Pulmonary Path & Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Upper Airways

A

nose/pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Central Airways

A

tracheo-bronchial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Peripheral Airways

A

alveoli (pulmonary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Airway Pulmonary Function

A

-Gas exchange -Air conditioning -Defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gas exchange

A

-alveolar surface optimized for gas exchange -short transit distance -large surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Air conditioning

A

-inhaled gas prepared for internal environment -large airway surface area + rich blood supply–>very effective at increasing air temp/humidity 73deg/43% –> 90deg/98% humid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Defense

A

a. filtration: nose hairs filter out large particles b. mucociliary escalator: trachea down to bronchioles, particles trapped in mucus removed from airways by coordinated ciliary beating toward pharynx c. nerves/reflexes: modulate airway smooth muscle tone, mucus secretion, ciliary beat frequency (mucosal thickness), influcences rate and depth by afferent and efferent nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spirometry

A

clinical measurement of pulmonary function -measures lung volumes and capacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

total lung capacity

A

volume of air in lungs at full inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

residual volume

A

volume of air remaining in lungs after maximal expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would you predict to happen to residual volume in a pt experiencing severe bronchoconstriction?

A

bronchoconstriction in central airways will cause decreased airflow making it harder for air to get into peripheral airways, and exhalation will be harder too, causing an increase in residual volume b/c of gas trapping in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Forced Expiratory Flow Measurements

A

-FEV-1: forced expiratory volume in 1 second -FVC: forced vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FEV-1

A

forced expiratory volume in one second -% predicted FEV-1 = FEV-1 normalized to age, gender, and body weight -estimate of severity of airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FEV-1/FVC

A

useful measure of pulmonary function -estimate of airway obstruction that may not be fully reversible (especially when measured after a bronchodilator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GOLD classification of COPD

A

-Mild: FEV-1/FVC 80% -Severe: FEV-1/FVC <30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peak Flow Measurements

A

-simplest measure of expiratory flow -may be used for self-eval and documentation of lung ventilatory function –>patient inhales completely to TLC and then exhales rapidly and completely into a peak flowmeter–> measures maximal (peak) flow rate of expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would you expect to happen to peak expiratory flow rate of a pt experiencing bronchoconstriction?

A

Flow will decrease! Patients can have airflow obstruction and not realize it, so peak flow meter is good for monitoring peak flow and whether airways are opening up or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Airway defenses

A
  • Mucociliary clearance
  • Ventilatory responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mucociliary clearance

A
  • mucus + ciliated epithelium
  • traps and removes inhaled material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ventilatory Responses

A
  • change in rate
  • change in depth
  • decreased lung penetration
  • facilitates mucus removal (reflex parasympathetic nerve activation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Airway Mucus

A
  • secreted from mucosal and submucosal glands
  • influenced by neural and inflammatory mediators
  • gel-like material

~water (90-95%), proteins, phospholipids, mucins (elongated glycoproteins)

-nature of the mucus influences treatments (result of different mucins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mucins

A

multiple different mucins

  • impart different physical properties to mucus
  • proportions change in disease (normal, asthma, COPD, CF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Interactions between Mucin molecules include:

A
  • covalent
  • ionic bonds
  • hydrogen bonds
  • van der Waals forces
  • intermingling
  • interaction w/ other molecules in mucus, e.g. DNA, F-actin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Airway mucus function

A
  • serves hygienic function
  • traps inhaled material deposited on central airway lumen
  • cleared from airways by mucociliary escalatory and coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mucus clearance from airways affected by its:

A
  • viscoelasticity (thickness)
  • tenacity/adhesiveness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mucociliary Clearance

A
  • mucus moved from airways towards pharynx by coordinated beating of cilia on epithelial cells
  • mucus floats on a sol layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clearance affected by:

A

a. Mucus Viscosity: water content, mucus constituents, extent of cross-linking, pH/ion content
b. Mucus Volume: water content, gland function
c. Ciliary Beat Frequency: inflammatory mediators, nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What could an atropine-like drug do to mucociliary clearance?

