Q/A Flashcards
1
Q
Why does throglossal fistula develop?
A
Due to incomplete cyst removal
2
Q
In which condition is a prophylactic thyroidectomy indicated?
A
Medullary Carcinoma
3
Q
Which condition is associated with sardonic grin?
A
Tetanus
4
Q
Which nerves supply mucosa of larynx?
A
Internal laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal
5
Q
Which vertebrae does the larynx extend to and from?
A
C3-C6
6
Q
Which part of the mandibular is the temporomandibular ligament attached to?
A
Lateral aspect of the tmj
7
Q
Which substance is not given in bleeding cases in hemophiliac patients?
A
Platelet factor
8
Q
Half-life of TGF-ß
A
3-5 mins
9
Q
Haptoglobin Levels in hemolytic anemia are?
A
Decreased
10
Q
What is the only oncogenic retrovirus?
A
HTLV1
11
Q
Which nerves are involved in swallowing?
A
Trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus
12
Q
Which hormone best used to evaluate ovulation during menstrual cycle?
A
Progesterone
13
Q
Drug of choice for prophylaxis during deep vein thrombosis?
A
Low molecular weight heparin
14
Q
Drug of choice for patients suffering from nephrotic syndrome or glomerulonephritis
A
Corticosteroids such as prednisolone
15
Q
Which group of anesthetic cannot be given to patients suffering from poor liver function?
A
Amides
16
Q
How big is inorganic component percentage of bone?
A
65%
17
Q
Which is the only larynx muscle to be situated outside of the larynx?
A
Cricothyroid
18
Q
Which muscle is responsible for tensing and lengthening of vocal chords?
A
Cricothyroid
19
Q
Which type of antagonism is present between acetylcholine and atropine?
A
Competitive
20
Q
A patient who shows yellow sclera, dark colored urine and clay colored stool after a blood transfusion is an example of which kind of jaundice?
A
Obstructive jaundice
21
Q
Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis is rich in mitochondria?
A
Pyruvate carboxylase
22
Q
Propionyl Co A is formed by beta oxidation of
A
Odd chain fatty acid
23
Q
Behavior of auriculotemporal nerve on the sweat glands and parotid glands
A
Sweat glands: sympathetic
Parotid: parasympathetic
24
Q
Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood back to placenta
A
Umbilical artery
25
Which nerve causes gag reflex
9th
26
Which vitamin is especially given to improve nervous system function?
B6
27
Which type does the denar articulator belong to?
4
28
How many episodes of apnoea per hour to be recognized as severe?
>30/hour
29
Effect of high calcium and magnesium in tap water on alginate setting time
Acceleration of setting time
30
When is the best time of dentition to modify growth?
Late mixed dentition
31
Which acute infection is represented by the symptoms of pseudomembrane on tonsils and gland enlargement?
Diptheria
32
Space between implant and teeth
1.5 mm
33
Space between adjacent implants
3 mm
34
Loss off color in self cure resins is due to what?
Oxidation of amines
35
Which bioceramic is resorbable?
Calcium phosphate
36
Verruca vulgaris is caused by which microorganism?
HPV
37
Half life of methyl methacrylate in blood
24 mins
38
Half life of methyl methacrylate in blood
24 mins
39
To be well visualized by scintigraphy, tumor size must be larger than
5 mm
40
Treatment of intruded tooth
< 3mm allow tooth to reerupt
>7mm surgical repositioning + splinting 4-8 weeks + endo
41
Indication for open, mesh and bead constructions
Open: multiple teeth
Mesh: multiple teeth, but open preferred
Bead: short, tooth supported constructions
42
What type of TMJ issue is managed by Leclerc procedure?
Dislocation
43
Ideal crown height space for fixed implant prosthesis
8-12 mm
44
In gypsum bonded investments, pickling is done using
50% HCl
45
When was ICDAS established?
2002
46
Which bodies are usually found along infected extracted tooth?
Russell bodies
47
A tumor occurring mostly in females between the maxillary lateral incisor and canine
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
48
How long before procedure should custom tray fabricated with PMMA be made?
8 hours
49
Respiratory distress after thyroidectomy is due to which nerve damage?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
50
In which part of an implant are microthreads placed?
Collar
51
At which factor 8 concentration can surgery be performed on a hemophilic patient?
50-100%
52
Growth of teeth except for last molar are complete by which age?
17
53
When does enamel completion take place in primary cuspid?
9 months after birth
54
Water content in enamel by volume
6-7%
55
Which cephalosporin is not active against pseudomonas?
Cefaclor
56
Which cephalosporin is active against pseudomonas?
