QI and DCR Flashcards

1
Q

Micro-satellite instability is not restricted to Lynch Syndrome. What proportion of MSI/dMMR tumours are attributable to Lynch Syndrome?

A

In fact, only 15–20% of MSI/MMR-deficient (dMMR) tumors can be attributed to LS, and most MSI/dMMR tumors are sporadic. This emphasizes the importance of distinguishing these two entities for appropriate management.

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2
Q

What is the lifetime risk of colorectal cancer and endometrial cancer in patients with Lynch Syndrome?

A

The lifetime risk of CRC depends on sex and on the MMR gene, which is mutated.

In two recent international prospective studies including more than 3000 families, the lifetime risks of CRC at 70 years old for MLH1 and MSH2 gene mutation carriers ranged from 40% to 52%, with a slight male predominance.

The cumulative lifetime risks for colorectal malignancy were lower in patients with MSH6 and PMS2 gene mutations (approximately 15% and between 3% - 13%, respectively).

Endometrial cancer is the most common extracolonic cancer in LS, with lifetime risk estimates of 35–40% for MLH1, 46–53% for MSH2, up to 46% for MSH6, and 13% for PMS2.

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3
Q

What is the utility in testing for KRAS mutations?

How common is KRAS mutation?

A

The KRAS oncogene is mutated in approximately 35%-45% of colorectal cancers.

The most frequent mutations in this gene, point substitutions in codons 12 and 13, were validated as negative predictors of response to anti-epidermal growth factor receptor antibodies (Cetuximab and Panitumumab should only be used in KRAS-WT metastatic cases)

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4
Q

What is the size of an open endoscopic biopsy forceps?

A

6mm

(Radial Jaw 4 Biopsy Forceps, Boston Scientific, United States)

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5
Q

Describe the evidence for the use of Chromoendoscopy in the context of surveillance endoscopy in IBD patients.

A

In surveillance of inflammatory bowel diseases, chromoendoscopy identifies more patients with dysplasia only when compared with standard-definition white-light endoscopy.

It is associated with longer procedural time (+9 minutes) with no direct evidence of effect on preventing all-cause/cancer-specific mortality or time to interval cancer.

Ref:
Chromoendoscopy for Surveillance in Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease: A Systematic Review of Randomized Trials. Clin Gastroenterology and Hepatology. November 2017.

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6
Q

Describe appropriate antibiotics prophylaxis in colorectal surgery.

When should they be given?

When should repeat doses be given?

A

Appropriate prophylactic regimens include single agent cover with intravenous cefoxitin (2nd Gen; broad activity against G+, G-, and some anaerobes), or dual agent cover with cefazolin and metronidazole. The use of second or third generation cephalosporins is not any more effective than a first generation drug when used in conjunction with metronidazole (see ref).

In the setting of β-lactam allergy, cefazolin may be substituted with clindamycin, gentamicin or ciprofloxacin.

It is recommended that antibiotics are administered within 60 minutes of surgery in order to achieve peak tissue levels. There is some evidence that administration greater than 120 minutes prior to surgery reduces efficacy.

Repeat dosing during longer operations is recommended for cefoxitin (2 hourly) and cefazolin (4 hourly). The pharmacokinetic profile of metronidazole is such that adequate tissue concentration is maintained for 6-9 hours.

  • Skipper D, Karran S. A randomized prospective study to compare cefotetan with cefuroxime plus metronidazole as prophylaxis in elective colorectal surgery. Journal*
  • of Hospital Infection. 1992;21(1):73-77.*
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7
Q

Summarise serrated colonic lesions.

A

Until 2010, colorectal serrated lesions were generally considered as harmless lesions and reported as hyperplastic polyps (HPs) by pathologists and gastroenterologists.

However, recent evidence showed that they may bear the potential to develop into colorectal carcinoma (CRC).

Therefore, the World Health Organization (WHO) classification has identified four categories of
serrated lesions:
1. Hyperplastic polyps (HPs)
2. Sessile serrated lesions (SSLs)
3. Traditional serrated adenoma (TSAs)
4. Unclassified serrated adenomas.

SSLs with dysplasia and TSAs are the most common precursors of CRC.

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8
Q

How do CRCs arise from serrated lesions?

A

CRCs arising from serrated lesions originate via two different molecular pathways, namely sporadic microsatellite instability (MSI) and the CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP), the latter being considered as the major mechanism that drives the serrated pathway towards CRC.

