PULMONARY DISEASES (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

Which hormone is responsible for pulmonary changes during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester?

A

Progesterone

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2
Q

What happens to vital capacity during pregnancy?

A

It increases by approximately 20% by late pregnancy.

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3
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The total amount of exhaled air after a forced expiration.

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4
Q

What happens to expiratory reserve volume during pregnancy?

A

It decreases from 1300 mL to approximately 1100 mL.

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5
Q

Why does tidal volume increase by approximately 40% during pregnancy?

A

Due to respiratory stimulation by progesterone.

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6
Q

Why is lung compliance reduced in pregnancy?

A

Because the enlarged uterus pushes the diaphragm, reducing lung expansion.

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7
Q

How much does minute ventilation increase during pregnancy?

A

By 30 to 40% due to increased tidal volume.

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8
Q

What happens to arterial PO2 during pregnancy?

A

It increases from 100 to 105 mmHg.

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9
Q

Why does arterial PCO2 decrease from 40 to 32 mmHg in pregnancy?

A

Due to increased metabolic demands and hyperventilation.

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10
Q

What happens to residual volume in pregnancy?

A

It decreases by approximately 20% from 1500 mL to 1200 mL.

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11
Q

Why is chest wall compliance reduced during pregnancy?

A

Due to the expanding uterus and increased intra-abdominal pressure.

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12
Q

What pulmonary function change begins at 14-16 weeks AOG?

A

Forced vital capacity and peak expiratory flow progressively increase.

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13
Q

What is total lung capacity (TLC)?

A

The entirety of gas in the lungs at any given time.

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14
Q

What are the components of total lung capacity?

A

Vital capacity (VC) and residual volume (RV).

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15
Q

What is tidal volume (TV)?

A

The volume of air that goes in and out of the lungs in a normal, relaxed breathing.

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16
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

A

The amount of air inhaled beyond the tidal volume.

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17
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

A

The amount of air exhaled beyond the tidal volume.

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18
Q

What is residual volume (RV)?

A

The air that remains in the alveoli after a forceful expiration.

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19
Q

What lung capacities cannot be measured directly?

A

Those that involve residual volume (RV), such as functional residual capacity (FRC) and total lung capacity (TLC).

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20
Q

What are common risk factors for asthma exacerbations in pregnancy?

A

Respiratory viral infections, discontinuation of treatment, smoking, psychological stress, GERD, allergic rhinitis.

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21
Q

How does pregnancy affect asthma severity?

A

1/3 of cases improve, 1/3 remain the same, 1/3 worsen.

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22
Q

What weeks of gestation are asthma exacerbations most common?

A

Between 17-34 weeks (mean 25 weeks).

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23
Q

What are the potential maternal complications of asthma in pregnancy?

A

Maternal hypoxia, preeclampsia, preterm labor, low birth weight, need for cesarean delivery.

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24
Q

What are the fetal effects of maternal asthma?

A

Oligohydramnios, low birth weight, premature delivery, fetal demise, meconium staining.

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25
Q

What are signs of severe asthma exacerbation in pregnancy?

A

Tachypnea, retractions, agitation, cyanosis, altered consciousness, pulsus paradoxus.

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26
Q

What is the hallmark of bronchial asthma?

A

Reversible airway obstruction
Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
Vascular congestion
Tenacious mucus
Mucosal edema

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27
Q

What causes bronchial obstruction in asthma?

A

Bronchial smooth muscle contraction, vascular congestion, tenacious mucus, mucosal edema.

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28
Q

What happens in early asthma exacerbation?

A

Mild respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation.

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29
Q

What happens if asthma exacerbation worsens?

A

Progresses to respiratory failure with CO2 retention and impaired ventilation.

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30
Q

What is the best way to monitor maternal lung function in pregnancy?

A

Symptoms, spirometry, peak expiratory flow.

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31
Q

What is the importance of fetal heart monitoring in maternal asthma?

A

It helps assess fetal well-being and oxygen status.

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32
Q

What maternal condition increases perinatal mortality and neonatal hypoxemia?

A

Severe asthma exacerbation with respiratory distress.

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33
Q

Why should asthma in pregnancy be aggressively managed?

A

Because fetal oxygenation is directly affected by maternal respiratory status.

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34
Q

What are common symptoms of asthma in pregnancy?

A

Cough, shortness of breath, chest tightness, nocturnal awakenings, wheezing.

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35
Q

Why do some pregnant women stop asthma medication?

A

Fear of teratogenic effects, lack of education.

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36
Q

What fetal complication can arise from maternal hypoxemia due to asthma?

A

Reduced umbilical blood flow, increased pulmonary vascular resistance, decreased cardiac output.

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37
Q

What is the primary mechanism behind asthma-related fetal distress?

A

Maternal hypoxia leading to inadequate oxygen supply to the fetus.

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38
Q

What are the three possible asthma outcomes during pregnancy?