Cefoperazone
57
What does cyclosporine inhibit?
Interleukin-6
58
Which nucleus controls salivation of parotid gland?
Inferior salivatory nucleus
59
Safest site for intramuscular injection in children
Vastus lateralis
60
Candida infection in HIV patient resistent to fluconazole is given
Amphotericin B
61
Skin wound strength after 3 weeks compared to normal
20%
62
Vomiting center is found in which part of the brain
Medulla
63
Most accurate non invasive test for gastric cancer
Urea breath test
64
At what age intrauterine does TMJ development occur
10 weeks
65
Gonial angle at birth
145
66
% of free monomer in heat cured acrylic resin is
0.2-0.5%
67
Angle of gingival bevel in class 2 preparation
35 degrees
68
How many champy’s osteosynthesis lines exist behind and in front of the mental foramen?
2 ahead, 1 behind
69
Time required for Progression of incipient to cavitated caries on smooth surface?
18 months
70
Checkpoint for stability of fixation of ZMC fracture
Zygomaticomaxillary buttress
71
Time between curing and finishing of composite restoration
15 minutes
72
Which vitamin deficiency is present amongst alcoholics?
B1
73
Which anticoagulant is taken when blood sample is taken for glucose analysis?
Fluoride
74
Kilian’s Dehiscence is present in which structure?
Laryngopharynx
75
What does unilateral paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve lead to?
Hoarseness of voice
76
Enamel hypocalcification and tooth hypomaturation is seen in which condition?
Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
77
Role of Palladium in addition sillicone?
Increase surface details in gypsum
78
Distance between maxillary major connector and gingival margin
6 mm
79
What does a full set mouth radiograph consist of?
17 periapicals and 4 Bitewings
80
Brushing technique in orthodontic patients
Charters’ method
81
What kind of suture for wounds with different depths and irregular margins?
Vertical mattress
82
Minimum length of abutment for screw retained prosthesis and for cement retained prosthesis
Screw: 4 mm
Cement: 5 mm
83
Chance of recurrence of multicystic ameloblastoma after enucleation
<50%
84
What kind of material is osseoquest?
Resorbable & synthethic
85
For which density of bone is bone tapping necessary before implant placement?
D1
86
Which organ produces albumin?
Liver
87
How deep is the initial pilot drill for implant placement?
2 mm
88
Representation of orthodontic arch form mathematically is done by which curve?
Catenary
89
Fluoride quantity in breast milk
5-10
90
Width of connective tissue around implant
1-2 mm
91
Hand torque required for placing implant
20-30 N/cm^2
92
Where is the schatzki ring situated?
Lower oesophagus
93
In which condition would one find gottron papules?
Dermatomyositis
94
Which RNA type floats freely in cytoplasm?
rRNA
95
Oral foci of Miller’s are histologically seen in which condition?
Dental Caries
96
Which hormones undergo changes in menopause?
Gonadotropins increase
Estrogen decrease
97
Branches of external carotid artery
Superior thyroid
Ascending pharyngeal
Lingual
Facial
Occipital
Maxillary
Posterior Auricular
Superficial temporal
98
Ameloblastoma histologically resembles which other condition?
BCC
99
Which microorganism shows positive catalase test?
Staph
100
What is Willis’ guide?
Distance b/w eye and mouth corner = Distance b/w nasal spine and mandible border
101
What is Niswonger’s method?
Vertical dimension at rest (Dimension at occlusion + Freeway space)
102
Antidote for poisoning caused by anticholinergs, such as insectide
Atropine
103
Which impression technique is used in archs with flabby tissue?
Polyvinylsiloxane in window technique
104
Where is the foramen/canal of scarpa found?
Maxilla
105
According to WHO, what % of sugar should be restricted to in an adult diet?
5-10%
106
When do taste buds appear during pregnancy?
10th week IU
107
When does complementary feeding in infants begin?
At 6 months
108
Which histological tooth tissue shows high levels of albumin?
Stellate reticulum
109
First evidence of calcification of permanent teeth IU
14th week
110
How long after root completion in primary tooth does the root start to resorb?
3 years (Anteriors = immediate)
111
Calcified dentinal tubule wall has an inner lining termed as
Lamina limitans
112
Thin delicate membrane covering the entire crown of newly erupted tooth is
Nasmyth's membrane
113
Which type of capillaries is responsible for the transfer of metabolites in pulp?
Fenestrated capillaries
114
Which enzyme is seen in stratum intermedium?
Alkaline phosphatase
115
Where is aminopeptidase found during tooth development?
