Qbank notes Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of aflatoxin and hepatocellular carcinoma

A

induces p53 mutation of G:C -> T:A transversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ochronosis

A

a black pigments evident in the skin due to alkaptonuria (seen in ears, nose, cheecks, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MOA of Neisseria virulence factor

A

IgA protease- finds to Fc portion preventing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the molecular change seen in HbS?

A

a charged glutamic acid residue is replaced by a nonpolar hydrophobic valine residue at the 6thAA position in the beta subunit -> hydrophobic part of the beta chain

  • causes aggregation of the hemoglobin molecule under anoxic conditions
  • this is bc a hydrophobic part of the beta chin fits in a complemetary site on the alpha chain of another Hb molecule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you calculate the total filtration rate of a substance A?

A

Inulin clearance X plasma concentration of substance A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you calculate the Net Excretion rate of Substance A?

A

= CL inulin X Plasma conc of ubstance A - tubular reabsorption of substance A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the lipoxins and what do hey do?

A

Lipoxin A4 and B4:

  • vasodilation
  • inhibition of neutrophil chemotaxis
  • stimulation of monocyte adhesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the more common NNRTIs?

A

Nevirapine
Efavirenz
Delavirdine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What metabolic processes take place solely in the mitochondria?

A
  1. Fatty acid oxidation
  2. Acetyl-CoA production
  3. TCA
  4. Oxidative phosphorylation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What metabolic processes take place in the cytpolasm ONLY?

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. FA synthesis
  3. HMP Shunt
  4. Protein synthesis: RER
  5. Steroid syndthesis (SER)
  6. Cholesterol synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which metabolic rxns take place in both cytosol and mitochondria?

A

Heme synthesis
Urea Cycle
Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the sites of the HMP shunt?

A
  1. Lactating mammary glands
  2. Liver
  3. Adrenal cortez
  4. RBCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Benzoate

A

binds amino acid and leads to excretion, use in hyperammonemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phenylbutyrate

A

binds amino acid and leads to excretion- use in hyperammonemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is retinoic acid a teratogen?

A
  • it alters Hox gene expression which is responisble for skeletal morphology
  • limbs are thus in the wrong place or get synpolydactyly (fusion of digits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the surface ectoderm become? (8)

A
  1. Lens
  2. Lining of oral cavity
  3. Rathke’s pouch -> anterior pituitary
  4. Sensory organs of ear
  5. Olfactory epithelium
  6. Epidermis
  7. Anal canal below the pectinate line
  8. Sweat, parotid and mammary glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the neuroectoderm become?

A
  1. Brain- neurohypophysis, CNS neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, pineal gland
  2. Retina and optic nerve
  3. Spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do the neural crest cells become?

A
  1. PNS: DRG, cranial nerves, celiac ganglion, schwann cells, ANS
  2. Melanocytes
  3. Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
  4. Parafollicular C cells of thyroid
  5. Pia and arrachnoid
  6. Bones of the skull
  7. Odontoblasts
  8. Aorticopulmonary septum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the mesoderm give rise to?

A
  1. Muscle and bone, connective tissue
  2. Serous linings of body cavities
  3. Spleen (from foregut mesentary)
  4. CV
  5. Lymphatics
  6. Blood
  7. Wall of gut tube
  8. wall of bladder
  9. Urethra, kidney, vagina, adrenal cortex, dermis testes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are mesodermal defects?

A
VACTERL
Vertebral defects
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheo-esophageal fistulas
Renal defects
Limb defects (bone and mm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are endoderm derivatives?

A
  1. Gut tube epithelium (anal canal above the pectinate line) and luminal derivatives:
    - lungs
    - liver
    - gallbladder
    - pancreas
    - eustachian tube
    - thymus
    - parathyroid
    - thyroid folicular cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Umbilical arteries and veins are derived from what?

A

Allantois

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cleft lip mechanism

A

failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cleft palate mechanism

A

failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum and/or the median palatine process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is associated with epispadias?

A

exstrophy of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dip or haploid: primary spermatocyte

A

Dipolid: 2N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DHT: early and late

A

early: causes differentiation of penis, scrotum and prostate
Late: prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity

28
Q

What layers of the endometrium are shed during menstration?