Unlike CRCs arising through the adenoma–carcinoma pathway, APC-inactivating mutations are rarely shown in the serrated neoplasia pathway.

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9
Q

Describe the distribution of colorectal cancer in Australasia according to BCCA data in terms of:

  • Gender
  • ASA
  • Stage at diagnosis
  • Elective versus emergency
  • Location of tumour
  • Rectal cancer patients receiving NAC
A

According to the 2021 BCCA data-set:

  • 54% of patients were male
  • 46% of the cohort were ASA III or higher
  • Stage distribution is constant, with 10% presenting with metastatic disease, 60% presenting with stage II/III disease, and 30% presenting with stage I disease
  • 80% of cases present electively
  • Caecum/Ascending colon 30%, Rectum 30%
  • Hepatic flexure, TC, Splenic flexure, rectosigmoid ~10%
  • More than half of rectal Ca patients get NAC
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10
Q

What is Waldeyer’s fascia?

Describe the importance of this anatomical structure.

A

Waldeyer’s fascia, also known as the rectosacral fascia, is a thickened band which originates from the endopelvic/presacral fascia at the S2 to S4 level and passes caudally to fuse with the mesorectal fascia 3-5cm from the anal verge. This divides the retrorectal space into superior and inferior parts. It lies above the levator ani muscle at the level of the anorectal junction.

If Waldeyer’s fascia is encountered during surgery, the wrong surgical plane may be entered; failure to recognize Waldeyer’s fascia and to maintain dissection distally along the fascia may result in entrance into the rectum. Sectioning the fascia can provide access to the inferior portion of the RRS, resulting in successful mobilization of the rectum.

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11
Q

What are the boundaries of the retrorectal space?

A

The retrorectal space is a potential space within the extra-peritoneal compartment of the pelvis. It is bounded:

  • Anteriorly by the rectum and posterior mesorectum’s visceral fascia
  • Posteriorly by the sacrum covered by presacral fascia.
  • Superiorly by the pelvic peritoneal reflection at the rectosigmoid junction
  • Inferiorly lies Waldeyer’s fascia and the supralevator space
  • Laterally, the presacral area is bounded by the ureterohypogastric fascia and extends to the ureters, internal iliac vessels, lateral sacral artery, the sympathetic trunk, hypogastric nerves, and the inferior hypogastric plexus at the lower levels.
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12
Q

What explains the heterogeneity of “Pre-Sacral Tumours”?

A

The retrorectal or pre-sacral space occurs at the confluence of the hindgut, bony pelvis, and neuroectoderm of the spinal cord. Hence, lesions arising in this space may arise de-nove from any of these structures or their congenital variants.

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13
Q

What are the surgically relevant contents of the pre-sacral space?

Discuss the anatomy of these neurovascular structures.

A

Surgically significant vascular structures include the

  1. Sacral venous plexus, formed primarily by the anastomosis of the middle and lateral sacral veins on the anterior surface of the sacrum.
  2. The middle sacral artery arising from the abdominal aorta before its bifurcation courses caudally within the midline just anterior to the lumbosacral spine. This vessel is more likely to be to the right than to the left.
  3. The lateral sacral arteries arise from the posterior trunk of the internal iliac artery and descend along the anterior aspect of the sacrum, dividing into smaller branches that enter the sacral foramina.
  4. The lumbosacral trunk runs across the ala of the sacrum to join the first sacral nerve and, together with the second and third sacral nerves, forms the sciatic nerve. The upper three sacral nerves lie in the sacral hollow where they are separated from bone by the piriformis and covered by parietal pelvic fascia. These nerves form the sciatic nerve after exiting the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis.
  5. The superior and inferior hypogastric plexi and their adjoining hypogastric nerves closely approximate in the presacral space. The superior hypogastric plexus originates at the aortic bifurcation and ends in the superior portion of the presacral space bordered laterally by the iliac vasculature and inferiorly by the levator ani.
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14
Q

What is the intended fixation area on the sacral promontory when fixing the mesh of a LVMR?

What structures are at risk? Specifically which vessels?

A

A recent study in DCR (May 2022) showed that only 43% of tacks were placed in the intended fixation area; the anterior longitudinal ligament on the surface of S1, during cadaveric LVMR.

