
c) fire resistant
d) flame resistant

A

b) noncombustible

Noncombustible: material that will not ignite and burn when subject to fire.
Fire retardant: slow down or halt the spread of fire
Fire resistant: property of material to withstand or resit the spread of fire or give protection from it
Flame resistant: ability to withstand flame impingement or give protection from it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Select the BEST fabric for use in bright, direct sunlight, in a south-facing, 4-season room for a residential project in Scottsdale, Arizona.

a) wf-8 abacus
b) wf-5 gallant
c) wf-3 arcade
d) wf-4 acqua e fuoco

A

c) wf-3 arcade

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 7th Edition, Selection of Materials, Finishes, and Furnishings

WF-3 Arcade has Lightfastness of 1,500+ hours.

Colorfastness to Light is measured by the Fade-Ometer test/AATCC 16.

This test determines the colorfastness under light exposure of textile materials in a laboratory testing device at specific humidity levels. The color change is compared with an unexposed material using the AATCC grayscale or by an instrumental color measurement.

For most fabrics, 80 hours of exposure without color loss is considered a minimum rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which statement does not apply to hydrolysis resistance testing?

a) applies only to polyurethane coated fabrics
b) is also known as the jungle test
c) applies to all coated fabrics
d) asseses a fabric’s ability to withstand extended exposure to heat and humidity

A

c) applies to all coated fabrics

Source: Association for Contract Textiles, ACT Voluntary Performance Guidelines

Hydrolysis resistance, also known as the jungle test, refers to the ability of a coated fabric, such as vinyl or faux leather, to withstand extended exposure to heat and humidity.

It is only used for polyurethane-coated fabrics because the coating is water-based and may react to warmth or moisture when used for seating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of these are true regarding the Facts certification?

a) is based on the rigorous and comprehensive multi-attribute standard NFS/ANSI 336
b) is a recycle and reuse program
c) is the only sustainability certification program for commercial textiles
d) requires authorized independent third-party certification

A

a, c, d

Source: Association for Contract Textiles, FACTS Sustainability Certification

One basic element of all ANSI standards is the option to use first-party, second-party, or third-party conformity assessments; however, Facts requires a third-party assessment.

A first-party assessment is not independently verified because it is conducted by the same organization that provides the product.

A second-party assessment is not considered a completely independent assessment because the certifying organization is either a purchaser or user and has a direct interest in the product.

A third-party assessment is conducted by an independent third-party certifier with no relationship to the company providing the product and no user or purchaser interests in that product. In contrast, all ANSI standards allow these three conformance options.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which type of seaming would be LEAST appropriate for seating where cigarettes are likely to be dropped?

a) buttoning
b) channeling
c) welt cording
d) railroading

A

c) channeling

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, Selection Of Materials Finishes And Furnishings, Cushioning and Seaming

Welt cording and buttoning create the most hazard, but channeling, with its many deep vertical grooves, provides the most places where a cigarette could lodge and start a fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Wood chips and sawdust made into panel products are examples of

a) renewable products
b) post-consumer materials
c) post-industrial materials
d) recycled products

A

c) post-industrial materials

Wood chips and sawdust are the waste products of production, and have not been made into consumer materials or products yet. They are not renewable because both are made from wood and cannot be replenished faster than can be used.

Post-consumer materials - product served its intended use, having completed its life as a consumer item
Post-industrial material/pre-consumer - raw materials in manufacturing process
recovered material - waste or by products that are recovered from solid waste disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When selecting the upholstery and window treatment fabrics for a hotel lobby design, which of the following standards would NOT be a consideration for the fabric?

a) vertical ignition test
b) cigarette ignition resistance test of furniture components
c) nfpa 257
d) tb 117-2013

A

c) nfpa 257

Source: NFPA, List of NFPA Codes and Standards

All of these tests relate to the flammability of fabrics or upholstered furniture except NFPA 257, the Standard for Fire test for window and glass block assemblies.

NFPA 257, the fire and hose stream test establishes fire protection, in units of time, for window openings in fire-resistive walls. It determines the degree of protection from the spread of fire, including flame, heat and hot gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What can an interior designer do to improve indoor air quality?

a) specify low-emitting interior finishes
b) specify operable windows to let in fresh air
c) bring in outdoor air via the HVAC system
d) specify non-toxic cleaning chemicals

A

a) specify low-emitting interior finishes

An interior designer has the most control over interior finishes that are specified.

An interior designer does not typically specify windows or HVAC systems.

The cleaning chemicals used in the space may be determined by the maintenance staff in that building, not the interior designer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What can designers reduce to address climate change through product specifications?

a) eliminate lcas
b) eliminate epas
c) eliminate ghgs
d) eliminate esgs

A

c) eliminate ghgs

Eliminate GHGs.

GHGs are greenhouse gases. Product specifications that strive to not contribute to greenhouse gases and support the conservation of energy and use of sustainable energy sources provide a direct positive effect on climate change.

Continued emission of greenhouse gases will cause further warming and long-lasting changes in all components of the climate system, increasing the likelihood of severe, pervasive, and irreversible impacts on people and ecosystems.

Limiting climate change requires substantial and sustained reductions in greenhouse gas emissions which, together with adaptation, can limit climate change risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The amount of light output produced by a lamp or light source, this is how lamp manufacturers rate their lamps and publish catalogs with this information:

a) wattages
b) lumens
c) kelvin degrees
d) candelas

A

Lumens are the amount of light output produced by a lamp or light source; lamp manufacturers rate their lamps in lumens and publish catalogs with this information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If you were looking for an inexpensive, compact light source that could easily be dimmed and produces warm color to be used in a dining room chandelier, which of the following would be your best choice?

a) high intensity discharge (hid)
b) fluorescent lamp
c) led
d) incandescent lamp

A

d) incandescent lamp

Incandescent lamps are still an inexpensive, compact light source that is easy to dim, can be repeatedly started without a decrease in lamp life, and have a warm color rendition.

Their light output can be easily controlled with reflectors and lenses.

In many jurisdictions, energy conservation codes may limit their use, so it’s important to know which local codes apply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which test is most frequently used to evaluate carpet in the US?

a) methenamine pill test
b) room corner test
c) steiner tunnel test
d) flooring radiant panel test

A

a) methenamine pill test

Source: Codes Guidebook for Interiors, Finish and Furniture Selection
2018 International Building Code, Section 803 Wall and Ceiling Finishes,
2018 International Building Code, Section 804 Interior Floor Finish

All carpets manufactured or sold in the United States must pass the methenamine pill test or ASTM D2859 per 2018 IBC 804.4.1. This is the test method required for all carpet flooring materials.

The flooring radiant panel test ASTM E648 is used for corridor flooring and certain types of flooring in only a few occupancies, per 2018 IBC 804.4.2.

