QE Questions. TS 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism N2O similar to?

a. Meperidine
b. Hydroxyzine
c. Chloral hydrate
d. Midazolam

A

D. Midazolam

i. N2O is thought to cause activation of the benzodiazepine binding site as its effects are blocked by flumazenil.
ii. Benzodiazepines->Diazepam and Midazolam

Reversal is Flumazenil

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2
Q

Which syndrome is associated with airway compromise?

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

The primary facial manifestation of BWS is macroglossia, or an enlarged tongue. If the tongue is excessively large, it can interfere with the child’s airway, impair feeding, deform the jaws, or splay the teeth.

Craniofacial team may recommend a tongue reduction to alleviate these sequelae.

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3
Q

Which syndrome is associated with primary immunodeficiency?

a. DiGeorge
b. Ellers-Danlos
c. Hurler

A

A. DiGeorge Syndrome (Most common deletion syndrome)

Is a primary immunodeficiency disease
Decreased T-cell production due to absent to poorly developed thymus.

Also called 22q11.2 and Velo-Cardio-Facial Syndrome 
It can cause,
-Heart defects
-Poor immune system function
-Cleft palate
-Low levels of calcium in the blood.
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4
Q

What is the effect of GI cement?

a. Decreases acid production in bacteria
b. Decreases sensitivity
c. Improves enamel bond
d. Decreases saliva pH

A

A. Decrease acid production in bacteria

Glass ionomer cements act as sealants when pits and fissures in the tooth occur and release fluoride to prevent further enamel demineralization and promote demineralization. Fluoride can also hinder bacterial growth, by inhibiting their metabolism of ingested sugars in the diet. It does this by inhibiting various metabolic enzymes within the bacteria. This leads to a reduction in the acid produced during the bacteria’s digestion of food, preventing a further drop in pH and therefore preventing caries.

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5
Q

How does fluoride effect remineralization

a. Decreases saliva pH
b. increases bacteria glycolysis
c. increases releases of phosphate
d. Inhibits formation of carbon hydroxyl

A

Inhibits formation of carbon hydroxyl??

Fluoride ions (F–) replace hydroxyl groups (OH–) in the formation of the apatite crystal lattice

Inhibition of glycolysis by fluoride is central to the concept that the anti-microbial effect of fluoride has a role in caries prevention. It has been demonstrated that fluoride exerts this inhibitory action through its interference with uptake and degradation of polysaccharides by the bacterial cell, and also by reducing the ability of the cell to maintain pH homeostasis (Hamilton, 1990).

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6
Q

Which is an oral feature of Kawasakis

a. Marginal gingivitis
b. Ulcers
c. oropharynx erythema

A

C. Oropharynx erythema

KD is characterized by fever, bilateral non-exudative conjunctivitis, erythema of lip and oral mucosa, cervical lymphadenopathy, changes in the extremities and polymorphous exanthema.

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7
Q

Which syndrome is associated with abnormal chemotaxis of neutrophils
a. Trisomy 21

A

defective neutrophil chemotaxis influences the progression of periodontal disease in DS patients.

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8
Q

What syndrome is associated with increased appetite

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Phenylketonuria

A

A. Diabetes mellitus

Causes may include:
Anxiety
Certain drugs (such as corticosteroids, cyproheptadine, and tricyclic antidepressants)
Bulimia (most common in women 18 to 30 years old)
Diabetes mellitus (including gestational diabetes)
Graves disease
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoglycemia
Premenstrual syndrome

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9
Q

What Is increasing and associated with cystic fibrosis

a. Bruxism
b. open bite
c. caries,

A

B. Open Bite
Oral implications associated with CF include enamel hypoplasia and tooth discoloration, salivary gland involvement, reduced incidence of dental caries, reservoir for potentially pathogenic respiratory bacteria, mouth breathing, and
anterior open bite associated with nasal and sinus obstruction

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10
Q

What is the inheritance of Treacher Collins?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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11
Q

Treatment of aggressive periodontitis?

A

Amoxicillin+Methotrexate

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12
Q

Most common side effect of ferric sulfate .

A

Internal root resorption.

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13
Q

What is the first pulp reaction to caries

a. Pulpal vasoconstriction
b. Dead tracts
c. Sclerosis
d. Odontoclasts

A

C. Sclerosis

Decrease in dentin permeability. It is the first and fastest defense to caries and is called dentin sclerosis.

