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Pharmacology > Drugs central > Flashcards

Drugs central Flashcards

1
Q

What drug can treat river blindness (onchocerca volvulus) and what is its action?

A

Ivermectin

- activated GABA receptors thereby leading to worm paralysis and death

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2
Q

What is the MOA of praziquantel and what is its clinical use?

A

MOA: Increases cell Ca uptake, causing parasite contraction and paralysis
Use: schistosomiasis and neurocysticercosis

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3
Q

Bitolterol

A

beta 2 agonist

used for asthma and t treat hyperkalemia at high doses

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4
Q

Pirbuterol

A

beta 2 agonist

used for asthma and to treat hyperkalemia at high doses

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5
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta 2 agonist- used to reduce uterine contractions during preterm labor
- and to treat bronchospasm during status epilepticus

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6
Q

Ritodrine

A

Beta2 agonist used to reduce uterine contractions during preterm labor

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7
Q

Side effects of Penicillin?

A

coombs positive hemolytic anemia, allergic reaction

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8
Q

What penicillin should you not give to people with mono?

A

Ampicillin

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9
Q

What is the clinical use of Ampicillin?

A 
HELPS kill Enterococci:
H influenzae
E coli
Listeria
Proteus
Salmonella
also gram positive and negative cocci
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10
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI

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11
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

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12
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI

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13
Q

Fluvoxamine

A

SSRI

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14
Q

Escitalopram

A

SSRI

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15
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI

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16
Q

What drugs can cause serotonin syndrome if given together?

A

SSRI and MAO inhibitors:

changes in mental status, hyperthermia, muscle stiffness, myoclonus

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17
Q

What are the first generation TCAs?

A 
Desipramine
Nortriptyline
Imipramine
Amitriptyline
Doxepin
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18
Q

Desipramine

A

TCA

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19
Q

Nortriptyline

A

TCA

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20
Q

Imipramine

A

TCA

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21
Q

Amitriptyline

A

TCA

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22
Q

Doxepin

A

TCA

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23
Q

Amoxapine

A

TCA- 2nd gen

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24
Q

Trazodone

A

TCA- 2nd gen

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25
Q

Bupropion

A

TCA- 2nd gen

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26
Q

What are the 2nd generation TCAs?

A
  1. Amoxapine
  2. Trazoddone
  3. Bupropion
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27
Q

MOA of the TCAs

A

Block the reuptake of NE and serotonin

- also have anti muscarinic, histamine, and alpha adrenergic receptors

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28
Q

What drug can you give for fibromyalgias?

A

TCAs

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29
Q

What TCA is used to treat neuropathic pain?

A

Amitriptyline

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30
Q

TCAs can cause seizures when given with which drug class?

A

MAO inhibitors

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31
Q

Nefazodone

A

Heterocyclic antidepressant, blocks the reuptake of NE and Serotonin

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32
Q

Venlafaxine

A

Heterocyclic antidepressant, blocks the reuptake of NE and Serotonin

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33
Q

Maprotiline

A

Heterocyclic antidepressant, blocks the reuptake of NE and Serotonin

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34
Q

Mirtazapine

A

heterocyclic antidepressant
- inhibits activation at alpha2 adrenergic receptors and at 5HT2 receptors, thereby increasing the release of NE and serotonin

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35
Q

Which antidepressant should you give to a depressed anorexic pt?

A

Mirtazapine- causes increased appetite and weight gain

- if she has atypical depression: MAO inhibitor

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36
Q

Tranylcypromine

A

MAO inhibitor

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37
Q

Phenelzine

A

MAO inhibitor

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38
Q

Isocarboxazid

A

MAO inhibitor

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39
Q

MOA of MAO inhibitors?

A
  • MAO A causes serotonin and NE metabolism
  • MAO B causes DA metabolism
  • thus the levels of serotonin, DA, and NE increase
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40
Q

Clinical use of MAO inhibitors?