The Steiner tunnel test ASTM E84 is generally used to test wall and ceiling finish materials, as required per 2018 IBC 803.1.2. It can be used to test the flammability of carpet when applied to the ceiling per 2018 IBC 803.6., but it is not the test method required per the building code for flooring applications.

The room corner test NFPA 265 is a method of testing material in the corner of a room to simulate real life. It is the standard test required by the codes for napped, tufted, or looped fabrics or carpets used on wall applications, not for flooring or ceiling finishes. See 2018 IBC 803.5 for more information.

NFPA 265 is sometimes required in addition to or instead of an ASTM E84 rating textile for interior finishes. This test determines the contribution of interior textile wall and ceiling coverings to room fire growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The ability of a previously used material to be used as a resource in the manufacture of a new product is?

a) adaptive reuse
b) coproduction
c) material recovery
d) recyclability

A

d) recyclability

Recyclability is the ability of a previously used material to be used as a resource in the manufacture of a new product.

Adaptive reuse is the process of redesigning and converting a building to a use other than that for which it was originally developed.

Material recovery is collection and use of diverted waste materials

Coproduction is the creation of a new coproduct from materials that would otherwise be considered production waste. These materials are used in manufacture of a new saleable byproduct.

Construction and demolition (C&D) materials represent a significant waste stream in the United States generated when new building and civil-engineering structures are built and when existing buildings and civil-engineering structures are renovated or demolished (including deconstruction activities).

These various C&D materials can be diverted from disposal and managed into new productive uses:

  • Concrete
  • Wood (from buildings)
  • Asphalt (from roads and roofing shingles)
  • Gypsum (the main component of drywall)
  • Metals
  • Bricks
  • Glass
  • Plastics
  • Salvaged building components (doors, windows, and plumbing fixtures)
  • Trees, stumps, earth, and rock from clearing sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which test is NOT used to determine flammability of upholstery fabric?

a) steiner tunner test
b) radiant panel test
c) smoke density test
d) smolder resistance test

A

b) radiant panel test

The Radiant Panel Test, ASTM E648 (NFPA 253), is NOT used to test the flammability of fabrics.

This test measures the flame spread of flooring systems, like carpets, in corridors and exits. Radiant heat is applied using a gas-fueled panel inclined at a 30-degree angle over horizontally installed flooring mounted on concrete (just like actual carpeted corridors). This test is designed to simulate thermal radiation levels from an adjacent fire and rate different materials for use in different occupancies.

The Steiner Tunnel Test, ASTM E84 (UL 723), is used to evaluate the flame spread of wall finishes.

The Smoke Density Test, also called the Smolder Resistance Test, ASTM E662 (NFPA 258), measures the amount of smoke from a flaming or smoldering material for wall finishes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in determining the flammability of a fabric?

a) smoke develop
b) emissions that result when chemicals that contain carbon and hydrogen vaporize at temperature
c) steiner tunnel test
d) increase flame spread

A

b) emissions that result when chemicals that contain carbon and hydrogen vaporize at temperature

Flammability is the likelihood that a material will combust. For most materials flammability is rated in terms of flame spread, smoke developed, and fuel contributed.

The most common test developed for flame spread and smoke is the Steiner tunnel test, ASTM E84.

51
Q

When using an expanded criteria matrix spreadsheet during the pre-design phase for more complex project types, it best allows for which of the following?

a) complex adjacencies to be shown in a graphic format
b) additional factors to be added for consideration
c) square footage totals for departments ro be adjusted easily
d) calcutation of the circulation factor

A

b) additional factors to be added for consideration

The criteria matrix allows for an expanded number of factors that can be considered in the pre-design process, such as access, acoustics, lighting, color, and materials.

52
Q

Which tool is best for documenting spatial proximity, related activities and identifying priorities:

a) bubble diagram
b) parti diagram
c) zoning diagram
d) adjacency matrix

A

d) adjacency matrix

Before designers can begin to solve a problem, they must understand how the organization is structured. If in an office environment, is there a need for public and private separation? Or in a private medical office with two physicians, is there a shared waiting, reception, and business area? Who needs to communicate in person to whom?

These are questions related to adjacency requirements. An adjacency matrix is a useful tool for documenting spatial proximity, related activities, and identifying priorities.

53
Q

A rational approach to design that emphasizes human-environment interaction would most likely be based on

a) social influences
b) functional requirements
c) environmental design research
d) gestalt psychology

A

c) environmental design research

Environmental design research is also called Evidence Based Design. It provides a scientifically studied view of how the environment affects human behavior and attitudes. The concept of EBD is to use research to help determine how to go about designing an interior or a building. Evidence-based design helps to create better design outcomes.

The design process phases bear a direct relationship to research. The bulk of research occurs during the programming (and predesign phase(s) but can be included in any phase of a project.

Functional requirements, while usually rational, do not necessarily take into account the effects of a functional design on the users of a space.

Gestalt psychology is a theory of perception rather than a study of the environment.

Social influences, while an important consideration in design, are so varied that a totally rational approach to making design decisions could not be based on this factor alone.

54
Q

When determing a client’s furniture and equipment needs a designer will do all of the following EXCEPT?

a) discuss the project budget
b) have the client create a list of all the furniture and equipment that they would like to re-use in the new project
c) conduct a thorough interview to determine client’s specific needs
d) inventory existing furniture and equipment

A

b) have the client create a list of all the furniture and equipment that they would like to re-use in the new project

It is the interior designer’s job – not the client’s – to make a list of what furniture and equipment will be used in the new project.

However this may also be considered an ancillary or additional service for which additional fees are due, according to most standard contracts, see design project phases.

55
Q

When starting a project within a structure located within a designated historic district, why is an historical analysis important?

a) zoning variances need to be sought to allow deviations from accessibility guidelines and codes
b) the historical designation takes precedence over any code defined accessible requirements
c) a “listed” building needs to fully conform to all accessibility guidelines and codes
d) the “historical significance” must be taken into account when applying accessibility requirements

A

d) the “historical significance” must be taken into account when applying accessibility requirements

Source: 2018 International Existing Building Code, Chapter 12 Historic Buildings
A historic building undergoing alteration shall be investigated and evaluated. The building must first be accredited as being of historic significance by a state or local authority after careful review of the historical value of the building.

If it is intended that the building meet the requirements of this chapter, a written report shall be prepared and filed … and shall identify … where compliance with other chapters of these provisions (such as application of accessibility standards) would be damaging to the contributing historic features.

International Existing Building Code (IEBC) 2018 (replaces Chapter 34 of previous IBC editions, including 2015)

The key to historic projects is to determine which codes must be met and what approval procedures must be followed.

According to the IEBC, when a historic building undergoes a repair, alteration, or change of occupancy, a written report may be required to evaluate the condition of the building as it relates to the current codes. It must also identify historic characteristics that may be damaged or destroyed by bringing the building or space up to current codes.

