Q2 Flashcards
Question 16:
You have been designated the “Roof Sector Supervisor” at a top floor building fire. Upon supervising roof operations, you discover several colored pipes installed near the periphery of the rooftop that might interfere with roof operations. As an Officer/supervisor you should know what the color of what each pipe indicates. Choose the incorrect color piping.
A: Red color piping indicates high voltage wiring
B: Orange color piping indicates low voltage wiring
C: Yellow with black stripes color piping indicates fuel oil
D: Green, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas, color piping indicates other compressed gases
Explanation:
D-Yellow, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas color piping indicates other compressed gases
FYI…Yellow color piping indicates natural gas …
BISP ch 5 ref 7.1 sec 3.5
Not an in-basket question…This is a tactical question, and it is fairly new material…Know all five of these.
Remember, in the Toyota RAV 4 (Safety Bulletin 86) the high voltage wiring is wrapped in orange-colored harnesses
Question 28:
For the first arriving units at an incident involving a disabled train in an under river rail tube, the acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up. Which choice best defines the acronym “LIVES”
A: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
B: Life, Imminent threat, Ventilation, Egress, Structure stability
C: Life, Incident information, Victims, Evacuation, Structure Stability
D: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Sound-powered phones
A
Under river rails 3.2
Which choice contains incorrect information regarding Rear Tenements?
A: Usually it is necessary to go through the front building in order to get to the rear building.
B: These rear tenements are small in area, may be of frame or non-fireproof construction, and may range from two to five stories.
C: The distance between the front building and the rear building varies, but is somewhere between 25 to 35 feet usually.
D: Due to the limited access to these buildings, it is difficult to make use of outside streams. The feasibility of operating outside streams from front building windows into a vacant, rear tenement should be explored.
Explanation:
C. The distance between the front building and the rear building varies, but is somewhere between 10 to 25 feet usually.
The rear buildings are frequently not visible from the street. This may result in a delay in discovery of fire in a rear tenement, especially at night.
MD 4.8.8
All CFR-D equipment shall be inspected during Roll Call. Which of the following statements is correct concerning CFR-D equipment?
A: CFR-D companies shall not keep suction units on a constant charge as this will deplete the life of the battery
B: A Defibrillator that displays a flashing black hourglass in the upper left hand corner is operational and ready for use
C: A Defibrillator that displays a flashing or solid red X and/or emits a chirping sound indicates that the defibrillator is not ready for use and should be exchanged at the CFR-D Depot
D: Expired pads are not to be used. Officers on duty in any unit with expired electrodes (Pads) shall notify Tech Services for replacement
C
Explanation:
A. Keep suction units on constant charge through a connection to the apparatus electrical system 1.8
B. Right hand corner 1.9
C. 1.9.1
D. Any expired pads are to be exchanged at the CFR-D Depot. Depot Officers shall notify Tech Services for replacement 2.2.2
Question 39:
As the first arriving officer at a structural building collapse, you might be tasked with describing the type of collapse that occurred to the I.C. From the list below, choose the correct type of collapse.
A: Lean-over collapse is a collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward onto the street. Wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse this way
B: Inward/Outward collapse is when an exterior masonry wall drops like a falling curtain cut loose at the top; the collapse of a brick veneer, brick cavity or masonry-backed stone wall
C: Lean-To collapse is a type of wood-frame building collapse indicated by the structure slowly starting to tilt or lean over to one side
D: Tent-floor collapse is when a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor
Explanation:
Collapse add 3
A- Inward/Outward collapse
B- Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse
C- Lean-over collapse
FYI….. An Inward/Outward collapse is the collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward on to the street
Know the difference between Lean-over collapse and Lean-To collapse….can be confusing on test day
Which choice contains incorrect information regarding Old Law Tenements that have been converted to Single Room Occupancies (SROs)?
A: The layout of the rooms must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person’s room.
B: These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the street.
C: The sprinkler system must have a Siamese to be supplied by the Fire Department.
D: These SRO’s require an interior alarm system to warn the occupants of fire. Exit lights and signs must be provided.
Explanation:
C. The sprinkler system CANNOT be supplied by the Fire Department.
MD 4.8.4 D-F
During an under river rail operation for a disabled train, the first arriving units are tasked with several initial actions that should be accomplished. All of the following are considered initial actions except?