A

atypical depression, specific phobias, panic disorder

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41
Q

Selegiline

A
  • selectively inhibits MAO B thereby resulting in increased levels of DA
  • used in the tx of PD
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42
Q

How can MAO inhibitors cause hypertensive crisis?

A
  • MAO is also responsible for metabolizing tyramine in wine and cheese
  • if ppl cant degrade tyramine, it stimulates the release of Epi and NE leading to a hypertensive crisis
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43
Q

Lithium: MOA and clinical use

A
  • inhibits the phosphoinositol second messenger system

Use: bipolar disorder, SIADH, schizoaffective disorder

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44
Q

Toxicities of Lithium? (4)

A
  1. Fine hand tremor
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  4. Leukoctosis
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45
Q

What two drugs can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A
  1. Lithium

2. Demeclocyline

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46
Q

Haloperidol

A

antipsychotic- typical, blocks postsynaptic DA2 receptors

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47
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

antipsychotic- typical, blocks postsynaptic DA2 receptors

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48
Q

Thioridazine

A

antipsychotic- typical, blocks postsynaptic DA2 receptors

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49
Q

Fluphenazine

A

antipsychotic- typical, blocks postsynaptic DA2 receptors

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50
Q

Side effects of the typical antipsychotic agents?

A

Sedation

  • anticholinergic side effects
  • Extrapyramidal side effects
  • galactorrhea and amenorrhea due to elevated level of prolatin
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51
Q

What are the EPSEs assoc with the typical antipsychotics?

A
  1. Acute dystonia: muscle spasms
  2. Akinesia: loss of voluntary movement
  3. Akathisia: motor restlessness
  4. Tardive dyskinesia: involuntary oral-facial movements
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52
Q

How do you treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dantrolene (muscle relaxant) and DA agonists

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53
Q

Clozapine

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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54
Q

Risperidone

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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55
Q

Olanzapine

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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56
Q

Ziprasidone

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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57
Q

Aripriprazole

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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58
Q

Quetiapine

A

Atypical antipsychotic: block both 5HT2 and dopamine receptors

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59
Q

Side effects of the atypical antipsychotic agents?

A
  • mild wright gain
  • parkinsonism symptoms
  • Clozapine can cause mild leukopenia and agranulocytosis
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60
Q

What drugs can cause agranulocytosis?

A
  1. Clozapine
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Colchicine
  4. PTU
  5. Methimazole
  6. Dapsone
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61
Q

What are the short acting Benzos?

A
  • triazolam

- midazolam

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62
Q

What are the long acting benzos?

A
  • diazepam
  • prazepam
  • clonazepam
  • flurazepam
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63
Q

Clinical uses of benzos?

A
  1. Anxiety
  2. Seizures
  3. Status epilepticus
  4. Alcohol withdrawal
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64
Q

Which two benzos are also used as anesthetics?

A

Midazolam and diasepam

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65
Q

How do you treat overdose of BZDs?

A

Flumazenil

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66
Q

Which benzos should you avoid in the elderly?

A
  • the long acting due to an increased risk of sedation and ataxia
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67
Q

Thiopental

A

Barbiturate

- can be used for the induction of anesthesia

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68
Q

Treatment of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

Phenobarbital

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69
Q

What patient populations shoudl you avoid Barbs in?

A
  • liver disease
  • pregnancy
  • porphyria
  • alcohol/benzo/CNS depressant use
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70
Q

Phenytoin: MOA

A

decreases the flow of Na and Ca ions across the cell membrane

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71
Q

What drug is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Phenytoin

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72
Q

What drug is used to treat torsades de pointes?

A

Phenytoin

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73
Q

Toxicities of phenytoin?

A
  1. Nystagmus
  2. Gingival hyperplasia
  3. Drug induced lupus
  4. Fetal hydantoin syndrome
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74
Q

What is Fetal hydantoin syndrome and what drug causes it?

A

Phenytoin: fetal growth deficiency, congenital cardiac and palate malformations

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75
Q

What is the only seizure drug that causes lymphadenopathy?