Although the code official can allow alternative solutions or allow aspects of the existing building to remain, any conditions that potentially create a danger to life safety may be required to be modified. Communication with the code department and historic preservation organizations is critical.

Some historic organizations have the power to grant alternatives or waivers to code provisions. For example, some jurisdictions may allow safety equivalencies. In addition, many of the codes include alternative requirements that can be used if approved by the code official. It may also be necessary to apply to the appeals or variance boards in special circumstances.

56
Q

Which of the following measuring tool or technique produces a 3D image from which interior plans, elevations, sections, and three-dimensional models are developed by computer software?

a) orthophotography
b) photogrammetry
c) laser scanning
d) electronic distance measurement

A

c) laser scanning

Laser scanning is used as part of the research process in surveying. Laser scanning uses medium-range, pulsing laser beams, which systematically sweep over an object or space to obtain three-dimensional coordinates of points on the surfaces of the object or space being scanned.

The resulting image is a “point cloud” forming a 3D image. From this image plans, elevations, sections and three-dimensional models are developed by computer software.

Note that both laser scanning and electronic distance measurement (EDM) are measurement tools, while photogrammetry and orthophotography are technically a form of photographic tool that can be used to generate some measurement data when combined with appropriate software. These photography techniques would not usually be appropriate for an interior space.

Exam questions often require you to fully understand the question being asked as well as the difference between answers. While more than one answer may seem correct, you should always strive to choose the best answer for the given question and scenario.

57
Q

What is “benchmarking”?

a) a process of design where design decisions are based on accumulated evidence obtained from previous projects
b) a way of organizing and conducting business based on the successful models of top firms
c) the process of studying performance statistics of one firm against another that is considered an industry leader
d) a systematic process used to coordinate and control a design project from inception to completion

A

c) the process of studying performance statistics of one firm against another that is considered an industry leader

Benchmarking is a process of studying performance statistics of a firm against performance statistics of other firms — especially those producing similar types of projects, and those considered the top of the pyramid in terms of best firms using best practices.

Part of benchmarking is the modeling of best practices and behaviors. Best practice can be thought of as ways of organizing and conducting business based on the successful models of top firms.

58
Q

Preliminary space planning shows that it is impossible to satisfy all the programmed adjacencies shown on the adjacency matrix that has been approved by the client?

a) satisfy as many adjacency connections and present this information to the client for review and approval
b) develop several alternatives that come as close as possible to the requirements, and have the client select the one that best satisfies the program
c) ask the client to downgrade the importance of the problematic adjacency
d) verify that the adjacencies require physical connection, and then review the problem with the client

A

d) verify that the adjacencies require physical connection, and then review the problem with the client

The initial design can help the client clarify the priority of programming adjacencies and, if necessary, modify them so the designer can proceed with good information.

If the client wants to see sketches to prove that the required adjacencies cannot be made to work, these are already available from the initial work on the problem, typically these would be bubble (relationship) diagrams.

59
Q

Researching examples of other project solutions, even if they are from the past, is an example of what design concept process?

a) proxemics
b) functionalism
c) precedent study
d) evidence based design

A

c) precedent study

1-2, historic precedent

learning of the past to help solve current/future problems

60
Q

What is the term used for the aspect of reviewing best practices within an industry by comparing a firm’s activities or functions with others in the field?

a) project management
b) strategic management
c) benchmarking
d) data analytics

A

c) benchmarking

Benchmarking is defined as ‘a strategic management approach that assesses capabilities by comparing the firm’s activities or functions with those of other firms.’ It is a way of determining which is the best company in the industry and then seeing if anything used by that company can be applied to your company.

The term best practice is often associated with benchmarking. A best practice is usually well defined and its results well documented.

As applied to architecture, benchmarking can uncover ‘a superior method or innovative practice that contributes to the improved performance of an organization, usually recognized as ‘best’ by peer organizations.’

These best-practice processes can be adapted to almost all design firms, regardless of size.

61
Q

All of the following are components of the programming report EXCEPT:

a) required adjacencies
b) design concept
c) executive summary
d) code requirements

A

b) design concept

All but a design concept are part of a programming report, which focuses on the functional solutions to the design problem and includes:

title page
introduction
executive summary
goals and objectives of report
summary of space needs
space adjacencies
code requirements
analysis of existing space
budget and schedule requirements
programming concepts
appendices

Design concepts are created after all of this information has been gathered and analyzed. A design concept represents the physical solution to functional requirements.

62
Q

This measuring technique creates a “point cloud” forming a 3D image of the object or space being measured

a) laser scanning
b) convergent photogrammetry
c) electronic distance measurement
d) orthophotography

A

a) laser scanning

Laser scanning uses medium-range, pulsing laser beams, which systematically sweep over an object or space to obtain three-dimensional coordinates of points on the surfaces of the object or space being scanned. e resulting image is a “point cloud” forming a 3D image.
Electronic distance measurement uses a laser-based instrument with an onboard computer to measure the distance, horizontal, and vertical angles of the instrument’s laser beam to a reflective prism target.

Convergent photogrammetry entails using photographs from different angles to create a three-dimensional model. This process takes a long time but is relatively inexpensive.

Stereophotogrammetry entails superimposing one photograph of a building over another, creating an image that can easily be converted into a 3-D depiction. This process requires special software and equipment.

Rectified photography is a technique for producing scalable images of building façades.

Orthophotography is a technique for aggregating digital photographs into a single, three-dimensional image, using sophisticated computer programs.

63
Q

In which phase of the design process would you likely produce a stacking diagram (it is a representation of space relationship)?

a) conceptual design phase
b) programming
c) design development
d) pre-design

A

b) programming

It’s quite common to have one organization located on several floors within the same building. In this scenario, a type of vertical bubble diagram, often referred to as a “stacking diagram,” is best used to graphically identify the functions and departments on each floor.

The stacking diagram looks at the feasibility of fitting the required number of people and spaces in a proposed building during programming.

Multifloor facilities are not necessarily related to the organization’s size; many relatively small organizations are housed in traditional urban townhouses or older, multi-floor small commercial buildings. The functions to be placed on each floor must be determined before the space planning on individual floors is begun.

Note that the stacking diagram can be graphically misleading because the bubbles are not a proportional indication of the size of each function; correct proportions cannot be seen without the use of a conventional bubble diagram for each floor. To compensate for this shortcoming, stacking diagrams should include square footage figures.

Scope of Basic Interior Design Services — Programming
During programming, the designer consults with the owner to develop project requirements, feasibility studies, and how the project will fit within the location and budget constraints.