Stratum intermedium
116
How are the Tomes process in the outer enamel shaped?
Straight
117
In which kind of teeth are dead tracts usually seen in?
Old permanent teeth
118
Types of collagen fibres in pulp
I and IV
119
Principal function of pulp
Formative
120
Type of cementum when cementum overlaps enamel
Acellular afibrillar
121
Which kind of teeth show thick layer of cementum
Non-functional teeth
122
Lines of demarcation in bone remodelling is called
Reversal line
123
Which component of saliva shows antibacterial properties?
Lactoferrin
124
Which type of collagen is present in dentin?
I
125
Main crystalline component of calculus
Hydroxyappatite
126
Which periodontal fibers take up maximum masticatory forces?
Oblique fibers
127
How long after periodontal surgery does hemidesmose attachment start to occur?
1 week
128
Difference b/w clinical and radiographic alveolar crest is
0 - 1.6 mm
129
To which complex does A. actinomycetemcomitans belong to?
Green
130
Function of odland bodies?
Permeability barrier
131
What is an implant analogue used for?
Replicate implant in cast
132
Min. distance to be maintained b/w implant and mental foramen is
5 mm
133
Min. distance to be maintained b/w implant and inferior alv. nerve
2 mm
134
Minimum vertical and horizontal bone width required for implant placement
10 mm vertical, 6 mm horizontal
135
Which 2 bacteria are associated with ANUG?
Prevotella and Spirochetes
136
At which stage of gingivits are PMNs present?
Stage 1
137
What is cyclic neutropenia associated with in the mouth?
Periodontitis and bone loss
138
Inhibition of calculus formation can be done by which component of toothpaste?
Pyrophosphate
139
After how long does a CHX chip degrade?
7-10 days
140
What is merin classification used for?
Patient recall
141
Which AB is active against all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitanis?
Ciprofloxacin
142
Which kind of graft is obtained using the trapdoor technique?
Connective tissue graft
143
What do the markings on the WHO probe indicate?
3.5, 5.5, 8.5, 11.5
144
Which does of doxycycline is sub-antimicrobial? What is the recommended dose?
20 mg
Recommended: 200 mg 1st day, afterwards 100 mg.
145
Which type of suture and filament is preferred after periodontal surgery?
Vertical mattres with monofilament
146
Which bone density best matches Ti implant in E module?
D2
147
Most common trichomonas species in the mouth?
Tenax
148
Which other oral condition is desquamative gingivitis related to?
Lichen planus
149
Which condition shows hypocalcified dentin, pulp horns reaching the CEJ and absence of lamina dura?
Vitamin D resistant rickets
150
Which condition shows target-like RBCs?
Thalassemia
151
Which microorganism is most likely to form on heart valve implants?
Strep. Viridans
152
Dose for Amoxicilin for children based on weight
50 mg/kg
153
Which organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infection in health care facilities?
Klebsiella
154
Which virus causes herpangina?
Coxsackie virus
155
Which 2 microorganisms are most likely to lead to food poisoning from street food incl. diarrhoea and bloody stool?
E. coli and Shigella
156
Which microorganism causes gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
157
Which immune cells does HIV attack?
CD4 helper cells
158
Most common benign tumor in oral cavity?
Fibroma
159
Secondary syphillis occurs after how long?
6 weeks
160
Which condition refers to rootless teeth?
Dentin dysplasia
161
Treatment of choice for kawasaki disease
Immunoglobulin and Aspirin
162
Which vitamin deficiency will cause abnormal keratinization of the skin?
Vitamin A
163
Where are tuberculous ulcers most commonly situated?
Tongue
164
Which disease shows abnormal remodelling of bone?
Paget's disease
165
Which oral lesions show intra-epidermal split?
Pemphigus vulgaris
166
Reaction to cosmetic fillers in the oral cavity manifest as
Nodules
167
DD of osteogenesis imperfecta and amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis: Greying of teeth, obliteration of pulp chamber, enamel chipped
Amelogenesis: generalized thinning of enamel and yellow teeth
Dentinogenesis: Rootless teeth, pulp chamber enlarged/obliterated
168
Which cells increase in number in salivary glands with age?
Oncocytes
169
Which viral infection would cause a young boy to lose sense of hearing?
Rubella
170
What is greenspan lesion
Hairy Leukoplakia
171
Which condition shows hair-on-end appearance in skull ct?
Thalassemia
172
Drug used to treat crohn's disease
Sulfasalazine
173
Radiographic appearance of hypophosphatasia
Shell teeth
174
Max exposure for non-occupationally exposed individuals should not exceed
100 micrograys/week
175
Purpose of intensifying screen in x-rays
Reduce the dose of radiation
176
How long before radiotherapy do teeth need to be extracted?