A

Phenytoin

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76
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Antiepileptic that acts by inhibiting sodium channels and inhibits the release of glutamate from nervous tissue

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77
Q

What drug is used in the prevention of migraines?

A

Valproic acid

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78
Q

Toxicities of Vaproic acid?

A

Hepatotoxicity

  • thrombocytopenia
  • teratogen: neural tube defects
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79
Q

MOA of valproic acid?

A
  • increase Na channel inactivation and increases GABA concentration
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80
Q

What are the first line agents for tonic clonic seizures?

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Valproic acid
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81
Q

What is the first line treatment of simple partial and simple complex seizures?

A

Carbamazepine

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82
Q

First line treatment for Absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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83
Q

First line treatment for status epilepticus: prophyalxis versus acute

A

Prophylaxis: phenytoin
Acute: Benzodiazepines

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84
Q

MOA of ethosuximide?

A

blocks thalamic T type Ca channels

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85
Q

Oxcarbazepine

A

antiepileptic- in same class as carbamazepine

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86
Q

Carbamazepine: MOA

A
  • inhibits the flow of Na ions through Na channels
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87
Q

Toxicities of Carbamazepine?

A
  • hepatotoxicitiy
  • agranulocytosis
  • aplastic anemia
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88
Q

Tiagibine

A

inhibits the reuptake of GABA in the synaptic cleft

- used for partial seizures

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89
Q

Vigabatrin

A

antiepileptic that acts by inhibiting the breakdown of GABA via inhibition of GABA transaminase

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90
Q

What are the two phases of succinylcholine NMJ blockade?

A
  • Phase I: results in continuous depolarization at the NMJ resulting in muscle fasciculations, no antidote and cholinesterase inhibitors will only potentiate the block
  • Phase II: the receptor is then desensitized and will no longer transmit an action potetion- can be reversed with a cholinesterase inhibitor
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91
Q

Succinylcholine + ? = Malignant hyperthermia, tx?

A

Halothane!

tx: dantrolene

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92
Q

Pancuronium (and all of the curoniums)

A
  • copmetatvely binds to nicotinic receptors at the NMJ
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93
Q

How can you reverse the effects of pancuronium?

A

neostigmine

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94
Q

Which local anesthetics are the esters and which ones are the amides?

A

Esters: procaine, cocaine, teracaine, benzocaine
Amides: bupivacaine and lidocaine (have two i’s in them)
- esters tend to have a shorter duration of action than amides

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95
Q

MOA of local anesthetics?

A

Block the Na channels on neuronal cell membranes

96
Q

What are usually given with local anesthetics?

A
  • vasoconstrictors like epinephrine
97
Q

Halothane + fluranes = MOA?

A
  • not sure, maybe directly activate GABAa receptors throughout the brain thereby leading to decreased neuronal activity
98
Q

Propofol

A

General IV anesthetic

- causes chemical pancreatitis

99
Q

Etomidate

A

General IV anesthetic

- acts to prolong the activity at teh GABAa receptor

100
Q

which IV anesthetic agent can cause adrenal suppression?

A

Etomidate

101
Q

Ketamine

A
  • IV anesthetic

- acts as an NMDA receptor antagonist decreasing neuronal cell conduction

102
Q

Which IV anesthetic agent can cause hallucinations?

A

Ketamine

103
Q

which antiepileptic can cause a rare but fatal hepatotoxicity?

A

valproic acid

104
Q

Which epilepsy drugs can cause SJS?

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Ethosuximide
  3. Phenytoin
  4. Lamotrigine
105
Q

What is the mu opioid receptor responsible for?

A

physical dependence

  • euphoria
  • Resp and CV depression
  • Constipation
  • Sedation
106
Q

What is the kappa opioid receptor responsible for?

A
  • miosis
  • dysphoria
  • sedation
107
Q

What is the delta opioid receptor responsible for?

A

antidepressant effects

108
Q

Dextromethorphan

A

opioid

109
Q

Which opioids are used for pain control?