Other structures nearby include the superior hypogastric plexus (universally damaged), hypogastric nerves, the L5 disc, the iliac vessels (RCIA and LCIV), the ureters (~3cm) the first sacral nerve (4cm).

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15
Q

What is a “Chronic Perineal Sinus”?

What is the incidence of this following proctectomy?

How can it be prevented?

How can it be treated?

A

First reported by Miles in 1908, chronic perineal sinus (CPS), also referred to as “presacral sinus,” is defined as a perineal wound that does not heal after more than 6 months.

Poorly reported, the incidence is probably between 10-40%, with rates much higher in Crohn’s compared with UC, and especially high after pouch excision.

Preventative measures include:

  • Pre-operative optimisation (smoking, diabetes, etc)
  • Inter-sphincteric proctectomy
  • TME

Treatment options include:

  • Curettage and NPWT
  • Gracilis flap
  • VRAM flap
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16
Q

What is the difference between Lynch Syndrome and HNPCC?

A

HNPCC is defined clinically, usually as families satisfying Amsterdam I or II criteria.

Lynch syndrome is defined genetically, by the presence of a germline mutation in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) or EPCAM genes.

Not all HNPCC families have Lynch syndrome and not all Lynch syndrome families have HNPCC.

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17
Q

Define post-operative acute kidney injury.

What proportion of patients undergoing colorectal cancer surgery experience this?

What is the impact of PO-AKI on mortality?

A

PO-AKI occurs within 7 days of surgery and is a multifactorial process influenced by preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative factors.

Northern European population-based data suggest that 20.3% of patients undergoing colorectal cancer resection experience PO-AKI.

PO-AKI and mortality have a dose-depedant relationship, with even mild PO-AKI resulting in a 2-3 fold increase in mortality at 3 months.

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18
Q

How is PO-AKI diagnosed?

A

Must have one of the following:

  • ↑sCr ≥ 0.3 mg/dL (~30umol/L) within 48 h
  • ↑sCr ≥ 1.5 baseline
  • Urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 h
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19
Q

Describe the KDIGO classification of AKI

A
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20
Q

Which common peri-operative medications require dose-adjustment with PO-AKI?

A

Analgesia:

NSAIDS, morphine, codeine, tapentadol, tramadol, gabapentinoids should be strongly (re)considered in patients with stage II-III PO-AKI.

Anticoagulants:

Enoxaparin and NOACs require renally-adjusted dosing

Antibiotics:

Cephalosporins

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21
Q

Outline the impact of ileostomy-associated AKI on long-term renal function.

A

In the 3 months after ileostomy formation, 15% of patients experience a de novo or community-onset AKI

Of those, 28.5% develop stage III CKD within 12 months.

After ileostomy takedown, the risk of incident CKD is attenuated, but it remains significantly elevated among those who had an ileostomy-associated AKI.

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22
Q

Describe the mechanism of the “triple-whammy” of NSAIDS, diuretics, and ACEi/ARBs in the context of AKI.

A
  • ACE inhibitors or ARBs decrease glomerular filtration by causing vasodilation of the efferent renal arteriole.
  • Diuretics can also contribute to AKI by causing hypovolaemia.
  • NSAIDs associated blockade of the COX-2 enzyme prevents prostacyclin synthesis, which causes afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
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23
Q

Describe a scoring system for severe acute lower GI bleeding and its utility.

A

The NOBLADS is a clinical risk scoring system for severe acute LGIB that was developed in Japan.

This score considers eight criteria at hospital admission to predict severe acute LGIB.

The acronym NOBLADS (NOOBLAADS) stands for

  • use of Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)
  • nO diarrhea
  • nO abdominal tenderness
  • systolic BLood pressure <100mmHg
  • nonaspirin Antiplatelet use
  • serum Albumin <3 g/dL
  • Disease score (Charlson comorbidity index) ≥2
  • Syncope

Patients with high risk for severe LGIB (NOOBLAADS score ≥ 2):

  • a significantly higher requirement for RBC transfusion
  • need of intervention
  • in-hospital days
24
Q

In what ways can the upper limit of the rectum be defined?

How do you define the limits of the rectum?