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14
Q

What indicates a high risk caries patient

a. Low SES
b. Enamel hypoplasia
c. Visible plaque
d. Special needs

A

C. Visible Plaque

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15
Q

How does radiographs contrast adjust

A

a. KVP

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16
Q

What can primary herpetic gingival stomatitis induce

a. Steven’s Johnson
b. erythema multiforme
c. Toxic epidermolysis necrosis

A

B. Erythema Multiforme
It can be triggered by chemicals, drug intake or several infections [Table/Fig-8], in particular herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection, [2] which has been identified in up to 70% of EM cases

17
Q

What is it called with coordinated resorption and apposition of bone?

A

Cortical drift
Most bones grown by interplay of bone depostion and resorption.
Acombination of bone deposition and resorption resulting in a growth movement towards the deposition surface is called Cortical Drift.

18
Q

What tooth is dens evaginatus most common in?

A

Mandibular pre molars.

19
Q

What is the most common color of extrinsic staining due to chromogenic bacteria? What bacteria causes it?

A

Green is most common and is caused by Bacillus pyocaneus, Aspergillis.

Brown/Black staining is much less common and difficult to remove

20
Q

What level of evidence does each of the following behavior guidance techniques have?

a. Positive pre-visit imagery
b. Direct observation/modeling
c. TSD
d. Ask-Tell-Ask
e. Voice control
f. Positive reinforcement
g. Distraction

A

a. good
b. Fair
c. Weak
d. Weak
e. Weak
f. Fair
g. Excellent (talking about sports, shaking cheek during injection)

21
Q

What alternative communicative behavior management technique has an excellent level of evidence?

A

Hypnosis

-State of mind induced through suggestions.

22
Q

How long should you use fluoride foam?

A

Evidence strongly favors 4 minute application.

23
Q

What are the 5 A’s of smoking cessation?

A

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange

24
Q

What should be used to treat ulcers in HIV patients?

A

Fluocinolone

Betamethasone or hydrocortisone would work too.

25
Q

What is the most cariogenic sugar?

A
  1. Sucrose
  2. Glucose
  3. Fructose
26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Phentolamine mesolate?

A

Non-selective alpha-adrenergic blocking agent.
It lacks intrinsic activity but possesses higher affinity than norepinephrine and epinephrine for postsynaptic alpha-adrenergic receptors, thus, it antagonizes (reverses) their vasoconstrictive action.

27
Q

Highest level of evidence.

A

The systematic review or meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and evidence-based practice guidelines are considered to be the strongest level of evidence on which to guide practice decisions.

28
Q

Mechanism of silver nitrate on soft tissue wounds.

A

The mechanism of action is secondary to the binding of free silver ions with tissue proteins, which leads to their precipitation and the obstruction of small vessels.

29
Q

What is characterized by increased phosphoethanolamine in urine and decreased alkaline phosphatase?

A

Hypophosphotasia

30
Q

What should be used for an acute asthma attack?

A

Short-acting beta agonists, such as albuterol.

31
Q

What sedation would you not use in a patient with asthma?

A

Demerol (Meperidine)

32
Q

What OTC drug should be avoided in asthmatics?

A

NSAIDs

33
Q

What is the development anomaly in AI.

A

Histodifferentiation

34
Q

What histologically give raise to the pulp?

A

The outer cells of the dental papilla (or peripheral cells) will differentiate into dentin-secreting cells (Odontoblasts), where as the inner cells are the primordium of the pulp.

35
Q

Common item you can use to abuse N2O.

A

Whipping cream can

36
Q

What nerve come from brachial arch 3?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Arch 1=Trigeminal Nerve
Arch 2=Facial Nerve

37
Q

Radiograph frequency of bitewings for low risk mixed dentition.

A

Posterior bitewings exam at 12-24 months intervals if proximal surface cannot be examined visually or with probe. (For recall patients with no clinical caries and not at increased risk for caries)

6-12 months for high risk.
18-36 for low risk adolescents with permanent dentition.

38
Q

When does calcification of primary teeth being?

A

14-16 weeks

39
Q

What is the most common side affect of GA?

A

Nausea