A
  1. Morphine
  2. Fentanyl
  3. Codeine
110
Q

Which opioids are used as cough suppression?

A
  1. Codeine
  2. Dextromethorphan
    (suppress cough reflex in the brainstem)
111
Q

Which opioids are used for diarrhea?

A

Diphenoxylate (analog of meperidine, decreases smooth muscle motility in the gut)

112
Q

Which opioids are used for acute pulmonary edema?

A

Morphine- acts to reduce anxiety and cardiac preload

113
Q

What are the side effects of oioids?

A
  • Cardiac and resp depression
  • constipation
  • miosis
114
Q

Enzyme that converts levodopa to dopamine?

A

DOPA decarboxylase

115
Q

Bromocriptine

A
  • partial DA receptor agonist, used in adjunct tx of parkinsonism and hyperprolactinemia
116
Q

What are the anti-parkinsonism agents?

A
  1. Levodopa/carbidopa
  2. Dopamine agonists: amantadine
  3. MAO type B inhibitors: selegiline
117
Q

Sumatriptan and other triptans: MOA

A

stimulate the presynaptic 5-HT1d receptors, inhibtion of vasodilation and inflammation fo the dura

118
Q

Sumatriptan: uses

A

acute treatment of migraines and cluster headaches

119
Q

Sumatriptan: side effects

A

coronary vasospasm with resulting chest apin

120
Q

Buspirone

A
  • acts as a 5-HT1A presynaptic receptor aprtial agonist

- generalized anxiety disorder

121
Q

Gabapentin

A
  • GABA analogue

- postherpetic neuralgia, partial seizures

122
Q

Tx of postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Gabapentin

123
Q

Pregabalin

A
  • binds to Ca ion channels in the CNS decreasing glutamate and NE release
  • used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia
124
Q

Tx of choice for Wolf Parkinson white?

A

Class IA antiarrythmics

125
Q

What arrythmias do the Class IA tx?

A

A fibb and V tach

126
Q

What arrythmias do the IB tx?

A

Ventricular arrythmias: ventricular fibrillation and v tach

127
Q

What two antibiotics can cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A
  1. Ampicillin/amoxicillin

2. Clindamycin

128
Q

What organisms are not covered by cephalosporins?

A

LAME: listeria, atypicals, MRSA, and Enterococci

129
Q

Anastrazole

A

aromatase inhibitor, suppressing estrogen to postmenopausal levels- use in breast cancer

130
Q

Edemestane

A

aromatase inhibitor, suppressing estrogen to postmenopausal levels- use in breast cancer

131
Q

Letrozole

A

aromatase inhibitor, suppressing estrogen to postmenopausal levels- use in breast cancer

132
Q

Danazol

A

synthetic androgen that acts as partial agonist at androgen receptors
used for endometriosis and hereditary angioedema
- weight gain, edema, acne, hirsutism, masculinization, decreased HDL levels

133
Q

Bevacizumab

A

human mab

interferes with VEGF receptor activation, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis, used in vascular tumors

134
Q

Alemtuzumab

A
  • antiCD52
  • used for CLL
  • it initiates direct cytotoxic effect through complement fixation and ADCC
135
Q

Cyproheptadine

A

first generation histamine antagonist with nonspecific 5-HT1 and 5-HT2 receptor antaonistic properties
- use in SSRI overdose

136
Q

Cimetidine

A

H2 blocker

137
Q

Ranitidine

A

H2 blocker

138
Q

Famotidine

A

H2 blocker

139
Q

Nizatidine

A

H2 blocker

140
Q

H2 blockers: MOA, use, tox

A

MOAL reversible block of histamine H2 receptors

use: PUD, gastritis
tox: cimetidine = p450 inhibitor, gynecomastia, impotence, can cross BBB and placenta

141
Q

Which H2 blockers decrease the renal excretion of creatinine?

A

Cimetidine and Ranitidine

142
Q

What are side effects of PPIs?