A
  • Anatomically
    • Peritoneal reflection
    • Rectosigmoid junction
    • Coalescence of teaniae
  • Empirically (by distance from anal verge)
    • 0-6cm = lower
    • 7-11cm = mid
    • 12-15cm = upper
  • Operatively (composite)
    • The transition from the sigmoid colon to the rectum is characterised by coalescence of taeniae coli, lack of epiploicae, and loss of the sigmoid mesocolon, usually 2 inches below the level of the promontory.
25
Q

What is the explanation for why MSI-H tumours have a better prognosis?

A
  • Tumors that lack the MMR mechanism contain a high mutational burden, and the antigens generated from them have the potential to be recognized as foreign bodies, resulting in a profound immunogenic response by the host.
  • This is the rationale behind why microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) tumors are more often seen in earlier stage cancers and tend to have a better overall prognosis.
26
Q

What are the Rome IV criteria for functional diarrhoea?

A
  • Loose or watery stools, without predominant abdominal pain or bothersome bloating, occurring in >25% of stools.
  • Criterion fulfilled for the last 3 months with symptom onset at least 6 months before diagnosis.
  • Patients meeting criteria for diarrhea-predominant IBS should be excluded.
27
Q

What is the incidence of VTEP and portovenous thromboembolism in IBD patients?

A

Advancements in imaging technology and heightened surveillance suggest that up to 39% of patients with IBD may experience a thromboembolic event during their lifetime.

Portomesenteric vein thrombosis occurs in between 4-12% of IBD patients undergoing colectomy.

28
Q

How can the incidence of post-colectomy VTEP be reduced in IBD patients?

A

Many surgeons utilize extended VTE prophylaxis (typically 30 days) following discharge in patients with IBD undergoing high-risk procedures. However, there are no prospective trials evaluating the efficacy of extended prophylaxis specifically in patients with IBD.

29
Q

What is the treatment for a patients with post-colectomy porto-systemic VTE?

A

A continuum of interventions:

  • Anticoagulation with therapeutic-dosing LMWH followed by long-term anticoagulation with NOACS or Warfarin for 3-6 months, or lifelong if another underlying cause is detected (e.g. anti-Ph)
  • Endovascular treatment is reserved for patients who do not resolve with therapeutic LMWH, or those who have extensive clot burden, or end-organ damage; endovascula urokinase may be used
  • Surgical exploration is reserved for those with signs of bowel ischaemia, mechanical obstruction, or perforation.
30
Q

What are the complications associated with “faecal management systems”?

What is the rate of complication?

A

The rate of significant complication is around 1-2%.

Complications include ulceration of the tube with associated bleeding, as well as bleeding independent of ulceration. Full thickness necrosis is very rarely reported. Disfomfort and resource-intensity are also relative complications.

Risk factors for faecal-management-system-injuries include significant comorbidities, advanced age, pelvic radiotherapy, and coagulopathy.

31
Q

What is the presentation of an ischiorectal fossa mass?

What are the possible aetiologies?

A

IRF tumors can present in a variety of ways, most commonly as a growing buttock mass or pain. Less commonly, patients will present with complaints of constipation, dyspareunia, or dysuria.

Occasionally, these tumors are identified incidentally in asymptomatic patients on imaging performed for another indication.

The contents of the IRF include adipose tissue, nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymphatics, any of which can serve as the origin of the primary neoplasms that develop there:

  • Lipoma, liposarcoma
  • Schwannoma, peripheral sheath tumour
  • Haemangioma, angiosarcoma
  • Leimyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma
  • Lymphoma
32
Q

Describe the anatomy of the ischiorectal fossa (IRF)

A

The IRF has a pyramidal shape and is bounded by the skin inferiorly, obturator internus muscle laterally, and the inferior surface of the levator ani as its anterior and medial borders.

The left and right ischiorectal spaces communicate posteriorly through the postanal deep space, between the levator ani and the anococcygeus ligament.

33
Q

What is the workup for an ischiorectal fossa tumor?

A

CT is a good initial investigation, though MRI is the gold standard for evaluating IRF tumours.

PET-CT has a role if metastatic disease is a consideration.

Percutaneous biopsy is not usually neccessary given the accuracy of CT and MRI, though if required should be performed under USS or CT guidance. Studies have shown that biopsy changes management in one third of cases (cf pre-sacral tumours, where biopsy is more contentious).

Patients with IRF tumours should be managed through an MDT.

34
Q

How are ischiorectal fossa tumours managed?

A

Through an MDT to most accurately diagnose and treat.

Surgical treatment is required for malignant or symptomatic IRF tumours.