64
Q

A useful tool to monitor and compare project cost status of budgeted and spent amounts against the “RPC/Reported Percent Complete” of the project is an example of what type of tool?

this came with a photo …

a) bar chart
b) pie chart
c) graph
d) matrix

A

c) graph

This image demonstrates a useful and simple analytical tool for the monitoring process. Start and completion dates for the project phases are presented and incorporated into the associated graph. In this case, the project status at the end of July 2012 indicates the project’s progress ahead of both the Contract and Spent amounts.

65
Q

his drawing that generally shows most of the furniture and equipment to scale, and gives the designer an opportunity to see if the actual spaces are suitable for the proposed building space:

a) bubble diagram
b) parti diagram
c) matrix plan
d) test fit plan

A

d) test fit plan

A test fit plan generally shows most of the furniture and equipment and is drawn to scale. This gives designers and students an opportunity to see if the actual spaces will “fit” into the proposed building space.

The test fit plan is part of the overall space-planning process as it addresses the physical and functional aspects of a project and will allow the designers to coordinate corridors and adjacencies.

66
Q

In which order would you create the following process drawings?

a) adjacency matrices, block diagrams, prototype sketches
b) adjacency matrices, block diagrams, bubble diagrams
c) block plans, parti diagrams, test fit diagrams
d) adjacency matrices, bubble diagrams, block diagrams
e) bubble diagrams, block diagrams, prototype sketches

A

d) adjacency matrices, bubble diagrams, block diagrams

During the schematic design and design development process, drawings can take many forms, depending on the amount of design thinking done and the client’s specific requirements.

Adjacency matrices for functional data analysis would be completed before conceptual bubble diagrams.

After adjacencies have been analyzed and bubble diagrams have been produced, design drawings may progress from rough block diagrams to design development drawings to final construction drawings.

Parti diagrams, prototype sketches, and test fit diagrams may also be used but would come before block diagrams.

The key to differentiating these is to clarify the diagram’s purpose in the question scenario given. Is it for planning and organization of information collected during research?
Or is it the synthesis of information developed into design concepts or solutions?

Once you are clear of the diagram’s purpose, you should be able to choose the best from the answer choices given.

67
Q

Which is not a consideration when creating a detailed space plan?

a) programmatic needs
b) materials, finishes and accessories
c) adjacencies
d) circulation paths

A

b) materials, finishes and accessories

While the designer must also communicate decisions about the finishes and furnishings, this is most effectively done with sample boards showing exact samples of the materials proposed for use.

68
Q

What type of drawing is needed if a project involves more than one floor of a building and the designer must investigate spatial relationships in a vertical manner?

a) blocking diagram
b) adjacency matrix
c) parti diagram
d) stacking plan

A

d) stacking plan

If a project involves more than one floor of a building, a stacking plan or stacking diagram will need to be developed. As with bubble and blocking diagrams, to visualize spatial relationships in a horizontal plan, a stacking plan investigates spatial relationships in a vertical manner.

69
Q

Before space planning begins a designer should have all of the following information EXCEPT?

a) blocking diagram
b) occupancy groups
c) requirements for common path of egress travel
d) number of required exits

A

a) blocking diagram

Building code information for developing space planning options should be available in the simple form of a preliminary code checklist. This checklist only needs to contain the code requirements that affect the overall planning of the space, such as whether one or two means of egress are required.

The following information should be available to the designer before space planning begins:

occupancy group(s)
requirements for special occupancies
the gross area of the space
occupant loads(s)
requirements for the common path of egress travel
number of required exits

The project may or may not reuse existing furniture.

Block diagrams will be developed during the space planning process as part of the schematic design phase, so it is impossible to have them before the process begins.

70
Q

What type of drawing will convey the basic concept or theme of the design, and communicate the organizing idea behind the project; such as a concept based on geometry and organized in a curvilinear or angular layout?

a) zoning plan
b) test fit plan
c) hierachy plan
d) parti diagram

A

d) parti diagram

parti diagram will convey the basic concept or theme of the design. Parti diagrams communicate the organizing idea behind the project, such as a concept based on geometry and organized in a curvilinear or angular layout. They use graphic images to represent abstraction in a more direct visual manner to provide the main organization concepts of the theme.

71
Q

During the schematic design phase, which is the most appropriate sequence of steps for producing a space plan?

a) Spaces requiring plumbing, largest spaces, general circulation, public spaces, then other room allocations
b) Spaces requiring plumbing, public spaces, largest spaces, other room allocations, then general circulation
c) Largest spaces, other room allocations, general circulation, public spaces, then spaces requiring plumbing
d) Public spaces, general circulation, largest spaces, other room allocations, then spaces requiring plumbing

A

a) Spaces requiring plumbing, largest spaces, general circulation, public spaces, then other room allocations

Spaces requiring plumbing.
The locations of these areas are the least flexible since they are usually bound by code constraints. They should be placed first.

Large rooms or areas.
These will fit in only a limited number of locations; these should be next.

General circulation.
These spaces should be addressed after since they can be deceptively space consuming. They are also required for access to those rooms or areas that have already been distributed.

The remaining space can now be allocated. First the public spaces which should be as near as possible to entrances/exits, then to any remaining rooms or areas.

72
Q

Ideas are sketched, during the schematic design phase, in abstract forms/shapes in plan view that represent the program’s spaces, activities, and circulation patterns.

What are these conceptual sketches referred to as?

a) bubble diagrams
b) zoning patterns
c) matrices
d) stacking plans

A

a) bubble diagrams

A designer often explores a number of alternative arrangements with bubble diagrams. Bubble diagrams can be used for exploring functional relationships in programming and/or for conceptual space planning. The key is to understand what is the purpose or outcome behind the diagram.

Bubble diagrams are drawn in a conceptual manner without limitations of the building geometrics in order to explore ideal space adjacencies. Diagrams drawn within the limitations of the building become block plans.

Generally, a minimum of two to three bubble diagram schemes will provide the designer with a good idea of the most preferred arrangement, after comparing all schemes for strengths and weaknesses.

Refer to the Qpractice lesson Conceptual, Analysis, and Planning Tools & Diagrams for a description of parti diagrams.

73
Q

Charts are typically part of which design phase?

a) contract administration
b) preliminary
c) none of these
d) design development

A

c) none of these

74
Q

While meeting with clients you are explaining your concept and theme for their new restaurant.

Which of the following type of drawings would be the BEST to use to quickly communicate the essence of your design?

a) detail
b) elevation
c) parti
d) prototype sketch

A

c) parti

A parti is usually a sketch, diagram, drawing, doodle, or some other graphic that represents the direction, concept, or theme of a design. It can be very rough; the proverbial back of a napkin sketch.