A
  • C diff infection

- hip fractures due to decreased serum Mg with long term use

143
Q

Bismuth

A
  • binds t ulcer base, providing physical protection to gastric ulcers and allowing HCO3 secretion
  • requires an acidic envirnoment
144
Q

Sucralfate

A
  • binds t ulcer base, providing physical protection to gastric ulcers and allowing HCO3 secretion
  • requires an acidic envirnoment
145
Q

Misoprotol: MOA and uses

A
  • PGE1 analog, increases production of gastric mucosal barrier and decreased acid production
  • prevention of NSAID induced ulcer
  • maintenance of PDA
  • induces labor
146
Q

Octreotide: uses

A

somatostatin analog

use: acute variceal bleeds, acromegaly, VIPoma, carcinoid tumor

147
Q

What side effect can all antacids cause?

A

hypokalemia

148
Q

Infliximab: MOA, use and side effect

A

monoclonal antibody to TNFalpha

use: crohns disease, UC, RA
tox: reactivation of latent TB

149
Q

Sulfasalazine: MOA use and tox

A

MOA: antibacterial and anti-inflammatory
use: UC and crohns
Tox: reversible oligospermia, sulfonamide tox

150
Q

Ondansetron: MOA, use

A

MOA: 5-HT3 antagonist, central acting anti-emetic
Use: vomiting

151
Q

Metoclopramide: MOA, use, tox

A

MOA: D2 receptor antagonist, increases tone, contractility and motility of bowel
Use: diabetic and post surgery gastroparesis, antiemetic
tox: increased parkinsonian effects
- interaction with digoxin and diabetic agents

152
Q

What pt population is contraindicated w Metoclopramide?

A
  1. Small bowel obstruction

2. Parkinsons disease

153
Q

Ursodiol

A

treatment for Primary biliary cirrhosis

- decreases liver synthesis of cholesterol and intestinal absorption of cholesterol

154
Q

What are the short acting insulins?

A
  1. Lispro
  2. Aspart
  3. Glulisine
155
Q

What are the long acting insulins?

A
  1. Glargine

2. Determir

156
Q

What are the first generation sulfonylureas?

A
  1. Tolbutamide

2. Chlorpropamide

157
Q

What are the second generation Sulfonylurease?

A
  1. Glyburide
  2. Glimepriride
  3. Glipizide
158
Q

Tolbutamide

A

First generation sulfonylurea

- can cause a disulfuram like reaction

159
Q

Chlorpropamide

A

First generation sulfonylurea

- can cause a disulfuram like reaction

160
Q

Glyburide

A

Second generation sulfonylurea

- can cause hypoglycemia

161
Q

Glimepiride

A

Second generation sulfonylurea

- can cause hypoglycemia

162
Q

Glipizide

A

Second generation sulfonylurea

- can cause hypoglycemia

163
Q

MOA of the sulfonylureas

A
  • close K channel in B cell membrane, cell depolarizes causes insulin release via Ca2+ influx
164
Q

Glitazones: MOA, toxicity

A

MOA> increases insulin sensitivity by binding to PPAR-y, increasing GLUT4 transporters
tox: weight gain, edema, hepatotoxicity and heart failure

165
Q

What levels increase with Glitazones?

A

adiponectin!!

166
Q

Acarbose

A
  • inhibits intestinal brush border alpha glucosidases
  • delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose absorption
  • decreases postprandial hyperglycemia
167
Q

Miglitol

A
  • inhibits intestinal brush border alpha glucosidases
  • delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose absorption
  • decreases postprandial hyperglycemia
168
Q

Exenatide

A

GLP-1 analog, increases insulin and decreases glucagon release

169
Q

Liraglutide

A

GLP-1 analog, increases insulin and decreases glucagon release

170
Q

Propylthiouracil: MOA, use and tox

A

MOA: blocks peroxidase, inhibitiong the organification of iodide
- bocks 5’deiodinase which decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Use: hyperthyroidism
Tox: skin rash, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, hepatotoxicity