A

Atropine blocks PNS so it would decrease mucociliary clearance, can lead to obstructive and bacterial proliferation and possibly infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cough

A

defensive reflex that clears larynx through main bronchi of:

-mucus, foreign particles, infectious organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cough caused by:

A

-viral infections, asthma, heart failure, drugs, postnasal drip, bronchitis, pneumonia, allergy, lung cancer, foreign particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cough Reflex

A

cerebral cortex–>cough center-> cough receptor or ventilatory muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cough Receptors and Stimuli

A

irritant: change in pH, change in tonicity irritant, cig smoke, mechanical stimulation, pulmonary congestion

C-fiber: bradykinin, capsaicin

stretch: mechanical stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ventilatory muscles

A

intercostals, diaphragm, abs, laryngeal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Uncontrolled, unproductive cough can cause:

A

-prevents sleeps, rib fractures, syncope, fatigue, pneumothorax, rupture of surgical wounds, muscle pain, urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Disease: change in cough sensitivity

A

increased coughing to normal stimulus

a. Peripheral Sensitization: increase cough RECEPTOR sensitivity
b. Central Sensitization: change in cough CENTER sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mucus and Airway Disease

A

disease–> decreased mucus clearance by :

  • increased volume of mucus secreted
  • increased viscosity, harder to clear
  • increased tenacity, stickier mucus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Decreased mucus clearance can result in mucus accumulating in the airways. What problems could this cause?

A

can cause airway obstruction, bacterial proliferation, and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Drugs used to treat airways disease target:

A

A.) Mucus Viscosity (mucolytic) B.) Mucus Hydration (expectorant) C.) Cough (antitussive) D.) Airway Smooth Muscle (Bronchodilator) E.) Inflammation (anti-inflammatory) F.) Neural Mechanisms (anticholinergic) G.) Upper Airway Congestion (vasoconstrictor) H.) Infection (antibiotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mucolytics

A

mucus removal facilitated by decreased mucus viscosity by:

a. decreased mucin molecule cross-linking
b. degrading DNA or proteins

40
Q

Mucolytics

A
  • N-acetylcysteine
  • Dornase Alpha
41
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

contains a free thiol group

  • reduces disulfide bonds (decrease mucin molecule crosslinking) in mucus to make mucus runny and more liquidy (decreased mucin molecule crosslinking)
  • SE: bronchospasm, inactivates some antibiotics like PCNs, poor efficacy, unpleasant smell
42
Q

N-acetylcysteine is contraindicated in patients with advanced chronic bronchitis b/c their mucus is already fairly liquid. Why?

A

N-acetylcysteine will only make mucus more liquidy and runny, which will only make it harder for mucociliary escalator to clear the mucus, NOT beneficial!

43
Q

Degrade DNA or proteins

A
  • purulent mucus can contain DNA or F-actin, which increases mucus viscosity
  • if you degrade DNA or F-action, it will cause decreased mucus viscosity
44
Q

Neutrophil myeloperoxidase gives airway secretions a green color (=mucopurulent) why?

A

excessive infection turns secretions dark yellow, green or brown (=purulent)

45
Q

Dornase Alpha

A

degrades DNA/proteins!

  • recombinant human DNase
  • hydrolyzes extracellular DNA

–DNA detaches from mucus proteins

–proteins broken down by endogenous proteolytic enzymes

–DECREASED mucus viscosity (less thick)

–INCREASED mucus clearance

46
Q

Dornase Alpha SE/Considerations

A
  • upper airway irritation
  • increased antibiotic effects
  • does not affect DNA in living cells!
  • administered by inhalation (nebulizers used with dornase alpha so correct particle size)
47
Q

Expectorants

A
  • mucus removal facilitated by increased water in mucus, leads to increased mucus volume (easier to cough up)
  • Promoted by: osmotic stimuli, ion channel inhibition
48
Q

Expectorants

A
  • Hypertonic saline and Mannitol
  • Guafenesin
49
Q

Hypertonic saline, Mannitol

A
  • osmotic stimuli
  • promotes fluid flow from epithelium into mucus
  • SE/Considerations: administered by inhalation, hypertonic saline may also break ionic bonds between mucin molecules, bronchoconstriction
50
Q

Guaifenesin

A
  • irritates gastric mucosa
    • increased respiratory secretions, decreased mucus viscosity (easier to cough up and clear)
  • SE/considerations: N/V/D/HA
51
Q

Antitussives

A

can be:

  • centrally-acting
  • peripherally-acting
52
Q

Centrally-acting Antitussives

A
  • Codeine & Hydrocodone
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Levopropoxyphene napsylate
53
Q