A prototype sketch is more similar to a test fit, or simplified version of the concept, drawn to scale to see if the planned arrangement of spaces and furniture work within the building constraints

75
Q

For many different reasons in a construction project the final space may be different from the space reflected in the original construction drawings. When this happens what type of document must be produced and given to the client?

a) revised construction drawings
b) as-built drawings
c) no new documents are necessary
d) redlined drawings

A

b) as-built drawings

As-built drawings show what was actually built, which often is different from the construction drawings. A set of as-built drawings is retained by the design firm and given to the client.

76
Q

What shape is a partition tag?

a) circle
b) rectangle
c) rhombus
d) triangle

A

c) rhombus

77
Q

Commercial-grade cabinets are most often constructed of panel products with a thickness of

a) 1/2 in
b) 3/4 in
c) 7/8 in
d) 5/8 in

A

b) 3/4 in

The majority of a cabinet is built with 3⁄4 in panels including the bottom, sides, and top bracing. The back is typically 1⁄4 in, but this was not one of the options.

78
Q

What shape is a revision?

a) circle
b) star
c) no shape
d) cloud

A

d) cloud

79
Q

he designer is specifying a veneer cut of oak for use at the architectural woodwork located behind the main reception feature wall at a high end boutique hotel.

The desired look has a minimal grain pattern. Which method of cutting should be specified?

a) Rift Sawn
b) Rift Sliced
c) Plain Sawn
d) Rotary Sliced

A

b) Rift Sliced

Rift slicing is accomplished by quartering a log and cutting it at 15 degree angle to the growth rings. Like quarter slicing, it results in a straight-grained pattern and is commonly used with oak to eliminate the appearance of markings perpendicular to the direction of the grain.

Rift Sawn and Plain Sawn are types of solid stock lumber cutting, not a veneer as indicated in the question.

Rotary Slicing produces a very pronounced grain pattern that is often undesirable for fine-quality wood finishes, although it does produce the most veneer with the least waste.

80
Q

Which cabinet door and drawer construction type is most problematic in a space where there is a constant variation in humidity?

a) flush construction
b) reveal overlay
c) none of these, humidity will affect all styles the same
d) lipped overlay

A

a) flush construction

In flush construction the face of the drawer or door is installed flush with the face frame. Extra care and expense are required to fit and align the doors and drawers within the frame.

In many cases, the doors and drawers may sag, resulting in non-uniform spacing between fronts and causing some doors and drawers to “stick” in the frame. This problem is worsened by humidity causing the continual swelling and shrinking of the wood.

81
Q

What is the best way to show finish placement for a project with spaces that have 2 finishes, such as paint and wallcovering?

a) Use wall finish tag symbols that coordinate with the schedule
b) Use a combination of lines, symbols, and elevations on a finish plan
c) Use a finish schedule and label the finishes N, S, E, W on the plan
d) Attach small finish samples to the plan

A

b) Use a combination of lines, symbols, and elevations on a finish plan

The best way to designate the finishes is to use a finish plan with lines/symbols designating the finish for each wall along with dimensioned elevations for all wall areas receiving more than one finish clearly showing the starting and ending point for each finish.

82
Q

Choose which description describes a property line on a site plan.

a) thick long dash, 2 thick short dash, thick long dash, 2 thick short dash, thick long dash
b) dash lines
c) continuous line
d) long dash, dot, long dash, dot, long dash

A

a) thick long dash, 2 thick short dash, thick long dash, 2 thick short dash, thick long dash

83
Q

A schedule for construction drawings would be used to indicate all of the following except?

a) window treatment hardware
b) types of doors
c) ceiling finishes
d) wall finishes

A

a) window treatment hardware

Schedules show information in tabular format with rows and columns of data. They are used because they are a very efficient way to communicate a large amount of complex information in a small space.

Common schedules for interior design construction drawings include room finish, door, kitchen equipment, and millwork hardware. Window treatment hardware is NOT part of construction, while millwork hardware is.

84
Q

Which of these would an interior designer put into a schedule?

a) hardware
b) finish
c) door/ window
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

Schedules show information in tabular format with rows and columns of data. They are used because they are a very efficient way to communicate a large amount of complex information in a small space.

Common schedules for interior design construction drawings include room finish, door, kitchen equipment, millwork, and hardware schedules.

85
Q

What is the best drawing to use when communicating the depth and dimensions of various moldings and reveals on a decorative wall in a conference room?

a) Millwork Detail
b) Horizontal Section
c) Vertical Section
d) Elevation

A

c) Vertical Section

A properly placed vertical section will show the various depths of the facade which can be dimensioned as needed.

86
Q

What is book matching?

a) same pattern on repeat
b) 1 pattern flipped back and forth
c) random order and orientation
d) books matching one another.

A

b) 1 pattern flipped back and forth

87
Q

Determine the type of construction plan based on the legend:

existing ductwork to remain
existing ductwork to be removed
existing piping to remain
existing piping to be removed
hot water supply
hot water return

a) reflected ceiling demolition plan
b) life safety plan
c) mechanical demolition plan
d) fire sprinkler plan

A

c) mechanical demolition plan

ductwork is being demolished

88
Q

What makes it possible to represent a very large object on a piece of paper of limited size while showing accurate proportion and the true relationships between objects of different sizes?

a) perspective drawing
b) BIM
c) plotting
d) scaling

A

d) scaling

Scaling makes it possible to represent a very large object on a piece of paper of limited size while showing accurate proportion and the true relationships between objects of different sizes

89
Q

In which situation should an interior designer include a furniture plan as part of their construction drawing package?

A) If the existing furniture is being reused/relocated
B) A furniture plan should never be included in a construction drawing package as it is confusing to mix construction and furniture drawings. A furniture plan should always be separate.
C) To coordinate the location of electrical outlets in relation to the location of furniture
D) Both A and C
E) To show locations of new furniture only. The client takes care of any furniture to be reused

A

D) Both A and C

Furniture plans show the location of each piece of furniture – both new, reused, fixed, and loose, with a corresponding code number that identifies each piece.

A furniture plan can be included in the construction drawing package and can be essential for coordination. However, the furniture plan itself should be a separate drawing and not be combined on the same page as interior construction, as it can cause confusion.

90
Q

A home run noted on the contract documents is:

a) A dashed curved line leading from electrical switching to lighting fixtures
b) An open dimension left on a string of dimensions leaving room for minor discrepancies
c) A graphic indication showing which lights and outlets are connects to a particular circuit breaker in an electrical panel box
d) A diagrammatic representation of an electrical system from a primary feed into a building, leading to individual lighting and power panels

A

c) A graphic indication showing which lights and outlets are connects to a particular circuit breaker in an electrical panel box

If a cable is continuously from the electrical panel to the device, without any intermediate connections, it is considered a home run.

A home run is drawn by the electrical engineer and used on their drawings. It is a graphic indication (using an arrowhead and the number of the circuits) that the line on the drawing connecting lights or outlets is connected to a particular circuit breaker in a particular electrical panel box.