171
Q

Methimazole: MOA, use and tox

A

MOA: blocks peroxidase, inhibitiong the organification of iodide
Use: hyperthyroidism
Tox: skin rash, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, teratogen

172
Q

Levothyroxine

A

MOA: thyroxine replacement

  • hypothyroidism, myxedema
    tox: arrhythmias, tremors
173
Q

Triiodothyronin

A

MOA: thyroxine replacement

  • hypothyroidism, myxedema
    tox: arrhythmias, tremors
174
Q

Demeclocycline: MOA, use, tox

A

MOA: ADH antagonist
use: SIADH
Tox: Nephrogenic DI, photosensitivity, abnormal teeth and bone (member of tetracycline family)

175
Q

What are the two long acting glucocorticoids?

A

Dexamethasone and Beclomethasone

176
Q

Dexamethasone

A

glucocorticoid: decreases the production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

177
Q

Beclomethasone

A

glucocorticoid: decreases the production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

178
Q

Traimcinolone

A

glucocorticoid: decreases the production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

179
Q

Cyclosporine: MOA, use, tox

A

MOA: binds to cyclophilins blocking the activation fo T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus prevents the production of IL-2
Use: suppresses organ rejection after transplantation
tox: nephrotoxicity, htn, hyperlipidemia, tremor, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

180
Q

Tacrolimus: MOA, use, tox

A

MOA: binds to FK binding protein inhibiting calcineurin and secretion of IL-2

use: post immunosupp in organ transplant
tox: same as cyclosporine but no gingival hyperplasia

181
Q

Sirolimus: MOA, use tox

A

MOA: inhibits mTOR which inhibits T cell proliferation in response to IL-2
Use: used in kidney transplantation
Tox: hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia

182
Q

Azathioprine: MOA, use and tox

A

MOA: antimetbolite precusor of 6-MP that interfferes with metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acids, thus toxic to proliferating lymphocytes
Use: kidney transplant and autoimmune disorders
Tox: bone marrow suppression, metablized by xanthine oxidase so toxic if given with allopurinol

183
Q

Muromonab: MOA, use and tox

A

MOA: mab that binds CD3 on the surface of T cells, blocks cellular interation responsible for signal tranduction for T cells
use: kidney transplant
Tox: cytokine release syndrome

184
Q

Thalidomide

A

anti-angiogenic, decreases TNF-alpha

causes absent limbs

185
Q

Use of alpha interferon?

A

Hepatitis B and C, kaposis sacoma, malignant melanoma

186
Q

Use of Beta interferon?

A

multiple sclerosis

187
Q

Use of gamma interferon?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease and IL-12 receptor deficiecny

188
Q

Use of Aldesleukin?

A

recombinant IL-2

Use: renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma

189
Q

Filgrastim

A

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor: used to recover bone marrow after chemo

190
Q

Sargramostim

A

Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor

used to recover bone marrow after chemo

191
Q

Omalizumab

A

Antibody to IgE

- used to treat severe asthma

192
Q

Enoxaparin

A

LMW heparin, acts more on factor Xa

193
Q

Dalteparin

A

LMW heparin, acts more on factor Xa

194
Q

how does heparin lead to increased clearance of TGs?

A

it releases endothelium bound lipases which encourages the clearance of TGs

195
Q

HIT?

A

IgG antibodies against heparin bound to platelet factor 4, this complex activates platelets > thrombosis and thrombocytopenia

196
Q

Lepirudin

A

inhibits thrombin, used as an alternative to heparin for anticoagulating patients with HIT

197
Q

Agatroban

A

inhibits thrombin, used as an alternative to heparin for anticoagulating patients with HIT

198
Q

Bivalirudin

A

inhibits thrombin, used as an alternative to heparin for anticoagulating patients with HIT

199
Q

tx of heparin overdose?

A

protamine sulfate

200
Q

tx of choice for severe pulmonary embolism?