2 weeks
177
What to do with patients who take long term steroids before extraction?
More steroids
178
Max dose of lignocaine w/o epinephrine and with
w/o: 4.4mg/kg
w: 7 mg/kg
179
Most common site of manidbular fracture
Condyle
180
Most commonly used scalpel blade in oral cavity
15
181
Angulation of needle when suturing
90 degrees
182
Clarke's technique
Labial vestibuloplasty
183
Which muscle causes medial dislocation of condyle when fractured?
Lateral pterygoid
184
Most common mandibular surgery for correcting mandibular retrognathy
Inverted L Osteotomy
185
Purpose of nitrogen in anaesthetic cartridge?
Preservation of vasoconstrictor
186
Which condition shows ground glass appearance in x-ray? Therapy?
Fibrous dysplasia
Surgical cosmetic recontouring
187
First step for management of unresponsive patient on the chair
Ammonia inhalation
188
Guerin's sign in which fracture?
Le Fort I
189
Best and short duration LA for children
Procaine
190
Which LA causes vasoconstriction?
Ropicavaine
191
Where does metastasis in oro-maxillofacial region mostly occur to?
Mandible
192
Which vasoconstrictor is specifically contraindicated in pregnant women? Why?
Felypressin
Oxytoic action
193
Which muscle can cause spreading of maxillary tooth infection to the infraorbital region?
Levator anguli oris
194
Gow gates and Akinosi Technique regions
Gow: Condyle
Akinosi: Pterygomandibular space
195
Most commonly injured branch of facial nerve during treatment of subcondylar fracture
Buccal nerve
196
Confirmation of csf leakage with which component
Beta transferrin
197
When can chyle leak occur?
Neck dissection
198
Most common complication of maxillary wisdom tooth extraction
Tuberosity fracture
199
Role of MgO in alginate
Increase strength
200
Which type of porosity is seen in case of rapid solidification of molten alloy?
Microporosity
201
What is stiffness?
Ability to resist deformation
202
Young's modulus
Stress/Strain below elastic limit
203
What is stress?
Internal resistance of body to external load
204
Which impression material is most difficult to remove w/o fracturing tooth on stone model?
Polyether
205
In which material is brush heap structure found?
Alginate
206
Most common accelerator in gypsum
Which alternative?
2% potassium sulfate
Sodium chloride
207
Which chemical inhibits polymerization of PMMA during storage?
Hydroquinone
208
What causes fins and spines in castings?
Rapid heating
209
What causes incomplete casting?
Narrow sprue
210
Which wax is used in RPD prep?
Casting wax
211
Which amalgam phase has lowest strength?
Gamma 2
212
Which amalgam phase is most corrosive?
Gamma 2
213
Main constituent of bioactive glass
Silica
214
Which ceramic is referred to as smart ceramic
Zirconia
215
How to improve casting details in polysulfide impression?
Mixing surfactant to impression material
216
Which phase change causes transformation tougening of zirconia?
Tetragonal to monoclinic
217
Content of 18:8 stainless steel
18 Cr, 8 Ni
218
Max mixing time of GIC
45 secs
219
Role of metal oxide in porcelain
Colour + Increased strength
220
When is wedge wedging technique indicated?
Concavity in proximal surface of tooth
221
Which cavity class shows highest c-factor?
Class V
222
Why longer etching time in children?
Aprismatic and wavy enamel
223
Gingival bevel in class II prep
35 degrees
224
What are burs dipped in during autoclaving?
2% sodium nitrite
225
Particle size in alumina air abrasion for non-invasive prep
50 micrometers
226
Major drawback of metal denture base for CPD
Relining is difficult
227
How is masseteric notch recorded during impression?
Patient closes against opening movement
228
Which muscle isn't present in the retromolar pad?
Masseter
229
What angle should the head be to the floor to record max depression of soft palate?
30 degrees
230
Minimum amount of tooth encirclement for proper clasp action
180 degrees
231
Why are max. posterior teeth placed buccal to alveolar ridge in CD?
To prevent ridge resorption
232
Extension of lingual flange of mandibular denture?
Beyond mylohyoid ridge and towards the tongue
233
Sequence of correction of occlusal interference
Balance, Working, Protrusive
234
Principal problem in combining CP and natural dentition
Difficulty in achieving balanced occlusion
235
When does chattering of speech occur in case of CP?
Increased VD
236
How long to avoid radiotherapy after extraction?