A

Stratum spongiosum and stratum compactum

29
Q

Mechanism behind eclampsia

A

placental ischemia due to impaired vasodilation of spiral arteries

30
Q

what is the cause of mortality in HELLP syndrome?

A

cerebral hemorrhage or ARDS

31
Q

Tx of endometritis?

A

gentamycin and clindamycin w/wout ampicillin

32
Q

how does diabetes lead to PCOS?

A

insulin stimulates androgen synthesis in theca cells and also inhibits SHBG

33
Q

What happens when microglia are infected ith HIV?

A

they fuse to form multinucleated giant cells

34
Q

What is found in the nodes of ranvier?

A

high concentrations of Na channels

35
Q

what areas are not protected by the BBB?

A
Area postrema (responds to emetics) and OVLT (senses change in osmolarity)
- in Hypothalamus
36
Q

Which nucleus of the hypothalamus makes ADH?

A

supraoptic

37
Q

which are of the hypothalamus nucleus makes oxytocin?

A

Paraventricular nucleus

38
Q

Mnemonic for huntingtons dx

A

CAG expansion: caudate loses Ach and GABA

39
Q

a lesion in the amygdala is associated with what?

A

HSV-1

40
Q

What nerves are affected in Vernet syndrome

A

aka Jugular foramen syndrome

- CN IX, X, and XI

41
Q

What is the cause of death in Freidreich’s ataxia?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

42
Q

what risk does a subarachnoid hemorrhage carry w it and how do you treat it?

A
  • vasospasm due to blood breakdown, 2-3 days afterwards

- tx w Nimodipine

43
Q

how does friedreichs ataxia present in childhood?

A

kyphoscoliosis

44
Q

where is t10 and why is it important?

A

T10 = umbilicus, important for early appendicitis pain referral

45
Q

Fxn of superior colliculi?

A

conjugate vertical gaze

46
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi (pinealoma)

47
Q

retina whitening with cherry red spot

A

central retinal artery occlusion

48
Q

What are the diagnostic findings seen in MS?

A
  • increased IgG in CSF

- oligoclonal bands

49
Q

how does metachromatic leukodystrophy cause nerve damage?

A

buildup of sulfatides leads to impaired production of myelin sheath

50
Q

How does Krabbes disease lead to nerve damage?

A

Buildup of galactocerebroside destroys myelin sheath

51
Q

Symptoms of Tuberous sclerosis

A
HAMARTOMAS
Hamartomas in CNS and skin
Adenoma sebaceum
Mitral regurg
Ashleaf spots
Cardia Rhabdomyoma
Tuberous sclerosus
Autosomal dOminant
Mental retardation
renal Angiomyolipoma
Seizures
52
Q

which childhood brain tumor can produce EPO?

A

hemangioblastoma

53
Q

Fxn of superior colliculi?

A

conjugate vertical gaze

54
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi (pinealoma)

55
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi (pinealoma)

56
Q

retina whitening with cherry red spot

A

central retinal artery occlusion

57
Q

retina whitening with cherry red spot

A

central retinal artery occlusion

58
Q

What are the diagnostic findings seen in MS?

A
  • increased IgG in CSF

- oligoclonal bands

59
Q

how does metachromatic leukodystrophy cause nerve damage?

A

buildup of sulfatides leads to impaired production of myelin sheath

60
Q

How does Krabbes disease lead to nerve damage?

A

Buildup of galactocerebroside destroys myelin sheath

61
Q

Symptoms of Tuberous sclerosis

A
HAMARTOMAS
Hamartomas in CNS and skin
Adenoma sebaceum
Mitral regurg
Ashleaf spots
Cardia Rhabdomyoma
Tuberous sclerosus
Autosomal dOminant
Mental retardation
renal Angiomyolipoma
Seizures
62
Q

which childhood brain tumor can produce EPO?

A

hemangioblastoma

63
Q

What is the drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Adenosine- acts by slowing conduction through the AV node by hyperpolarizing the nodal pacemaker and conducting cells

64
Q

Side effects of adenosine?

A

flushing, chest burning (due to bronchospasm) and hypotension and high grade AV block

65
Q

What cell type incraeses after high dose glucocorticoid administration?

A

Neutrophils- bc of demargination of leukocytes previously attached to the vessel wall

66
Q

What are stains for neuroendocrine markers?

A
  1. Synaptophysin
  2. Neuron specific enolase
  3. Chromogranin