Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

What sx do you ask about in query URTI?

A

Sneezing
Itching (allergic salute)
Blocked nose
Runny nose

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2
Q

Complications of allergic rhinitis?

A

Recurrent sinusitis (in older child)
Recurrent middle ear effusions needing grommets
Recurrent sore throats and snoring
Dental malocclusion (caused by mouth breathing)

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3
Q

Sx to enquire about query LRTI

A

Coughing - dry/productive, clear/purulent
Fever (infection)
Attacks (exacerbated at certain times)
Noisy breathing (wheeze, strider, crackles, snoring)

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4
Q

What are features of allergic facaes?

A

Long pale face
Dark rings under eyes
Open mouth (mouth breathing)
Nasal crease

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5
Q

What does tracheal tug indicate?

A

Pathology in upper airway

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6
Q

What does intercostal recessions indicate?

A

Pneumonia

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7
Q

What does subcostal/Hoovers sign indicate?

A

Airway disease eg Asthma/bronchiolitis

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8
Q

What do you palpate for in resp exam?

A

Tracheal tug
Palpable P2
Left Parasternal heave
Apex beat

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9
Q

What do you percuss for on resp exam?

A

Front superior = upper lopes
Axilla = right middle lobe, lingual on left
Posterior = lower lobe
Heart and upper border of liver

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10
Q

What do you auscultation for on resp exam?

A

Snoring
Trachea - strider
Wheezing
Crackles
Loves of the lung breathe sounds (vesicular/bronchial)

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11
Q

What do you auscultation for on resp exam?

A

Snoring
Trachea - strider
Wheezing
Crackles
Loves of the lung breathe sounds (vesicular/bronchial)

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12
Q

Red flat SIGNS of chronic lung disease

A

Stunted/wasted growth
Hypoxia
Clubbing
Allergic face
Chest wall deformity
Persistent abnormalities on auscultation

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13
Q

Red flag SYMPTOMS of chronic lung disease

A

Chronic cough > 3weeks
Productive cough
Cough on feeding/choking
Recurrent/persistent noisy breathing
Recurrent/non-resolving LRTI
Dyspnoea
Exercise intolerance

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14
Q

Name chronic lung diseases

A

Bronchiectasis
Asthma
Cystic fibrosis
Primary immunodeficiency
Primary cilia dyskinesia
HIV associated chronic lung disease
Lymphoma/mediastinal mass
Congenital disorders (diaphragmatic hernia, lung malformations, GORD)

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15
Q

Physical findings of chronic lung disease

A

Clubbed
Growth chart
Chest deformities- Harrison sulcus, pectum excavatum/carinatum

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16
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Permanent destruction of the bronchial walls and lung tissue due to chronic infection.

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17
Q

What systems are affected by cystic fibrosis?

A

All tubular systems

Reproductive system - semen secretion = infertility
ENT - sinus obstruction
GI - obstructive jaundice, pancreatic duct blockage (fat malabsorption), bowel obstruction
Lungs
Sweat glands

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18
Q

How do you diagnose CF?

A

Sweat test (high chloride in sweat) - 2 sweat chlorides >60mmol/l
Stool fecal elastase
Genetics

Diagnosis not always clear

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19
Q

How do you treat CF?

A

Lung - nebulise to liquify secretions, physio, aggressive infection treatment
Pancreatic enzyme replacement
Lung transplant

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20
Q

Prognosis of CF

A

Up to 40-50years

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21
Q

What are HIV related chronic lung diseases?

A

Bronchiectasis
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
Pulmonary TB
Lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma

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22
Q

How will a patient with lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis present?

A

Chronic cough
SOB
Recurrent pneumonia
Failure to thrive
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly

Digital clubbing
Chest deformity
Parotid enlargement

Recurrent infection leads to Bronchiectasis

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23
Q

Treatment of LIP

A

ARV’s
+- steroids

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24
Q

How does bronchiolitis obliterans present?