A: Assist/guide non-ambulatory persons to a safe location
B: Assist self-evacuating passengers
C: Units assigned to stations should check nearby tunnels for victims
D: Inform dispatcher which emergency exit you opened. If passengers are self-evacuating, request power-off on the affected track(s)
Explanation:
Under River Rail Operations 3.3
A. Ambulatory persons
D. Consult the Emergency Exit Guide Book or Operational Guide to verify that operations are being conducted at the correct emergency exit.
Remember in AUC 207 sec 5.1 Engine company chauffeurs should not hook up until the location of the fire is determined
You are the 1st arriving officer at a top floor row frame fire that has extended into the cockloft. You would be most correct to?
A: Call for an additional engine and ladder.
B: Consider the need for a 2nd alarm.
C: Transmit a 2nd alarm
D: Consider transmitting a 3rd alarm.
Explanation:
Row Frames sect 7.6
A. When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.
B. When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.
C. When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation
D. Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.
Fire in row frame structures can expand rapidly if not quickly contained. These buildings can be considered large rectangular boxes of dry lumber, capable of generating large amounts of heat when burning. Which statement regarding their construction is incorrect?
A: All exterior is wood, or a veneer over outer wood sheathing.
B: These buildings can be either platform, balloon or braced frame construction.
C: The cockloft may vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.
D: The division walls between buildings are quite frequently no more than the equivalent of a partition wall with nogging present, which presents limited hindrance to fire.
Explanation: Row Frames A. sect 5.2.1.B B. sect 5.1.3 These buildings can be either balloon frame or braced frame construction. C. sect 5.2.2 D, sect 5.2.3
Members operating on CRF-D runs should protect themselves by using proper BSI. Which of the following bodily fluids is considered to be potentially infectious for bloodborne pathogens?
A: Vaginal secretions
B: Nasal secretions
C: Feces
D: Vomit
Explanation:
CFR_D Manual Ch 3 Infection control program
A. 7.2
Note: The following bodily fluids are not considered at risk of transmitting bloodborne diseases unless contaminated with blood; however they do transmit other diseases and should be avoided:
saliva, nasal secretions, urine, sweat, feces, tears, vomit
7.3
The Emergency Alert Button, when activated, immediately transmits a distinctive tone on the selected channel. A second “Emergency Alert Tone” will be transmitted automatically 10 seconds after the initial tone if the following conditions are present except?
A: The firefighter who activated the emergency alert button has not pressed the radio or remote microphone push-to-talk button within 5 seconds
B: There is no activity on the channel at the instant that the radio attempts to send the second tone
C: If the channel is busy the radio will postpone the attempt until there is no activity on the channel
D: The firefighter who initiated the emergency has not reset the Emergency Alert Button
Explanation:
Comm ch 11 sec 2.7.3
A- 10 seconds
Members quizzing each other on numbers knew that all CFR-D Companies are to carry a minimum of how many blankets on the apparatus at all times?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 4 Equipment
B. CFR-D blankets are white with FDNY printed on them in blue letters. 2.6.3
Note: CFR-D Depot Officers shall ensure that a minimum of 25 blankets is maintained at all times. CFR-D Companies shall have a minimum of six blankets in their CFR-D stock. 2.6.3 C
Question 15:
Fire extension throughout H-type MDs is of great concern. Which choice below contains correct information regarding construction features meant to minimize the potential for extension?
A: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the top of the roof boards.
B: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the underside of the roof boards.
C: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the underside of the roof boards.
D: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.
D. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread. Acronym: CUT C - ceiling - before 1930 U - underside roof boards - 1930-1940 T - top roof boards - after 1940 MD 2.4
At a collapse operation, Engine Companies have several responsibilities. These responsibilities include: 1) Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris 2) Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse and 3) Protect exposures. List these responsibilities in priority order.
A: 1,2,3,
B: 3,1,2,
C: 1,3,2,
D: 3,2,1
C
Explanation:
Collapse Operations 7.1.1
Read this section carefully
Company officers are responsible for several duties when operating at an emergency, fire, or at quarters. Choose the incorrect responsibility.
A: Officers on duty shall, immediately after each roll call, prepare a Riding List (EBF-4) in duplicate, listing all members on duty
B: Officers on duty shall see that the fire zone in front of quarters is maintained clear of vehicles or other obstructions and notify the Police Department of any unusual traffic condition which may interfere with response of the apparatus
C: Officers on duty shall, at each roll call, designate the housewatchman to be responsible for the proper opening of the apparatus doors
D: Officers on duty shall be equally responsible with the housewatchmen for the proper receipt of alarms and the response of apparatus to correct locations
Explanation:
A member other than the housewatchman
Regs ch 11
Which of the following is incorrect in reference to filling out a PCR?