91
Q

This plan is sometimes aligned with the electrical and power/communication plans, because the exact location of many of these outlets is directly related.

a) accessories
b) furnishings
c) finishes
d) furniture

A

d) furniture

The furniture plan is sometimes aligned with the electrical and power/communication plans because the exact location of many of these outlets is directly related to the location and orientation of the furniture.

92
Q

A plan has dashed walls and doors. What kind of plan is that?

a) elevation
b) life safety plan
c) key plan
d) demolition plan

A

d) demolition plan

93
Q

Which describes a recessed fluorescent light symbol?

a) rectangle with a diagonal line through it
b) a star
c) rectangle with a diagonal line through it and one side filled in
d) recessed fluorescent light symbol does not exist

A

a) rectangle with an angle line

a rectangular fixture with a single diagonal line through it, represents a recessed fluorescent fixture on a lighting plan. A return air diffuser is most commonly found on a mechanical plan and are typically 24” x 24”.

94
Q

What would be the best scale to use to communicate a ceiling soffit detail?

a) 3/16”
b) 1-1/2”
c) 1/8”
d) 3/32”

A

b) 1-1/2”

1/8″ is a common scale for a floor plan which would be too large for a soffit detail. 3/16″ and 3/32″ should never be used because they are too close in size to 1/8” and 1/4″ scales. 1-1/2″ is a typical sized used for standard details.

95
Q

What are the three systems used for standard size drafting sheets?

a) ISO, ANSI, Architectural
b) ISO, BOMA, Architectural
c) Architectural, CAD, BIM
d) Architectural, ANSI, Imperial

A

a) ISO, ANSI, Architectural

Source: Interior Design Reference Manual, 6th Edition, Measurement and Drafting, Drafting of Construction Drawings

For either manual drafting or CAD, standard sheet sizes are used in the interior design, architectural and engineering industries. These standard sizes are based on one of three systems:

Architectural
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

96
Q

Which is the most common method of veneer matching?

a) warehouse match
b) slip matching
c) book matching
d) random matching

A

c) book matching

Matching adjacent veneer leaves may be done in three ways. The most common method is book matching in which the veneers are sliced off the log and every other piece is turned over so that adjacent leaves form a symmetrical grain pattern.

97
Q

or construction drawings, what is the most effective way to communicate large amounts of complex information in a small space?

a) schedules
b) power plan
c) CMP Chart
d) site plan

A

a) schedules

Schedules are a very efficient way to communicate a large amount of complex information in a relatively small space.

98
Q

When measuring the separation distance between 2 exit doors, where is the placement of the measurements?

a) 1 side of frame of door A to 1 side of frame of door B
b) middle of door A to middle of door B
c) panel of door A to panel of door B
d) you don’t measure the separation between the 2 exit doors.

A

b) middle of door A to middle of door B

Think of it like this — If you were to measure jamb to jamb, the distance would be shorter. But remember, the code is dealing with MINIMUM distances. The whole point of minimum requirements for distance between exits is to make sure exits are “far enough apart so that a fire or other emergency would not block both exits.”

When measuring distances for egress, think about a physical person actually using the egress system. For instance, a person running down a hallway to get to an exit access doorway would be running down the center of the hallway. They would need to make it all the way to the center of the door to be able to get through the opening.

99
Q

A wall sconce you have specified projects 5″ from the wall into a corridor.

What is the minimum mounting height?

a) 78
b) 84
c) 72
d) 80

A

d) 80

Source: 2018 International Building Code, CHAPTER 10 MEANS OF EGRESS
The key to this question is recognizing that the wall sconce is in a corridor, not over a counter, table, or other work surface, so it projects into the path of travel.

1003.3.3 Horizontal projections.
Objects with leading edges more than 27 inches (685 mm) and not more than 80 inches (2030 mm) above the finished floor shall not project horizontally more than 4 inches (102 mm) into the circulation path.

100
Q

Which of the following is true about accessible plumbing:

a) all exposed hot water pipes and drains MUST be insulated or otherwise protect wheelchair users from burns on legs
b) exposed pipes should not protrude more than 8” (200 mm) from the wall
c) to avoid the possibility of leg burns, drains must be placed in the floor and not in the wall
d) all of these

A

a) all exposed hot water pipes and drains MUST be insulated or otherwise protect wheelchair users from burns on legs

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 606.6 Exposed Pipes and Surfaces.
Water supply and drainpipes under lavatories and sinks shall be insulated or otherwise configured to protect against contact. There shall be no sharp or abrasive surfaces under lavatories and sinks.

101
Q

What is minimum clear width of the doorway of an egress door?

a) 30 clear width
b) 36 clear width
c) 34 clear width
d) 32 clear width

A

d) 32 clear width

The required capacity of each door opening shall be sufficient for the occupant load thereof and shall provide a minimum clear width of 32 inches (813 mm).

102
Q

What is the minimum size of the grab bar at the side-wall of an accessible toilet?

a) 42” (1065 mm) long
b) 36” (900 mm) long
c) 48” (1200 mm) long
d) 24” (600 mm) long

A

a) 42” (1065 mm) long

Fixed side-wall grab bar shall be 42 inches (1065 mm) long minimum, located 12 inches (305 mm) maximum from the rear wall and extending 54 inches (1370 mm) minimum from the rear wall.

Refer to FIG 604.5.1 SIDE WALL GRAB BAR FOR WATER CLOSET

103
Q

What is the maximum height of an accessible (barrier free) sink?

a) 30” (750 mm)
b) 36” (900 mm)
c) 34” (865 mm)
d) 27” (685 mm

A

c) 34” (865 mm)

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 606.3 Height.
The front of lavatories and sinks shall be 34 inches (865 mm) maximum above the floor, measured to the higher of the rim or counter surface.

104
Q

What is the minimum width of an interior corridor?

a) 60” (1500 mm)
b) 36” (914 mm)
c) 44” (1100 mm)
d) 54” (1350 mm)

A

c) 44” (1100 mm)

Per TABLE 1020.2 MINIMUM CORRIDOR WIDTH, any facility not listed in the table shall have corridor width of 44 inches minimum.

105
Q

What are the clear knee and toe space clearance?

a) 27”(685 mm)H x 30”(760 mm)W x 17”(430 mm)D
b) 34”(865 mm)H x 30”(760 mm)W x 17”(430 mm)D
c) 30”(760 mm)H x 36”(915 mm)W x 27”(685 mm)D
d) 34”(865 mm)H x 27”(685 mm)W x 30”(760 mm)D

A

a) 27”(685 mm)H x 30”(760 mm)W x 17”(430 mm)D

Refer to FIG. 306.3 KNEE CLEARANCE

106
Q

Clearance around an accessible (barrier free) toilet must be at least:

a) 36” W (900 mm) along back wall x 48” (1200 mm) along side wall
b) 60” (1500 mm) turning radius/circle
c) 48” W (1200 mm) along back wall x 56” (1420 mm) along side wall
d) 60” (1500 mm) along the rear wall and 56” (1420 mm) along the side wall

A

d) 60” (1500 mm) along the rear wall and 56” (1420 mm) along the side wall

Please review FIG 604.3 SIZE OF CLEARANCE FOR WATER CLOSET

See also 2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design
604.3.1 Size. Clearance around a water closet shall be 60 inches (1525 mm) minimum measured perpendicular from the side wall and 56 inches (1420 mm) minimum measured perpendicular from the rear wall.