A

Hyperinflation
Diffuse wheeze and crackles
Other signs of chronic lung disease

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25
How does primary ciliary dyskinesia present?
Usually from birth Blocked nose in neonatal period Term with resp distress Middle ear infections, sinusitis, sinus invertus Bronchiectasis
26
How do you classify Bronchiectasis?
CF related Non-CF related - focal >FB >endobronchial masses - generalised >HIV related >TB >primary immunodeficiency >primary ciliary dyskinesia >aspiration (cleft palate)
27
What is the pathophysiology of Bronchiectasis?
Trigger (infection) → inflammation of airway → ineffective pulmonary defense → sputum hypersecretion → impaired ciliary clearance → lung damage (dilation and distortion)→ infection...
28
What are the signs of Bronchiectasis?
Clubbing Chest deformities Air trapping Failure to thrive Stunting Cor-pulmonary Pulmonary hypertension
29
What are symptoms of Bronchiectasis?
Halitosis Cough (productive and chronic) Haemoptysis
30
How do you manage Bronchiectasis?
Physio daily Antibiotics for acute exacerbations (2/52 amoxicillin-clav) Immunisations Immuno-modulation of airway inflammation with azithromycin (only in some patients) Lobectomy Treat underlying cause
31
What is cystic fibrosis?
A disease caused by a defect in the Cl- channel (mutation in CFTR gene on chromosome 7) leading to movement of Cl- intracellularly followed by Na and water leading to viscous, concentrated luminal contents. Leads to mucus plugging and recurrent infections.
32
What is lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis?
Chronic infiltration of lymphocytes due to a dysregulated immune response with HIV/EBV interaction
33
Define anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency which requires prompt recognition and treatment. It occurs due to a massive release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils commonly triggered by some foods, drugs, insect venom and latex. Or A severe life threatening generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction
34
Commonest foods that cause anaphylaxis
Hens eggs Peanuts Milk Tree nuts Fish Shellfish Seeds
35
Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Swelling of tongue, lips +- throat Runny nose CVS - fast/slow HR, low BP Skin - hives, itching, flushing CNS - LOC, dizziness, confusion, headache, anxiety GI - abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vomiting Genitourinary - loss of bladder control Resp - SOB, wheeze/stridor, hoarseness, cough, pain on swallowing
36
Diagnostic criteria of anaphylaxis
One of 3 ① acute onset illness with involvement of skin/mucosa AND airway compromise /hypotension ② two + after allergen exposure: > skin/mucosa > resp compromise > hypotension /associated signs > GI sx ③ hypotension after exposure to a known allergen = low bp for age or >30% in systolic bp
37
How do you treat anaphylaxis and what is the MOAof the treatment?
Adrenalin Alpha 1 = smooth muscle contraction → peripheral vasoconstriction, improves coronary artery perfusion Alpha 2 = smooth muscle contraction, inhibits release inflam mediators Beta = increases myocardial contraction, smooth muscle relaxation, bronchodilator
38
What are the steps of management of ACUTE anaphylaxis?
Eliminate exposure Give 0,01ml/kg Adrenalin IM stat (repeat every 5min as needed) Call for help Place in recumbent position with lower limbs elevated Give supplemental O2 Administer IV fluids for resus
39
What other management modalities can you consider after management of ACUTE anaphylaxis?
Hydrocortisone every 4-8hrs for 24hrs Asthmatic = bronchodilators (acute max still adrenaline) Antihistamine - flushing, purities, urticaria Glucagon - positive ionotropic affect on heart
40
What is the dose of an epipen?
Fixed doses Junior = 0,15mg Adult = 0,3mg Single dose
41
What are the absolute indications for epipen prescription?
Previous severe anaphylaxis to food/latex/aeroallergens Coexistence unstable/severe asthma with food allergy Exercise induced anaphylaxis Idiopathic anaphylaxis Untreated venom allergy with systemic reactions Underlying mast cell disorder with previous systemic reactions
42
Disadvantages of epipen
Fixed doses Expensive Single dose Limited shelf life Limited availability
43
Define food hypersensitivity
Any reproducible, abnormal, non-physiologically mediated reaction to food. (Immune = food allergy/non-immune related = food intolerance)
44
Food allergy definition
Adverse health reaction arising from a specific immune response that occurs reproducibly on exposure to given food
45
Define food intolerance
Non-immune mediated reaction to food that include toxic, metabolic, pharmacological and undefined mechanisms
46
Define sensitisation
The presence of IgE antibodies, induced in a susceptible individual after exposure to allergens. (Doesn’t necessarily or relate with clinical symptoms)
47
What are risk factors for food allergy development?
Atopic eczema (severe and early onset) Prolonged allergen avoidance Dietary factors - vitamin D deficiency - reduced intake omega 3 poly-unsaturated fatty acids - reduced consumptions of antioxidants - obesity Increased hygiene and reduced exposure to microbes