15-20 days
237
Min age to prescribe tetracycline
8 years
238
Transfer of DNA through bacteriophage is known as..
Transduction
239
Where is pacemaker situated?
Right Atrium
240
How much movement in inital phase of tooth movement?
0.4 - 0.9 mm
241
Isthmus classification (Kim)
I: Two faintly connected canals
II: Two connected canals
III: Complete Isthmus
IV: Complete/Incomplete of 3+ canals
V: No connection b/w canals
242
What happens if MTA is mixed for more than 4 minutes?
Dehydration of mass occurs
243
Root classification (Weine)
I: 1 canal
II: 2 canals merging into 1
III: 2 separate canals
IV: 1 canal dividing into 2
244
Why is endodontic sealer cytotoxic?
Eugenol
245
Which teeth canal orifices do not follow the law of symmetry?
Max molars
246
Which microorganism is involved in endodontic flare up?
Fusobacterium
247
How long after reimplantation of avulsed tooth should RCT be performed?
14 days
248
Setting time of Biodentine
9-12 minutes
249
Why higher chance of perforation on maxillary 1st premolar?
Concavity at CEJ mesial
250
Initial irrigant in case of apical abscess
Normal saline
251
Duration of CHX intracanal dressing
4 weeks
252
Until what age is a child considered neonate?
4 weeks
253
Orthodontic wire with highest and lowest E-Module
Lowest: Ni-Ti
Highest: Co-Cr-Ni
254
Types of orthodontic wires preferred during initial, intermediate and end-stage of treatment
Initial: Ni-Ti
Intermediate: Beta Titanium
End: Stainless steel
255
What type of inheritance is described if a mother passes a disease to all her children?
Mitochondrial
256
Most accurate method of measuring gfr
Inulin clearance
257
Where is rima glottis situated?
B/w the vocal folds
258
W arch is used in treatment of
Posterior cross bite
259
Katz classification is based on which teeth
Premolars
260
How deep is distal shoe space maintainer placed on erupting tooth?
1 mm below mesial contour
261
Length of remaining apical seal when placing post
5 mm
262
Type of bacteria found in pulpitis
Facultative anaerobes
263
Shape of canal when using Reamer
Round
264
Principle nerve fibers at the apex
Umyelinated C fibers and myelinated A fibers
265
What acid is used in microabrasion?
HCl
266
Why do porosities appear in acrylic denture?
Lack of sufficient pressure applied to flask
267
Where are Malassez cells situated?
PDL
268
Management of ANUG
Metronidazole + Hydrogen Peroxide Mouthwash
269
Differentiating feature of aggressive periodontitis
Little or no local factors present
270
Difference b/w general and localized aggressive periodontitis
General: Weak antibody response
271
Most common developmental cyst
Nasopalatine cyst
272
Which nevi is clinically benign but histologically malignant?
Spitz nevi
273
Most common bone tumor in children
Osteosarcoma
274
Which cyst develops from rest of Serres?
OKC
275
Which tumours lead to widening of PDL ligament?
Chondrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
(Scleroderma)
276
Which cyst is hollow and without epithelial lining in mandible?
Traumatic bone cyst/Hemorrhagic bone cyst
277
How long does it take for gingivitis to occur in uncontrolled plaque environment?
7-21 days
278
Which cells are predominant in stage I-III of gingivitis?
I: Neutrophils
II: Lymphocytes
III: Plasma cells
279
Radiographic appearance of Garre's osteomyelitis
Onion skin appearance
280
Most common site of Garre's Osteomyelitis
Mandibular molar
281
Which bone disease leads to abnormal remodelling of bone causing fractures, blindness and deafness?
Paget's disease
282
Which bone disease involves lack of bone resorption leading to increased bone mass?
Osteopetrosis
283
Which oral lesion shows saw-tooth appearance histologically?
Lichen planus
284
Which oral lesion contains tzanck cells?
Pemphigus vulgaris
285
Extreme widening of PDL ligaments is a symptom of which skin disease?
Scleroderma
286
Safe INR value for extractions
3.5
287
Which LA is unaffected by pH?
Benzocaine
288
pKa of Lidocaine
7.8
289
Uses of Prostaglandin E1
Impotence
Abortion
Ulcers
290
Use of PGI2
Pulmonary hypertension
291
Impression material of choice for patients with OSMF
A-Sillicone
292
Which muscle limits lingual flange in posterior region in CDs?
Palatoglossus
293
Angle between rest seat and long axis of abutment
Less than 90 degrees
294
Depth of demineralization in enamel and dentin
Enamel: 10-20 micrometers
Dentin: 7.5 micrometers
295
Predominant microorganism in ANUG
Spirochetes
296
Which papillae are affected in geographic tongue?