Peripherally-acting antitussives

A
  • benzonatate
  • menthol
54
Q

Centrally-Acting Agents

A

Act in the cough center in the CNS

  • INCREASE cough threshold
  • depression of cough reflex
55
Q

Codeine, Hydrocodone

A

central-acting

  • act on mu-receptors in the CNS
  • may also act on sensory nerve ending
  • act at doses below those required for analgesia (not the same receptor)
  • SE/considerations: N/V/C, dizziness, mental clouding, ABUSE POTENTIAL***!
56
Q

Dextromethorphan

A
  • opiate derivative, central acting
  • D-isomer of levorphanol (codeine analog)
  • NO analgesia or addictive properites
  • potency= about that of codeine
57
Q

Levopropoxyphene Napsylate

A
  • opiate derivative, central acting
  • L-isomer of dextropropoxyphene
58
Q

Dextromethorphan/Levopropoxyphene Napsylate SE/Considerations

A

-drowsiness, sedation, GI upset

59
Q

Peripherally-acting agents

A

-decrease sensitivity of cough receptors to stimulation -depression of cough reflex

60
Q

Benzonatate

A
  • peripherally-acting antitussive
  • inhibits pulmonary stretch receptors
61
Q

Menthol

A
  • peripherally-acting antitussive
  • local anesthetic effect on sensory nerves
62
Q

Bronchodilators

A

Reverse bronchoconstriction acutely by:

A. Direct relaxation of airway smooth muscle (B2-agonist)

B. Amplification of Relaxation Pathways (Methylxanthines)

C. Inhibition of bronchoconstrictor Stimuli (Muscarinic cholinoreptor antagonists)

63
Q

B-2 Adrenoceptor Agonists

A
  • RELAX AIRWAY SMOOTH MUSCLE
  • inhibit mediator release
  • facilitate mucociliary transport (increase ciliary function to clear mucus)
64
Q

SABA B2-Agonists

A

SHORT-acting -albuterol -levalbuterol -metaproterenol -pirbuterol -terbutaline

65
Q

LABA B2-Agonists

A

LONG-acting (12-18 hrs, BID)

  • formoterol
  • salmeterol
66
Q

Ultra-LABA B2-Agonists

A

Ultra long-acting, once daily

-Indacaterol

67
Q

Non-selective B2-Agonists

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Isoproterenol
68
Q

B2-Agonists SE/Considerations

A
  • tachycardia
  • skeletal muscle tremor (B2): tolerance develops -anxiety/nervousness
  • oral,syrup: when pt cannot inhale, but has more side effects
  • aerosols (MDIs): rapid onset
  • LABAs are not usually used as sole therapy
69
Q

Methylxanthines

A

[amplification of relaxation pathways]

  • Theophylline
  • Aminophylline
70
Q

Theophylline/Aminophylline act to:

A

act to: -relax airway smooth muscle by:

1) inhibition of phosphodiesterase type 3 or 4 (increase cAMP)
2) inhibition of adenosine receptors to decrease airway smooth muscle contraction, decrease mast cell degranulation

71
Q

Theophylline/Aminophylline act to: (con’t)

A
  • improve respiratory muscle performace (i.e. fatigued ventilator muscles)
  • facilitate mucociliary transport
  • inhibit mediator release (less inflamm. mediators)
72
Q

Theophylline/Aminophylline SE/considerations

A
  • GI: N/V
  • CV: Tachycardia, dysrhythmias
  • CNS Stimulation: insomnia, restlessness, alertness (like caffeine), behavioral changes in children, learning impairment, seizures
  • Low therapeutic index for theophylline: toxic effects: >30ug/mL **MONITOR serum theophylline levels!
  • look @ interacting drugs and conditions
  • PK Interactions: hepatic clearance, elimination rate
73
Q

Muscarinic Antagonists

A

Ipratopium Bromide

Tiotropium (M1/M3 selective)

Aclidinium (Ultra-long-acting, LAMA)

74
Q

Muscarinic Antagonists MOA

A
  • act to relax airway smooth muscle by inhibiting parasympathetic bronchoconstriction
  • reverses reflex bronchoconstriction
  • prevents contracting airway smooth muscle (ACh from PNS)
75
Q

Muscarinic Antagonists SE/Considerations

A
  • inhalation
  • few side effects
    • cough
    • dry mouth (atropine-like SE, no pee, no see, no spit, no shit)
    • worsening of urinary retention and narrow-angle glaucoma (mydriatic agents that dilate pupils make NAG worse)
76
Q

Anti-inflammatory Agents (prophylactic usually)