48
How do you classify food allergy?
IgE mediated Non IgE mediated Mixed
49
What details of the history do you ask about query food allergy?
Which food suspected How long after ingestion is reaction (IgE normally 20min-2hrs) - non-IgE mediated usually >48hrs Description of reaction Route of exposure (aero/ingestion/skin) Any reaction of other foods Any associated allergic disease/drugs/history
50
How do IgE mediated allergic reactions present?
Immediate onset (minutes -2hrs) Skin - acute urticaria and angioedema, pruritis, flushing GI - vomiting, diarrhoea, abdo cramps, itching of lips and mouth Resp - wheeze, stridor, rhinitis Multisystemic - anaphylaxis Behavioural - “feeling of impending doom” in adults, child irritable
51
How do non-IgE mediated allergic reactions present?
Delayed response Food protein-induced enterocolitis syndrome -vomiting, diarrhoea, hypotonia, pallor severe -associated rice, soya, oats, fish, Allergic proctocolitis -fresh bloody/mucous stool in thriving baby -cows milk Coeliac disease -autoimmune of small intestine -malabsorption, bloating, anaemia -gluten protein = gliden Food protein-induced pulmonary haemosiderosis -bleeds into GI tract and lungs -iron def anaemia -failure to thrive -Pulmonary haemosiderosis -cows milk
52
What are examples of mixed IgE and non-IgE mediated reactions?
Eosinophilia oesophagitis Oesinophilic gastroenteritis Asthma Atopic dermatitis
53
How do you diagnose IgE mediated food allergies?
Oral food challenge = gold standard ** done b6 specialist/ experienced doctor Skin testing IgE specific IgE testing by specialist
54
Types of food challenge tests
Blind (anxious patients/caregivers) Open
55
How do you diagnose non-IgE / mixed allergic reactions?
No specific tests Elimination-reintroduction diet History Endoscopy Biopsy
56
How do you manage a food allergy?
Milder reaction = prompt dose of quick acting antihistamine Sx of anaphylaxis = IM injection Adrenalin ABC
57
What is the non-medical management of allergies?
Education - not curable, read food labels, early recognition, how to treat themselves Emergency plan Dietary - cornerstone. avoid food
58
What are the 10 commandments of URTI?
1) call a cold a cold 2) cough + no tachypnoea = URTI 3) use AB only if really needed 4) high dose 5) short course 6) treat acute otitis media if severe otalgia/red drum 7) acute bacterial sinusitis diagnose only if sx >10days 8) healthy children get frequent URTI’s 9) avoid OTC medications 10) practice hand sneeze hygiene
59
Define acute asthma attack
Progressive increase in typical asthma symptoms not relieved by normal bronchodilator therapy
60
What is near fatal asthma?
Asthma attack with associated resp arrest/hypercapnia
61
What are indications for admission of an asthmatic?
1) Any sign of severe/life threatening asthma 2) moderately severe asthma not responding to B-agonist therapy 3) home circumstances which do not allow for safe/reliable treatment
62
What is the initial/1st line treatment of acute asthma attack?
1) high flow oxygen 2) short acting beta agonist (2 puffs up to 2 minutes up to 10puffs - assess/repeat every 20-30 mins) or salbutamol via nebs 2.5-5mg 3) corticosteroids - oral 1mg/kg/day for 3-5days or IV if life threatening 4) Short acting masculinisation agonist 5) magnesium sulphate if poor response to treatment
63
What is croup and what are the symptoms?
Inflammation of trachea, larynx and +- bronchi Barking cough, hoarseness, stridor
64
How do you grade croup?
1: inspiratory stridor 2: inspirator stridor + passive expiratory stridor 3: inspirator stridor + passive expiratory stridor + pulses paradoxis 4: cyanosis, impending apnoea, apathy, marked retractions
65
How do you treat croup?
Grade 1: steroids Grade 2: steroids + adrenal nebs Grade 3: steroids + adrenal nebs - no improvement in 1hr = intubate Grade 4: steroids + adrenal nebs + intubate
66
What dose of adrenaline do you give in anaphylaxis?
10micrograms/kg undiluted IMI (max 500micrograms)
67
Clinical presentation of allergic rhinitis?
Runny nose, postnatal drip, itching nose, palate, ears, eyes, headache, fatigue, drowsiness, malaise, earache
68
Physical features of allergic rhinitis
Nasal crease, allergic salute, hypertrophied turbinates, thin watery nasal secretions Dennie Morgan lines, lacrimation, allergic shines, swelling of palpebral conjunctivae. Tonsillar hypertrophic, high arched palate, overbite
69
What investigations for suspected allergic rhinitis?
Skin prick test Immunicap (specific IgE) CT/MRI (acute or chronic)
70
Describe the hyperoxia test and what it is used for?
It is conducted to determine whether the patient is cyanosis due to respiratory disease or due to poor vascular circulation 1) measure arterial saturation while patient breathes on room air 2) measure arterial saturation after 10mins of 100% oxygen If arterial partial pressure oxygen increases, then it is lung pathology. If there is no improvement = circulation pathology (usually right to left shunt, avoiding lungs)