Filliform
297
% of hypochlorite in Carisolv
0,5%
298
Holes on lingual aspect of deciduous teeth
Gubernacular canals
299
Penicillin induced hypersensitivity is which type?
Type B
300
Connector height for ceramic fixed partial dentures
4 mm
301
Which bacterial enzyme is located in gingival fluid?
Phospholipase
302
What is the tin-mercury phase called?
Gamma 2
303
What is the silver-mercury phase called?
Gamma 1
304
Average duration of function of primary teeth
6 years
305
% of lifetime primary teeth are used to chew
6%
306
Efficacy v Potency of a drug
Efficacy: Maximum response a drug can produce
Potency: Dose required to produce response
307
Chemical mediator for pyrexia and inflammation
Prostaglandins
308
Mural thrombi are seen on which structure?
Heart chamber
309
What is thrombasthenia?
Platelet aggregation disorder
310
How much epi is given during anaphylactic shock?
0.5-1 mg
311
Disinfection of alginate should not exceed how long?
10 minutes
312
PT time
11-15 s
313
Type of ZOE cements and uses
Type 1: Temporary cementation
Type 2: Long term cementing
Type 3: Temporary filling
Type 4: Intermediate filling
314
Half life of fluoride in toothpaste
30 mins
315
Earliest tumour to appear after birth
Cystic hygroma
316
When does root completion of primary tooth finish?
1 - 1.5 years post eruption
317
Which factor is the initiator of the extrinsic coagulation system?
VII
318
Resting membrane potential of a nerve is due to?
K+
319
Lid retraction feature is seen in which condition?
Thyrotoxicosis
320
Commonest cause of cerebrovascular accident
Infarct
321
Where is Rind sign seen?
FD
322
Antibacterial substance in saliva which prevents the attachment of A. viscosus
Myeloperoxidase
323
What is inhalational bronchodilator with long duration of action?
Tiotropium bromide
324
Which premolar shows C-shaped canal?
Mandibular 1st premolars
325
Cariostatic amount of fluoride in water
1 ppm
326
Which amino acids are seen in collagen?
Glycine and proline
327
Which condition shows Lines of Zahn?
Coralline thrombus
328
Copper-containing enzyme in collagen synthesis
Lysyl oxidase
329
Which ulcer has rolled out everted edge?
Squamous cell carcinoma
330
Which ulcer has punched out edge?
Syphillis
331
Calorific value of fat
9
332
Fluoride concentration to reduce radiation caries
1%
333
Which muscle opens the inlet of the larynx?
Thryoepiglottic muscle
334
How does rickets occur?
Increased phosphate excretion in urine
335
Most susceptible part of gingiva to gingival breakdown
Interdental col
336
Which stage of the cell cycle is affected by ionization?
G2-M
337
pH of sabouraud agar for staining
5.6
338
Which conditioning agent should be avoided with MTA?
EDTA
339
At which angle does the condyle start to rotate and glide?
13 degrees
340
Organic content of dentin
35%
341
Which cementum is found at the cervical portion of the tooth?
Acellular afibrillar
342
Earliest marker of renal damage in diabetes mellitus
Microalbuminuria
343
Types of haemorrhages
Primary: At time of surgery
Secondary: 7-10 days post-surgery
Reactionary: 6-12 hours post-surgery
344
Egg shaped pontic is indicated for replacement of which teeth?
Mandibular posteriors
345
Fluoride safe dose
8-16 mg/kg body weight
346
Calcitriol helps maintain calcium level in blood in association with what?
Parathyroid hormone
347
Suture with high plasticity and least adhesion to tissues
Prolene
348
Effect of histamine of large and small blood vessels
Large: Constrict
Small: Dilate
349
Which histamine receptors cause relaxation and constriction of bronchial smooth muscles?
H1: Constriction
H2: Relaxation
350
Indicated treatment after mechanical exposure of pulp in deciduous teeth
DPC
351
What type of space maintainer is nance space maintainer?
Passive, non-functional
352
Measurement of periodontal pocket depth after treatment is a type of what end point?
Surrogate end point
353
Ramjford index
6, 1-4, 6, 1-4
354
When does verill's sign appear?
After diazepam sedation
355
First radiographic sign of osteomyelitis
Blurring of trabeculae
356
Which drugs can be safely excreted if patient has renal disease?
Cef (Safe) in
Rifampicin
Erythromycin
Nafcillin
Ampicillin
Lincosamides
Disease - Doxycyclin
357
Elephant foot is seen in what kind of fracture?