107
Q

The controls for all accessible (barrier free) wall mounted restroom accessories must be located how many inches/mm AFF for a SIDE reach:

a) 15” (380 mm) - 48” (1220 mm)
b) 9” (230 mm) - 48” (1200 mm)
c) 15” ( 380 mm) - 44” (1100 mm)
d) 9” (230 mm) - 44” (1100 mm)

A

a) 15” (380 mm) - 48” (1220 mm)

308 Reach Ranges
For the range of side reach, see 308.3. The reach will depend upon whether there is clear unobstructed floor space and ranges from 15 (380) to 48 (1220).

108
Q

What is the minimum clear floor space required for side transfer for an accessible (barrier free) shower?

a) 48” x 60” (1200 mm x 1500 mm)
b) 30”x 60” (750 mm x 1500 mm)
c) 30” x 48” (750 mm x 1200 mm)
d) 36” x 48” (900 mm x 1200 mm)

A

d) 36” x 48” (900 mm x 1200 mm)

The code specifies various requirements for clearances depending upon the type of shower – transfer, standard roll-in, alternate roll-in, or tub-shower. Refer to Sections 607 and 608.

109
Q

In an accessible shower, on how many sides of the stall are grab bars required?

a) 2
b) all 4 sides
c) a minimum of 1 along the longest wall
d) a minimum of 1 along the longest wall and a vertical grab bar at the control wall

A

a) 2

608.3 Grab Bars. Grab bars shall comply with 609 and shall be provided in accordance with 608.3. Where multiple grab bars are used, required horizontal grab bars shall be installed at the same height above the finish floor.

110
Q

Which of the following devices would be used to prevent the spread of smoke during a fire?

a) ionization detector
b) fire suppression detector
c) smoke damper
d) fire damper

A

d) fire damper

Fire Dampers are used to restrict and PREVENT the spread of fire AND smoke.

Smoke Dampers are used to RESIST the passage of smoke and air. In a passive control system, smoke dampers close in the presence of smoke to prevent it from circulating through a ventilation opening, transfer or duct, while in an engineered control system, smoke dampers help pressurize the areas around the fire, using floors and walls as barriers.

Dynamic fire dampers close when airflow velocity and pressure increases a certain amount, whereas static fire dampers work with HVAC systems designed to shut down automatically in a fire.

111
Q

Which of the following concepts would be most critical during a fire in a high rise building?

a) containment
b) sprinklers
c) emergency lighting
d) compartmentation

A

d) compartmentation

Compartmentation is a critical concept in fire and life safety that works as part of the passive fire protection system (as opposed to fire detection or fire suppression) by using assemblies that resist the spread of fire or smoke. These assemblies include fire walls, fire barriers and partitions, horizontal assemblies, smoke barriers and partitions, opening protectives, and through-penetration protectives.

The basic idea is to contain a fire and limit its spread, to allow building occupants to escape and to protect other parts of the build that are not initially subject to the fire. In a high-rise building, where it may not be practical to evacuate the building immediately, compartmentation can provide areas of refuge where occupants can wait until the fire is extinguished or until they can exit safely.

Compartmentation also provides time for fire suppression by automatic sprinklers or by fire fighting personnel.

112
Q

The longest diagonal of a sprinklered building is 106’ - 0”. What is the minimum distance between the 2 exit doors?

a) 56’ 0”
b) 53’ 3”
c) 35’ 6”
d) 35’ 4”

A

d) 35’ 4”

We can determine this distance by taking the longest diagonal distance in the space and dividing it by 3.

You divide the number by 3 because it is a sprinkled building, you would divide it by 2 if it was non sprinkled. This number tells you that the doors can be no closer together than this dimension.

Exit Remoteness

When two or more exits are required, the code requires that at least two of the exits be remote enough from one another so that both cannot easily be blocked by one fire. This is often referred to as the half‐diagonal rule because typically the distance between two exits must be at least 1/2 (one‐half) of the longest diagonal distance within the building or the building area the exits are serving.

However, if the entire building is equipped with an automatic sprinkler system, most of the codes allow the minimum distance to be 1/3 (a third) of the diagonal distance. So, the distance can be reduced.

113
Q

“Inclusive” design, sometimes referred to as “universal” design, is characterized by what main feature?

a) inclusive design promotes the needs of senior’s safety and independence
b) inclusive design addresses the needs of the broadest range of individuals
c) inclusive design addresses only the needs of public facility users
d) inclusive design is accessible for all people regardless of ability

A

b) inclusive design addresses the needs of the broadest range of individuals

niversal design can be defined as an approach to the design of all products and environments to be as usable as possible by as many people as possible regardless of age, ability or situation [and that] results in better design and avoids the stigmatizing quality of accessible features that have been added on late in the design process or after it is complete.

Universal design (also called inclusive design) needs to be incorporated into a building’s program from the beginning.

114
Q

ow many exits are required for a convention center ballroom of 7,725 sf2 with tables and chairs?

For this item, refer to the 2018 International Building Code. CIDQ will provide relevant occupancy load tables for you to answer this question.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

c) 3

The occupant load of the space determines the number of exits required from a space. The occupant load is the number of people a building code assumes will occupy a given building or portion of a building. It is based on the occupancy classification and occupancy load factor (amount of floor occupied by one person) of that classification.

For a ballroom (assembly with tables and chairs), the occupancy load factor is 15 net. Taking the square footage of the ballroom (7,725sf2) and dividing it by the occupancy load factor will calculate the occupancy load of the space (515 occupants).

For an assembly space, any occupant load over 49 requires 2 exits. However, three exits are required for any space when the occupant load is between 501 and 1000 occupants.

Per IBC 2018 1006.2.1.1 Three or more exits or exit access doorways.
Three exits, or exit access doorways shall be provided from any space with an occupant load of 501 to 1,000. Four exits or exit access doorways shall be provided from any space with an occupant load greater than 1000.