Special attention should also be paid to identifying and avoiding the pudendal nerve and anal sphincter if in close proximity to the mass.

Cases in which tumors extend superiorly through the levator plate may require an abdominal or a combined abdominoperineal approach. Multivisceral involvement may require radical pelvic excision with pelvic floor reconstruction and the assistance of other surgical specialties, as appropriate.

35
Q

What are the common and rare causes of benign colonic strictures?

A

Common causes of benign colonic strictures include diverticular strictures, radiation-induced strictures, anastomotic strictures, and ischaemic strictures.

Rarer causes include amyloidosis, tuberculosis, endometriosis, CMV colitis, and amoebic induced strictures.

36
Q

Describe the role of endoscopic intervention in benign colonic strictures?

What other endoscopic options are available for benign strictures?

What features predict failure of endoscopic intervention?

A

Colonic stents are commonly used in the management of malignant colonic obstruction, but their role in the management of benign strictures remains controversial. Studies have shown colonic stenting to be effective in temporizing obstruction as a bridge to surgery or as definitive treatment for benign strictures, though reports are rare and numbers are small.

Other endoscopic interventions include balloon dilatation, intra-lesional steroid injection, and eletro-incision.

Long strictures (>2 cm), severe bowel angulation, and the inability to endoscopically reach the stricture are associated with technical failure or the need for repeat dilation.

37
Q

What are the NCCN guidelines regarding features of tumours amenable to local resection (as opposed to TME)?

A

National Comprehensive Cancer Network guidelines support LE for T1N0 tumors assuming the lesion meets the following criteria:

  • well to moderately differentiated
  • no lymphovascular or perineural invasion
  • <3cm in size
  • <30% of the rectal circumference
  • within 8 cm of the anal verge
  • and ability to perform full-thickness resection with >3mm margin.
38
Q

What is the rate of lymph node metastases in T1 tumours?

A

6-13%

Nascimbeni R, Burgart LJ, Nivatvongs S, Larson DR. Risk of lymph node metastasis in T1 carcinoma of the colon and rec- tum. Dis Colon Rectum. 2002;45:200–206.

39
Q

Describe the “classic” and “novel” histopathological risk factors for LN metastases in T1 cancers.

What are the OR for each (approximately)?

A

Classic (OR of 2.5 to 6):

  • LVI - OR of 6.2
  • NI - OR of 2.5
  • VI - OR of 2.5
  • Haggit - OR not found to be useful; outdated by depth now
  • Kikuchi - OR of 3.0 for SM3 versus SM1-2
  • Degree of differentiation - OR 3.6

Novel:

  • Absolute depth
    • 1500µm has an OR of 4.37
  • Poorly differentiated clusters
    • Presence of PDCs confers an OR of 14!!
40
Q

What is the rate of rectal cuff / anal transitional zone adenomata in FAP patients who have undergone restorative proctocolectomy?

What should the surveillance be?

A

About 50% (47.3%) of patients in Church’s series developed a RC/TZ Adenoma. Mucosectomy patients fared better, though still 20% developed an adenoma so mucosectomy is imperfect.

Surveillance should be annual.

41
Q

What features determine prognosis in the setting of liver metastases?

What recent update has been made to the canonical score system for this?

A

Apply the Clinical Risk Score (Fong et al):

  • CEA >200
  • Liver metastases >5cm
  • More than one liver metastases
  • Node positive primary
  • Synchronous disease within 12 months

Each positive criterion is assigned one point. 5-year-survival with 0 points is 60% and with 5 points is 14%.

This data is out-dated so likely better than this with current chemo.

  • Recent update is that m-CRS is made up of:
    • LN positive primary
    • KRAS status
    • Largest met. more than 5cm
42
Q

What is the colectomy rate in “non-responders” to Infliximab or Cyclosporine who then are treated with third-line “rescue” Cyclosporine or Infliximab?

A

70% at 3 months

Adverse events 25%, serious infection in 7%, and death in 1% of this group.

43
Q

What is the risk of colorectal cancer in UC patients?

A

Previous reports suggested a 2%, 8%, and 18% cumulative risk of CRC 10, 20, and 30 years after the diagnosis of UC.

More recent meta- analyses report a cumulative risk of 1%, 3%, and 7%.

44
Q

What is the rate of completion proctectomy in UC patients undergoing IRA in the context of “rectal-sparing” colitis?