Mal-union
358
Endodontic flare-ups in between appointments are due to which microorganism?
P. gingivalis
359
Nerve supply of soft palate muscles
Tensor veli palatini: V
The rest: X
360
Protein secreted by odontoblasts
Collagen
361
Most common and slowly growing thyroid cancer
Papillary
362
What is theophylline used for?
cAMP inhibition to induce bronchodilation in asthma treatment
363
In which radiograph are zygoma fractures best seen?
Waters view
364
In which condition do we see Ranne complex? What is it?
TB
Necrotic material calcifying
365
Which clotting factor is common to both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?
V
366
Impression material with least setting time
A-sillicone
367
pH of set MTA
12.5
368
Cranial nerve related to apex of petrous bone
VI
369
Severe destruction of DNA can be tested by which test?
PCR
370
Range of numbers in CT scan
-1000 to +1000
371
Infrahyoid muscles are supplied by which nerve?
Ansa cervicalis
372
In which organ do we NOT see pale infarct?
Lungs
373
Which condition causes secondary hyperthyroidism?
Pituitary disease
374
Most common cause of UTI
E. coli
375
Why is lidocaine used more commonly?
Lesser incidence of allergic reactions
376
Most common cause of midsystolic murmur
Aortic stenosis
377
Buffalo hump is seen in
Excess corticosteroids
378
Which antitubercular drug is bacteriostatic?
Ethambutol
379
What condition shows alarm clock headache?
Sphenopalatine neuralgia
380
First radiographic sign of osteomyelitis
Blurring of trabeculae
381
What is HERS made of?
Inner and outer enamel epithelium
382
Penicillase resistant penicillins
Cloxacillin, Methicillin
383
Grand mal epilepsy is treated with
Phenytoin
384
Fungus affecting reticuloendothelial system
Histoplasma capsulatum
385
Most common cause of peptic ulcers in adult patients
H. pylori infections
386
Where does rule of 10 apply?
Pheochromocytoma
387
Where is alternative hemiplegia seen in?
Weber syndrome
388
Superomedial wall of suboccipital triangle
Rectus capitis muscle
389
What does nephrotic syndrome cause?
Hyperkalemia
390
Which valve is most affected by rheumatic fever?
Mitral
391
Main constituent of tissue conditioner
PEMA
392
Which antitubercular drug causes peripheral neuritis?
Isoniazid
393
What is RAS inhibited by?
GTPase activating protein
394
Schilling test is done to test for which deficiency?
Vitamin B12
395
Broad spectrum antiepileptic
Sodium valproate
396
Frontal headache is caused by which drug?
Indomethacin
397
Main disadvantage of opioid analgesics
Urinary retention
398
Where is uthoff's sign seen?
Multiple sclerosis
399
Perioral freckles with increased chance of breast and intestinal cancer is a feature of
Peutz jeughers syndrome
400
Poor prognosis of furcation involvement
Maxillary 1st premolar
401
Which type of movement is Bennett movement?
Lateral
402
Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol
Protein synthesis inhibition
403
What is CAMP test used to identify?
Group B Streptococci
404
Triad of poikiloderma, acral atrophy and photosensitivity indicates
Kindler syndrome
405
Test used to assess treatment of syphillis
VDRL
406
Most common nevus in oral cavity
Intramucosal
406
Acrodynia occurs due to
Mercury poisoning
407
Unilateral cleft lip appears because of lack of fusion of which processes?
Median nasal and maxillary process
408
Which cell produces surfactant?
Type 2 pneumocyte
409
Which structure influences the distobuccal border of the maxillary denture?
Coronoid process
410
Which cranial nerve is not situated in the medulla oblongata?
Facial
411
Drug of choice for rheumatoid arthritis
Methotrexate
412
Muscle inserted into buccal frenum of maxilla
Levator anguli oris
413
What forms heparin?
Mast cells
414
In which type of investment is green shrinkage seen?
Ethyl silicate
415
What are tomes' process derived from?
Ameloblasts
416
Which nerves innervate the muscles of the tongue?
Palatoglossus: X
Everything else: XII
417
2 syndromes with beaten skull radiographic appearance
Apert syndrome
Crouzon syndrome
418
Filler content in macrofilled composites
70-80%
419
Enamel bevel angle and width in class IIIs and IVs
45 deg
0.5 - 1.5 mm
420
Which teeth do not follow law of symmetry?
Maxillary molars
421
In which condition is serum lipase increased?
Acute pancreatitis
422
Organ of Corti is a part of?