115
Q

Which of the following is not true about an accessible doorway?

a) must have a minimum clear opening width of 36 in (915 mm) when opened at 90 degrees
b) depth of a doorway 32 in (815 mm) is 24 in (610 mm)
c) must have a minimum of 18 in (457.5 mm) clear space on the pull side of door
d) the opening force required to push or pull open an interior hinged door cannot be more than 5 pounds (22.2 N)

A

a) must have a minimum clear opening width of 36 in (915 mm) when opened at 90 degrees

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 404.2 Manual Doors
A door must have a minimum clear opening width of 32 in (815 mm) when opened at 90 degrees.

Note that the clear opening is not the same as the width of the door. Door thickness, door stop, and also hardware project into the clear opening width, reducing a 36″ door to a 32″ clear width at the opening.

Refer to 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, Section 404.2.2 Clear Width

116
Q

The vertical grab bar at the side-wall of an accessible toilet must be mounted at:

a) 39 inches (990 mm) - 41 inches (1040 mm) AFF
b) 33” (840 mm) - 36” (900 mm) AFF
c) 30” (760 mm) - 36” (900 mm) AFF
d) 34” (850 mm) - 42” (1060 mm) AFF

A

a) 39 inches (990 mm) - 41 inches (1040 mm) AFF

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 604.5.1 Fixed Side Wall Grab Bars.
….with the bottom of the bar located 39 inches (990 mm) minimum and 41 inches (1040 mm) maximum above the floor,

Refer to FIG 604.5.1 SIDE WALL GRAB BAR FOR WATER CLOSET

117
Q

What is the minimum size of the vertical grab bar at the side-wall of an accessible toilet?

a) 12” (305 mm) long
b) 17” (430 mm) long
c) 24” (600 mm) long
d) 18” (455mm) long

A

d) 18” (455mm) long

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 604.5.1 Fixed Side Wall Grab Bars
…In addition, a vertical grab bar 18 inches (455 mm) minimum in length shall be mounted with the bottom of the bar located 39 inches (990 mm) and 41 inches (1040 mm) maximum above the floor…

Refer to FIG 604.5.1 SIDE WALL GRAB BAR FOR WATER CLOSET

118
Q

Emergency lighting requirements for means of egress require a lighting level of “fill in the blank” at the floor level upon initial operation.

a) 10 footcandles
b) 3 footcandles
c) 1 footcandle
d) none of these

A

c) 1 footcandle

Source: 2018 International Building Code, Chapter 10 Means of Egress
IBC 1008.3.5 Illumination level under emergency power.
Emergency lighting facilities shall be arranged to provide initial illumination that is not less than an average of 1 footcandle (11 lux) and a minimum at any point of 0.1 footcandle (1 lux) measured along the path of egress at floor level.

Illumination levels shall be permitted to decline to 0.6 footcandle (6 lux) average and a minimum at any point of 0.06 footcandle (0.6 lux) at the end of the emergency lighting time duration. A maximum-to-minimum illumination uniformity ratio of 40 to 1 shall not be exceeded. in Group I-2 occupancies, failure of a single lamp in a luminaire shall not reduce the illumination level to less than 0.2 footcandle (2.2 lux).

119
Q

Regarding barrier free/universal design all of the following are true about ramps EXCEPT?

a) a 1:10 slope is permitted if the maximum rise does not exceed 6” (150 mm)
b) ramps with rises greater than 6 in (150 mm) or lengths greater than 72 in (1830 mm) must have handrails mounted on both sides with the top of the handrail mounted at 34 in to 38 in (865 mm to 965 mm) above the ramp surface
c) landing lengths must be a minimum of 60” (1525 mm)
d) a ramp must have a minimum clear width of 42” (1065 mm)

A

d) a ramp must have a minimum clear width of 42” (1065 mm)

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 405 Ramps
A ramp must have a minimum clear width of 36″ (915 mm) and landings at least as wide as the widest ramp leading to them.

Refer to 405.5 Clear Width and 405.7.2 Width

120
Q

What is true about fire detection alert systems?

a) Audible/visual detection systems only deal with a smoke alert during a building’s emergency situation.
b) A consistent level of fire detection actuation is required in all building audible/visual alarms.
c) Detectors are automatic devices providing visual alerts; fire alarms are manual pull, audible only devices.
d) Buildings with an automatic sprinkler system connected to an alarm system do not need automatic heat detectors.

A

d) Buildings with an automatic sprinkler system connected to an alarm system do not need automatic heat detectors.

Source: Winkel, F.D.K.C.S. R. (2018). Building Codes Illustrated: A Guide to Understanding the 2018 International Building Code., Fire Protection Systems, Fire Alarm and Detection Systems
Fire alarms are audible and visual devices to alert occupants and responders of emergencies. Detectors are automatic devices that usually sound an audible and visual alarm to alert occupants and also trigger other responses in systems such as sprinklers, smoke-control systems, or HVAC controls. Systems to notify building occupants of an emergency can be either manually or automatically actuated.

The code requires differing types of alarms or detectors, and different levels of actuation in various occupancies and types of buildings. When buildings are sprinklered and the sprinklers connected to the alarm system, automatic heat detection is not required. Sprinklers are heat-actuated and thus are a type of heat detector themselves. Fire detectors are to be smoke detectors as well, except in areas like boiler rooms where products of combustion would tend to set off smoke detectors. In those rooms alternative types of fire detectors may be used. Alarms are to be per NFPA 72.

The code offers trade-offs between manual alarms and automatic detection systems under certain conditions. There are instances where having manual alarms may result in a large number of false alarms, so providing automatic detection may be a desirable alternative.

121
Q

Accessible (barrier free) work counters should be no higher than:

a) 34” (850 mm) AFF
b) 27” (675 mm) AFF
c) 33” (825 mm) AFF
d) 36” (900 mm) AFF

A

a) 34” (850 mm) AFF

Source: 2009 ICC A117.1 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, 902.4 Height
902.4 Height. The tops of dining surfaces and work surfaces shall be 28 inches (710 mm) minimum and 34 inches (865 mm) maximum in height above the floor.

Note that if the counter is determined to be a service counter, not a work surface, 36 inches (915 mm) maximum in height above the floor shall be permitted

122
Q

The centerline of accessible (barrier free) toilets must be how far from the side wall or partition of a toilet compartment?

a) 15” (380 mm) - 19” (485 mm)
b) 16” (405 mm) - 18” (455 mm)
c) 18” (455 mm)
d) 17” (430mm) - 19” (485)

A

b) 16” (405 mm) - 18” (455 mm)

2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design
604.2 Location. The water closet shall be positioned with a wall or partition to the rear and to one side. The centerline of the water closet shall be 16 inches (405 mm) minimum to 18 inches (455 mm) maximum from the side wall or partition, except that the water closet shall be 17 inches (430 mm) minimum and 19 inches (485 mm) maximum from the side wall or partition in the ambulatory accessible toilet compartment specified in 604.8.2. Water closets shall be arranged for a left-hand or right-hand approach.

123
Q
A