A
  • 10% at 5 years
  • 25% at 10 years
  • 40% at 20 years

…undergo completion proctectomy.

45
Q

What are the causes of adult intestinal intussusception?

A

70% benign:

  • Meckel’s diverticulum
  • Post operative adhesions
  • Lymphoid hyperplasia of appendix or TI
  • Lipomata
  • Foci of submucosal haemorrhage or haematoma

30% malignant:

  • Metastatic melanoma
  • Small bowel cancers;
    • NET
    • Lymphoma
    • Adenocarcinoma
    • GIST
46
Q

Should one reduce an adult intussusception?

A

There is no consensus in the literature as to whether it is advisable to proceed with reduction of the intussusception.

The rationale against reduction is based on the risk of intestine perforation attributed to ischemia, contamination of the operative field, or even the seeding of tumor cells. However, the evidence in this respect is scant, and none of these risks have been clearly demonstrated.

47
Q

What is first-line therapy for C.diff infection?

A

Of note, oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin is considered first-line treatment for an initial CDI, whereas metronidazole alone is no longer considered appropriate first-line treatment, according to the ASCRS guidelines.

Metronidazole resistance is less common in Australia and New Zealand and so Metronidazole remains first line, according to the 2016 position paper by the ASID.

48
Q

Describe the method by which response to chemoradiotherapy in rectal cancer is assessed on MRI.

A
49
Q

Compare the outcomes of LE for early rectal cancer using trans-anal surgery and TAMIS/TEMS.

A

No head-to-head randomised trials comparing these approaches.

Retrospective studies have shown that transanal excision is associated with higher rates of positive margins and local recurrence than TEM/TAMIS.

TEM/TAMIS, in selected patients, have similar oncological outcomes with favourable functional outcomes.

50
Q

What are the so called “alarm features” when trying to determine which possibly IBS patients should be spared investigation?

A
  • New symptom onset after age 50
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Fevers
  • Upper GI symptoms e.g. nausea and vomiting
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Anaemia
  • Nocturnal symptoms
  • A family history of significant GI disorders.
51
Q

What is Adalimumab?

How does it work?

What are the indications for its use?

A

Adalimumab is a human monoclonal IgG antibody against TNF-a.

It is administered subcutaneously at baseline and two weeks.

Similar in efficacy to Infliximab for Crohn’s and UC.

52
Q

What are the three categories of native tissue available for perineal hernia repair?

A
  1. Intra-abdominal organs
  • Caecum, bladder, uterus
  • Placing into pelvis may alter function
  1. Omental flap
  • Pedicled on the left gastroepiploic
  • Fat only - no strength
  1. Fascio/myo-cutaneous flaps
  • VRAM / muscle only
  • Gracilis
53
Q

What are the common and rare complications of colonoscopy and their approximate rates?

A
  • Bleeding
    • 0.01-1% depending on polyp size, type of intervention etc
  • Perforation
    • 1/1000 for screening
    • 1/500 for symptomatic
  • Post-polypectomy coagulation syndrome
    • Pain after coagulation assoc polypectomy w/o perforation
    • Inflammatory condition
  • Appendicitis
  • Diverticulitis
  • Splenic injury
54
Q

What are the mechanisms by which colonoscopy-associated perforation may occur?

Where in the colon is most likely to be affected?

A
  • Barotrauma
  • Mechanical trauma
  • Post-polypectomy
  • Thermal injury

The sigmoid is the most common site of perforation, followed by the caecum.

55
Q

What are the risk factors for colonoscopy perforation?

What colonoscopic interventions are most associated with perforation?

A
  • Increasing age (>65 y)
  • Low BMI
  • Female sex
  • Low albumin
  • Previous abdominal surgeries
  • Diverticulosis
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Low experience of endoscopist,
  • Therapeutic intervention.

Of the therapeutic interventions, endo- scopic stenting** and **balloon dilation are the procedures with the highest perforation risk, ranging from 5% to 11%.

56
Q

Define frailty.

What specific features may be present?

A

Frailty can be defined as “an accumulation of deficits resulting in an inability to tolerate stress”.

Fried’s phenotypic definition of having 3 of the following 5 traits:

  • Slow walking speed,
  • Impaired grip strength
  • Self-reported declining activity
  • Unintended weight loss
  • Exhaustion.