A
  • inhibit release and/or synthesis of proinflammatory mediators from mast cells and leukocytes (decreases bronchoconstriction, decreases mucus formation, decreases mucosal edema)
  • prevents migration/activation of inflammatory cells (decreases release of inflammatory mediators and cytokines)
  • decreases airway hyperreactivity in asthma (decreases inflammation and decreases airway reactivity which is a hallmark of asthma)
77
Q

Corticosteroids

A
  • Beclomethasone
  • Budesonide
  • Ciclesonide
  • Flunisolide
  • Fluticasone
  • Mometasone
  • Prednisolone
  • Triamcinolone Acetanide
78
Q

Corticosteroids MOA

A

~Regulate gene transcription to increase anti-inflammatory proteins

~GC-R transrepresses NFkB and AP-1: decreases pro-inflammaotry proteins, decreases inflammatory cytokines and chemokines

~Decreases airway inflammation and decreases # and activation of inflammatory cells in airways

79
Q

Corticosteroids SE/Consid for Systemic Admin:

A
  • peptic ulcer, Cushings syndrome, fluid retention, decreased linear growth in children**, osteoporosis, cataracts
  • HAP axis suppression: inhibits body’s ability to release natural steroids
80
Q

Corticosteroids SE/Consid. for Inhalation:

A
  • less side effects than systemic
  • oral candidiasis, hoarseness (prevented by rinsing mouth and throat or use of a space device)
81
Q

Mast Cell Stabilizers

A
  • Cromolyn Sodium
  • Nedocromil Sodium
82
Q

Mast Cell Stabilizers MOA

A

act to: -stabilize mast cells–> DECREASE mediator release

  • decrease activation of EOSINOPHILS, neutrophils, and monocytes
  • decrease sensory nerve activation (sensory nerves hypersensitive in asthma)
83
Q

Cromolyn/Nedocromil Sodium Indications

A

useful in asthmatic children NOTE: NOT effective in everyone

84
Q

Cromolyn/Nedocromil Sodium SE/Considerations

A
  • coughing/irritation
  • unpleasant taste (nedocromil)
  • Slow onset of action (4-6wks)
  • Inhalation administration
  • Used prophylactically
85
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

A

Roflumilast

86
Q

Roflumilast

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

-inhibits phosphodiesterase 4 to increase intracellular cAMP

–causes decreased inflammatory mediator release from mast cells and inflammatory cells

–decreased bronchoconstriction (like theophylline)

87
Q

Roflumilast SE/Considerations

A
  • weight loss
  • N/D, dyspepsia
  • psychiatric issues (depression, anxiety, insomnia)
  • interacts w/ CYP3A4–> drug interactions w/ other CYP3A4-metabolized drugs
88
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists/5-Lipoxygenase Inhibitors

A
  • Zafirlukast & Montelukast: leukotriene C4/D4 receptor antagonists
  • Zileuton: blocks 5-lipoxygenase
89
Q

Zafirlukast, Montelukast, Zileuton

A
  • acts to inhibit leukotriene C4/D4 receptors or leukotriene synthesis
  • decreased bronchoconstriction, decreased edema, decreased airway hyperreactivity
90
Q

Zafirlukast, Monetlukast, Zileuton SE/Considerations

A
  • Zafirlukast: HA, Nausea, hepatotoxicity
  • Montelukast: HA (less monitoring)
  • Zileuton: HA, nausea, dyspepsia, hepatotoxicity

ALL: neuropsychiatric issues (agitation, aggression, hallucinations, depression, insomnia, suicidal thoughts)

91
Q

Zafirlukast

A

-99% protein bound (be aware of PK interactions) -metabolized by CYP450 enzymes —>potential for PK interaction

92
Q

Zileuton

A
  • microsomal CYP3A4 inhibitor (potential for interactions) -
  • >inhibits metabolism of warfarin and theophylline
  • contraindication in acute liver disease
93
Q

IgE Binding Antibodies

A

Omalizumab

94
Q

Omalizumab

A

IgE binding antibodies

  • humanized murine mAb
  • acts by binding to the Fc epsilon R-1 portion of circulating IgE antibodies
  • binds to antibody and prevents antibody from binding to mast cell, thus mast cell cannot respond to antigen and release inflammatory mediators (inhibits degranulation)
95
Q

Omalizumab SE/Consid.

A
  • used prophylactically
  • SQ admin–>pain/bruising at injection sites
  • anaphylaxis (2%)
  • injected Q 2-4wks