A: If unable to obtain a male patient’s name, “Unknown Male” shall be recorded.
B: The patient’s age need not be entered if the date of birth is documented.
C: Enter the patient’s nine digit social security number if known. If unobtainable, leave this section blank.
D: Fill in “0167” for FDNY agency code.
Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 5 Documentation
A. Note: This area shall never be blank and “Jane/John Doe” shall not be used. 4.4.1 B
B. The patient’s age must be entered even if the date of birth is documented 4.4.7
C. 4.4.10
D. 4.1.3
Ladder 765 primarily operates in a private dwelling area. While conducting a drill on entering the room from a window in a PD for search and rescue, you made the following statements. Which should be corrected?
A: Members should make a quick check/sweep of the floor in the hall outside the door for any victims before closing the door.
B: The completely removed window will adequately vent the room and the possibility of pulling fire toward the vented room will have been negated by the closed door.
C: When the search of the room has been completed, the door shall be kept closed until the main body of fire has been knocked down.
D: Ventilation for Search is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic performed to facilitate the movement of a firefighter into an area to conduct a search for victims.
Explanation: PD Ch 4-Ladder Company Ops A. sect 2.1 B. sect 2.1 C. sect 2.2 - When the search of the room has been completed, the door shall be kept closed until the main body of fire has been extinguished. D. sect 1.1.2
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the duties of the CPC Unit Officer?
A: On arrival at a Haz-Mat incident the CPC Unit Officer shall report to the Incident Commander for a briefing.
B: The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will recommend to the IC the ENTRY POINT into the Hot Zone (based on their training, initial briefing and size-up).
C: The Incident Commander will establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area remote from the entry point.
D: CPC Unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated team effort by at least five (5) CPC trained members: Entry (2), Backup (2), and Decon (1), under the proper supervision.
Explanation:
C. The CPC Unit Officer will establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point.
HM 5 4.1, 5.1
Which of the following patients would be considered “potentially unstable” according to the CUPS criteria in the CFR-D bulletin?
A: Inability to move any part of the body
B: Poor general impression
C: Responsive but unable to follow commands
D: Difficulty breathing
A Explanation: CFR-D Manual Chapter 2 A. 3.1.4 CUPS Criteria B. Unstable C. Unstable D. Unstable
Members of a FAST Unit would be correct to know that, for a member in distress, the HT beacon tone takes priority over received audio. The HT that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals, every?
A: 2 seconds
B: 4 seconds
C: 10 seconds
D: 30 seconds
Explanation:
B
MMID Ch 4 6.4
Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes. There will be a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Which of the following would be correct regarding these buildings and the control valves?
A: Con Edison is the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B: Members may never shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C: At a HELB in a building, it is mandatory that units immediately enter the affected area for search and rescue.
D: Monitor for the presence of radiological contaminants at a ruptured steam incident.
Explanation:
Steam
A. sect 1.2 - Con Edison is NOT the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B. sect 4.4 - In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C. sect 4.4 - The high heat may make it impossible to enter the affected area for search and rescue until the steam is shut and the area vented.
D. sect 5
Which choice below contains incorrect information in the case of units responding to, or operating at, an incident that develops into a situation where a patient has been exposed to an unknown substance?
A: Proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) shall be worn at all times when dealing with patients.
B: When the patient reports that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing, ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, if possible, and provide the patient with a disposable garment or sheet.
C: When required, bag the patient’s clothing in a clear, plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.
D: Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Only patients who are deemed Critical should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
Explanation:
D. Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Patients who are Critical or Unstable should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
HM 16 2.2
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Flammability is indicated by a red diamond. Which of the following numbers indicate a flash point above 100 degrees F but not exceeding 200 degrees F ?
A: 4
B: 3
C: 2
D: 1
Explanation: ERP Section 21, NFPA Diamond Flammability Hazard or Red Section 4 Flash point below 73 degrees F 3 Flash point below 100 degrees F 2 Flash point above 100 degrees F, not exceeding 200 degrees F 1 Above 200 degrees F 0 Will not burn * They went to the NFPA Diamond on the 2009 Lt test