A

Improvement, no change, worsening.

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39
Q

Why is cesarean delivery often preferred for asthmatic mothers?

A

To avoid respiratory distress during labor and ensure controlled oxygenation.

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40
Q

How does progesterone contribute to increased tidal volume?

A

By stimulating respiratory centers in the brain.

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41
Q

Why does increased metabolic demand in pregnancy not lead to CO2 retention?

A

Because of increased diffusion capacity and hyperventilation.

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42
Q

What are common triggers for asthma exacerbations?

A

Allergens, viral infections, smoke exposure, GERD, stress.

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43
Q

What is the preferred approach to identify reversible airflow obstruction?

A

Spirometry

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44
Q

Why are asthmatic pregnant patients advised to undergo baseline spirometry?

A

To guide medication adjustments

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45
Q

What is an obstructive pattern in spirometry characterized by?

A

Increase in forced expiratory volume

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46
Q

What does Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF) indicate?

A

The severity of an asthma crisis

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47
Q

What is the normal PEF for a woman?

48
Q

What FEV1 increase after bronchodilator administration indicates asthma?

A

> 12% from baseline

49
Q

What should be routinely measured for asthma management?

A

Sequential FEV1 or PEFR

50
Q

What is the advantage of PEFR measurement?

A

It correlates well with FEV1 and can be measured with portable meters

51
Q

Why is bronchoprovocation testing avoided in pregnancy?

A

It can trigger preterm labor (PTL)

52
Q

What are the key components of chronic bronchial asthma management?

A

Patient education, environmental control, pulmonary function monitoring, pharmacologic therapy

53
Q

What is the primary goal of pharmacologic therapy for asthma?

A

Provide baseline control and treat exacerbations

54
Q

How often should women with moderate to severe asthma measure their FEV1 or PEFR?

A

Twice daily

55
Q

What is the goal FEV1 for asthma control?

A

> 80% of predicted

56
Q

What are the predicted PEFR values for women?

A

380 to 550 L/min

57
Q

What is the stepwise approach for asthma management in pregnancy?

A

Use beta-agonists for bronchospasm and corticosteroids for inflammation

58
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild intermittent asthma?

A

Beta-agonists

59
Q

When are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) required in asthma?

A

For persistent asthma

60
Q

What is the preferred beta-agonist for pregnant patients?

61
Q

Why are leukotriene receptor antagonists not used for acute exacerbations?

A

They prevent leukotriene production but do not address muscle contractions or bronchospasms

62
Q

What is the association between vitamin D and asthma severity?

A

Vitamin D insufficiency is linked to more severe asthma

63
Q

What are the FDA pregnancy risk categories for drugs?

A

Category A: No risk, Category B: No risk in animals, Category C: Fetal harm in animals, Category D: Risk but benefits > risk, Category X: Contraindicated

64
Q

What is the goal oxygen saturation in acute bronchial asthma?

65
Q

What is the preferred IV corticosteroid for acute asthma?

A

Methylprednisolone

66
Q

What is the preferred oral corticosteroid for asthma?

A

Prednisone

67
Q

What should be avoided in labor for asthmatic patients?

A

Prostaglandin F2α (Carboprost) and Ergotamine derivatives

68
Q

What is the preferred induction agent for labor in asthmatics?

69
Q

What is status asthmaticus?

A

Severe asthma not responding to therapy within 30-60 minutes

70
Q

What are indications for mechanical ventilation in status asthmaticus?

A

Fatigue, CO2 retention, hypoxemia

71
Q

What is the management of a laboring asthmatic patient?

A

Continue maintenance medications and administer stress-dose corticosteroids if needed

72
Q

What is the recommended treatment for mild intermittent asthma in pregnancy?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist as required for symptom relief

73
Q

What is the treatment for mild persistent asthma in pregnancy?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist as required for symptom relief + Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

74
Q

What is the recommended treatment for moderate persistent asthma in pregnancy?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist as required for symptom relief + Low-dose ICS (combination inhaler) + LABA

75
Q

What is the recommended treatment for severe persistent asthma in pregnancy?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist as required for symptom relief + High-dose ICS or add-on therapy (Theophylline, Anti-leukotriene, Oral Beta2-agonist, Anticholinergic) + LABA

76
Q

What is the recommended treatment for very severe persistent asthma in pregnancy?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist as required for symptom relief + High-dose ICS + Add-on therapy (Anti-IgE, Immunosuppressants) + LABA

77
Q

What is the primary manifestation of acute bronchitis?

A

Cough without pneumonitis.

78
Q

What is the most common cause of acute bronchitis?

A

Viruses such as Influenza A and B, parainfluenza, respiratory syncytial virus, coronavirus, adenovirus, and rhinovirus.

79
Q

How long does cough typically persist in acute bronchitis?

A

10 to 20 days, occasionally lasting a month or longer.

80
Q

What is the role of antimicrobials in acute bronchitis?