Scala media
423
Most common feature of Hurler's Syndrome
Corneal clouding
424
Evidence of immunofluorescence and IgG against hemisdesmosomes is indicative of what?
Bullous pemphigoid
425
Altered neural crest cells are implicated in what syndrome?
Treacher-Collins
426
Most common mycobacterium in HIV
Mycobacterium avium
427
Which vitamin is deficient in vegans? What does it cause?
Vitamin B12
Megaloblastic anemia
428
Staph aureus helps in which type of agglutination?
Co-agglutination
429
Speech assessment for CLP patients at what age?
18 months
430
How long should a petit facemask be worn?
14-16 hours/days
431
When is progesterone level at its peak during cycle?
Between ovulation and menstrual phase
432
Bone density of anterior maxilla
D3
433
Which drugs shouldn't a person taking allupurinol be given?
Probenecid
434
Which element is added to stainless steel to increase its stability?
Titanium
435
Which skin lesion is predominant in a patient with ulcerative colitis?
Psoriasis
436
Specific test used to identify staph aureus
Latex slide
437
What does acute kidney failure cause?
Hyperkalemia
438
Impression material for flabby ridges
Irreversible hydrocolloid
439
Function of rosin in ZOE
Accelerator
440
Most common cause of screw retained implant prosthesis
Screw loosening
441
Preventive treatment for leukoplakia
Topical retinoic acid
442
Drug of choice in gonnorhea
Ceftriaxone
443
Name of fibers in mantle dentin and type of collagen it contains
Van Korff fibers
Type 3
444
Most commonly involved valve in drug abusers in case of IE
Tricuspid
445
Where is Rashkow plexus situated?
Cell free zone (Weil)
446
In which tuberculosis is Ghon's complex found?
Primary
447
Which forceps for mobilization of maxilla? Sharp/Blunt ends where?
Rowe's forceps
Sharp -> Mouth
448
What is coffin corner?
Retromolar trigon
449
Which monoclonal antibody is used in rheumatoid arthritis?
Infliximab
450
Renal tubular function is best assessed by
Plasma electrolytes
451
Depth of caries which is seen radiographically
500 microns
452
What is double processing method used for?
Curing of complete dentures
453
Where is reverse architecture commonly seen?
TFO
454
Opioid with anticholinergic action
Pethidine
455
What type of anemia does G6PD deficiency lead to?
Hemolytic anemia
456
Herring bone pattern is seen in
Fibrosarcoma
457
Which bone is involved in osteomyelitis
Medullary bone
458
A combination of weakness/fatigue, thrombocytopenia, bone marrow failure and oral bleeding disorders is indicative of which anemia?
Aplastic anemia
459
Correct dosage schedule for periostat for chronic periodontitis patients
2x daily for 3 months
460
True yeast
Cryptococcus neoformans
461
Which receptors are attacked in myasthenia gravis?
Nicotinic receptors
462
Angle former is a modification of which instrument?
Excavator
463
Penicillamine is an antidote for what?
Copper
464
Intranasal osteotomy is done through which structure?
Inferior meatus
465
Which biopsy procedure provides quickest diagnosis?
Frozen section
466
Dentin that is freshly laid over the pulp is called
Predentin
467
Presence of bifurcation in single rooted tooth is most common in
Mandibular first premolar
468
Diuretic which exhibitis ototoxicity?
Furosemide
469
Which elevator is used in stobie extraction?
Straight
470
Which muscle is not attached to modiolus?
Zygomaticus minor
471
Where do ameloblasts originate from?
Ectoderm
472
Kuttner's tumor involves which gland?
Submandibular
473
What does mini esthetics in orthodontics refer to?
Inciso-gingival display
474
Skin over angle to mandible is supplied by
Greater auricular nerve
475
Hyaline ring is seen in which pathology?
AOT
476
Cause of thalassemia
Deletion of beta chains
477
Excretory duct tumor
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
478
Where is bone marrow aspiration biopsy taken from?
Posterior iliac crest
479
Areas of light and dark appear as dark in radiographs because of
High contrast
480
Difference between pulpal and periodontal abscess
Vitality
481
Gingival bevel in amalgam class II
15-20 degrees
482
Excess water in alginate causes
Rough cast
483
Cervicofacial infections are mostly caused by
Actinomyces israelii
484
Disadvantage of overcontouring class Vs
Increased plaque retention
485
Which procedure accelerates orthodontic treatment?
Corticotomy
486
Which gingiva is keratinised?
Marginal + Attached
487
Implant biological width
4 - 4.5 mm