A

thrombolytics: alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase

201
Q

Tx of thrombolytic overdose?

A

Aminocaproic acid

202
Q

how does aspirin inhibit cox?

A

irreversibly by covalent acetylation

203
Q

MOA of thrombolytics

A

Alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase

- directly aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots

204
Q

first sign of ASA overdose?

A

tinnitus

205
Q

pH changes in ASA overdose?

A

resp alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

206
Q

Clopidogrel

A

inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversible blocking ADP receptors
- prevents glycoprotein IIb/IIIa from binding to fibrinogen

207
Q

Ticlopidine

A

Copyright (c) USMLEWorld, LLC., Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

208
Q

Prasugrel

A

Copyright (c) USMLEWorld, LLC., Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

209
Q

Ticagrelor

A

Copyright (c) USMLEWorld, LLC., Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

210
Q

Cilostazol

A

phosphodiesterase III inhibitor, increasing cAMP in platelets, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation and causing vasodilation

211
Q

Dipyidamole

A

Copyright (c) USMLEWorld, LLC., Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

212
Q

Use of Cilostazol and dipyridamole

A

Intermittent claudication/PAD
coronary vasodilation
- prevention of stroke or TIA
- angina prophylaxis

213
Q

What are the GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors?

A

Abciximab
Eptifibatide
Tirofiban

214
Q

What drugs cause torsades?

A 
Prolong the QT interval:
Class IA antiarrhyth
Class III antiarrhyth
Macrolides
Haloperidol
Chloroquine
Protease inhibitors
215
Q

Tx of choice for torsades?

A

push IV magnesium

216
Q

What drug classes have high efficacy?

A
  1. Analgesics
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Antihistamines
  4. Decongestants
217
Q

What drug classes have a high potency?

A
  1. Chemotherapeutic
  2. Antihypertensive
  3. Antilipid
218
Q

nicotinic receptors are ___ channels, muscarinic are what?

A 
Nicotinic = ligand gated Na/K channels
Muscarinic = G protein coupled receptors
219
Q

Donepezil

A

anticholinesterase- increases ACh

used in Alzheimers disease

220
Q

Galantamine

A

anticholinesterase- increases ACh

used in Alzheimers disease

221
Q

Rivastigmine

A

anticholinesterase- increases ACh

used in Alzheimers disease

222
Q

tropicamide

A

antimuscarinic used to produce mydriasis

223
Q

benztropine

A

antimuscarinic used in parkinsons disease

224
Q

ipratropium

A

antimuscarinic used in COPD and asthma

225
Q

tioptropium

A

antimuscarinic used in COPD and asthma

226
Q

oxybutynin

A

antimuscarinic used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms

227
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

antimuscarinic used preoperatively to reduce airway secretions

228
Q

what do you use to tx torsages?

A

isoproterenol, because it decreases the QT interval via stimulating both B1 and B2 receptors

229
Q

Phenylephrine

A

alpha1 and alph2 agonist, used for hypotension, ocular procedures and as a decongestant

230
Q

Ritodrine

A

Beta 2 agonist

used to reduce premature uterine contractions, delays labor

231
Q

why should you never give someone OD on cocaine a beta blocker?

A

leaves alpha unopposed- leading to generalized vasoconstriction

232
Q

what are the two alpha 2 agonists?

A

Clonidine
Alpha-methyldopa
- use in htn esp with renal disease (doesnt decrease blood flow to the kidney)

233
Q

which drugs cause a first dose orthostatic hypotension?

A

alpha 1 antagonists: tamsulosin, prazosin, doxazosin

234
Q

When do you use phentolamine?

A

give to patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine containing foods

235
Q

Mirtazapine

A

alpha 2 selective blocker

used for depression

236
Q

what are the partial beta agonists?

A

pindolol and acebutolol

PAPA

237
Q

what beta blocker do you use in esophageal varices?

A

Nadolol

Pharmacology (2 decks)

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