A

Limited evidence supports antimicrobial therapy.

81
Q

What cough medications are considered safe in pregnancy for acute bronchitis?

A

Cough suppressants with dextromethorphan and expectorants with guaifenesin.

82
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

An infection in one or both lungs, causing alveolar inflammation.

83
Q

What are the two types of pneumonia based on the affected area?

A

Lobar pneumonia (affecting a lung lobe) and bronchopneumonia (affecting patches throughout both lungs).

84
Q

What is community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia acquired outside of a hospital, often in pregnant patients visiting outpatient clinics.

85
Q

What is hospital-acquired pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia acquired in the hospital, often in postpartum patients, making it more challenging to manage.

86
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

87
Q

What is a classic sign of Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia?

A

Rust-colored sputum.

88
Q

What is a classic sign of Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia?

A

Red currant-jelly sputum.

89
Q

What bacterial species may cause green sputum in pneumonia?

A

Pseudomonas, Haemophilus, and pneumococcal species.

90
Q

What are key symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Crackles on auscultation, productive cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever, chills, cyanosis, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

91
Q

What are risk factors for early deterioration in community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Respiratory rate ≥30/min, arterial O₂ saturation <90%, core temperature <36°C, hypotension, multilobar infiltrates, leukopenia <4000/μL, thrombocytopenia <100,000/μL, confusion/disorientation.

92
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for pneumonia?

A

Chest X-ray, blood tests, sputum test, bronchoscopy, pulse oximetry, rapid PCR testing for influenza A/B and COVID-19.

93
Q

What does the CURB-65 score assess?

A

Severity of pneumonia and need for hospitalization.

94
Q

What is the CURB-65 management strategy?

A

0-1: Low risk, consider home treatment; 2: Possible admission or close outpatient monitoring; 3-5: Hospital admission, treat as severe.

95
Q

What is the empirical inpatient antimicrobial treatment for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia in pregnancy?

A

Macrolides (clarithromycin 500 mg BID or azithromycin 500 mg daily) + oseltamivir if influenza A suspected.

96
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for pneumonia in pregnancy?

A

5-7 days, with antibiotics discontinued after 48-72 hours of being afebrile.

97
Q

What is the first-line antimicrobial therapy for severe pneumonia in pregnancy?

A

Beta-lactams (ampicillin/sulbactam, ceftriaxone, ceftaroline, cefotaxime) combined with macrolides.

98
Q

What additional treatment is given if community-acquired MRSA is suspected in pneumonia?

A

Vancomycin (15 mg/kg every 12 hrs) or linezolid (600 mg every 12 hrs).

99
Q

What are common pregnancy complications associated with pneumonia?

A

Preterm rupture of membranes, preterm delivery, intrauterine growth restriction, preeclampsia, and increased C-section rates.

100
Q

What are key prevention strategies for pneumonia in pregnancy?

A

Pneumococcal vaccination (PPSV23 and PCV13 for high-risk groups) and influenza vaccination.

101
Q

What is the most common complication of influenza in pregnancy?

A

Pneumonia.

102
Q

What is the first-line treatment for influenza pneumonia?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir 75 mg BID for 5 days).

103
Q

What is the primary method of COVID-19 pneumonia prevention in pregnancy?

A

Airborne infection isolation and transfer to equipped facilities.

104
Q

What is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), and who is at risk?

A

A fungal lung infection primarily affecting immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS.

105
Q

What is the characteristic symptom triad of Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)?

A

Dry cough, tachypnea, and dyspnea.

106
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)?

A

Bronchoscopy with lavage or biopsy.

107
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) in pregnancy?

A

TMP-SMX (double-strength tablet daily for HIV-infected pregnant women with CD4 <200/μL).

108
Q

What is tuberculosis (TB)?

A

A granulomatous pulmonary infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

109
Q

What are the key symptoms of active TB?

A

Chronic cough, hemoptysis, low-grade fever, weight loss, night sweats, chills, fatigue, and chest pain.

110
Q

What are the two types of TB?

A

Latent TB (inactive, non-contagious) and active TB (symptomatic and contagious).

111
Q

What are the key risk factors for TB worsening in pregnancy?

A

Late diagnosis, incomplete treatment, advanced pulmonary lesions.

112
Q

What are the laboratory tests used for TB diagnosis?

A

Tuberculin skin test (PPD), interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs), chest X-ray, sputum microscopy, nucleic acid amplification assay, culture and sensitivity.

113
Q

What is the first-line treatment regimen for active TB in pregnancy?

A

Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampin for 7 months.

114
Q

What is the recommended treatment for latent TB in pregnancy?

A

Delay treatment until 3-6 months postpartum, except for high-risk cases (HIV-positive, recent exposure).

115
Q

When is a TB patient considered non-infectious?

A

After 2 weeks of directly observed therapy (DOT), 3 consecutive AFB-negative sputum smears, and clinical improvement.