GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS IN PREGNANCY (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the diagnostic procedures for pregnant women with GI disorder symptoms?

A

Endoscopy,
non-invasive imaging techniques (ultrasound, MRI, limited use of CT),
laparoscopy.

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2
Q

Why is endoscopy used in pregnant women?

A

It is useful for diagnosing and managing upper GI issues; can visualize the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and colon.

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3
Q

What is a risk associated with endoscopy during pregnancy?

A

A slightly increased risk of preterm birth, though this is likely due to the disease itself rather than the procedure.

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4
Q

What imaging technique is ideal for evaluating the GI tract in pregnancy?

A

Abdominal sonography (ultrasound).

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5
Q

Why is CT scan use limited during pregnancy?

A

Due to radiation exposure.

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6
Q

What are the benefits of laparoscopy during pregnancy?

A

Minimally invasive, replaces traditional surgery for many abdominal disorders, and allows diagnosis and treatment.

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7
Q

Why is enteral feeding preferred over parenteral nutrition?

A

It uses the entire GI tract and has fewer serious complications.

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8
Q

What are some conditions treated with enteral or parenteral nutrition during pregnancy?

A

Achalasia, anorexia nervosa, appendiceal rupture, bowel obstructions, burns, cholecystitis, Crohn’s disease, diabetic gastropathy, esophageal injury, hyperemesis gravidarum, jejunoileal bypass, malignancies.

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9
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Severe, unrelenting nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, leading to weight loss, dehydration, ketosis, alkalosis, and hypokalemia.

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10
Q

What is a severe complication of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Acute kidney injury, esophageal rupture (Boerhaave’s syndrome), Wernicke encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency), Mallory-Weiss tears, vitamin K deficiency, diaphragmatic rupture.

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11
Q

What are the risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Increased hCG (multiple pregnancy, molar gestation), increased estrogen and progesterone, carrying a female fetus (1.5-fold increased risk).

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12
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with Wernicke encephalopathy in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Thiamine deficiency.

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13
Q

How is hyperemesis gravidarum managed?

A

Vitamin replacement, antiemetics (Diclegis, ondansetron, promethazine, metoclopramide), IV hydration, hospitalization if necessary, enteral or parenteral nutrition for intractable cases.

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14
Q

What are the first-line antiemetics for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Diclegis (doxylamine + pyridoxine), promethazine, prochlorperazine, ondansetron, metoclopramide.

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15
Q

Why is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) given through a central venous catheter?

A

TPN is hyperosmolar and requires rapid dilution in a high-flow vascular system.

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16
Q

What are the common complications of parenteral feeding?

A

Catheter sepsis, hyperalimentation complications, electrolyte imbalances.

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17
Q

What are common medications for GERD in pregnancy?

A

Proton pump inhibitors (pantoprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole), H2-receptor antagonists (famotidine, cimetidine, nizatidine).

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18
Q

What dietary modification can help mild cases of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Ginger-flavored candies and small frequent meals.

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19
Q

When should a pregnant patient with hyperemesis gravidarum be hospitalized?

A

If vomiting persists after outpatient treatment, leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, or weight loss.

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20
Q

What is the main symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A

Heartburn (pyrosis), a burning sensation from the epigastric area towards the throat.

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21
Q

What causes the retrosternal burning sensation in GERD?

A

Esophagitis caused by gastroesophageal reflux related to relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.

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22
Q

What lifestyle modifications can help manage GERD?

A

Tobacco and alcohol abstinence, small meals, head-of-bed elevation, and avoidance of postprandial recumbency.

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23
Q

What is the first-line therapy for GERD?

A

Oral antacids.

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24
Q

What medications are used for severe GERD symptoms?

A

Sucralfate (Carafate) + proton-pump inhibitor or H2-receptor antagonist.

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25
Q

What is the recommended dosage for sucralfate in GERD?

A

1-g sucralfate tablet taken orally 1 hour before meals and at bedtime for up to 8 weeks.

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26
Q

Why should antacids not be taken within 30 minutes before or after sucralfate doses?

A

It can interfere with sucralfate’s protective action.

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27
Q

When should endoscopy be considered in GERD?

A

If symptoms persist despite medical therapy.

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28
Q

What are the possible complications of GERD?

A

Esophagitis, stricture, Barrett esophagus, and adenocarcinoma.

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29
Q

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Herniation of abdominal contents through the foramen of Bochdalek or Morgagni.

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30
Q

Which structure is involved in a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

The esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm.

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31
Q

What is the maternal mortality rate of diaphragmatic hernia in pregnancy?

A

Approximately 45%, making it a surgical emergency.

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32
Q

What is a rare cause of spontaneous diaphragmatic rupture in pregnancy?

A

Increased intra-abdominal pressure during vaginal delivery.

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33
Q

What is achalasia?

A

A rare motility disorder in which the lower esophageal sphincter does not relax properly with swallowing.

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34
Q

What causes achalasia?

A

Inflammatory destruction of the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus within the smooth muscle of the lower esophagus.

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of achalasia?

A

Dysphagia, chest pain, and regurgitation.

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36
Q

What radiographic finding is seen in achalasia?

A

Bird-beak or ace of spades narrowing at the distal esophagus on barium swallow.

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37
Q

What test is confirmatory for achalasia?

A

Manometry.

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38
Q

What is the surgical treatment for achalasia?

A

Myotomy (excision of smooth muscle of the lower esophagus).

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39
Q

What medical treatments are used for achalasia?

A

Soft diet, anticholinergics, nitrates, calcium-channel antagonists, botulinum toxin A.

40
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

Erosive ulcer disease involving the stomach and duodenum.

41
Q

What are the main causes of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H. pylori infection and NSAID use.

42
Q

Why is peptic ulcer disease uncommon in pregnancy?

A

Physiological changes in pregnancy include reduced gastric acid secretion, decreased motility, and increased mucus secretion.

43
Q

What is the first-line therapy for peptic ulcer disease?

A

H2-receptor blockers or proton-pump inhibitors.

44
Q

What is the role of sucralfate in peptic ulcer disease?

A

Provides a protective coating at the ulcer base and inhibits pepsin.

45
Q

What is the diagnostic approach for H. pylori in pregnancy?

A

Urea breath test, serological testing, or endoscopic biopsy.

46
Q

What is the treatment for H. pylori-positive ulcers?

A

Multidrug therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin, metronidazole, and a proton-pump inhibitor.

47
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding in pregnancy?

A

Mallory-Weiss tears (small linear mucosal tears near the gastroesophageal junction).

48
Q

What is the initial management of upper GI bleeding?

A

Iced-saline irrigations, topical antacids, and IV H2-blockers or proton pump inhibitors.

49
Q

When is endoscopy indicated for upper GI bleeding?

A

If bleeding persists despite conservative management.

50
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Esophageal rupture due to greatly increased esophageal pressure, often secondary to forceful belching.

51
Q

How is diarrhea classified based on duration?

A

Acute (<2 weeks), Persistent (2-4 weeks), Chronic (>4 weeks).

52
Q

What is the most common cause of acute diarrhea?

A

Infectious agents, often foodborne pathogens.

53
Q

What are indications for evaluating acute diarrhea?

A

Profuse watery diarrhea with dehydration, grossly bloody stools, fever >38°C, duration >48 hours without improvement, recent antibiotic use, or immunocompromised status.

54
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild acute diarrhea?

A

Oral rehydration therapy.

55
Q

When should a patient with diarrhea be hospitalized?

A

If moderate dehydration is present or if symptoms do not improve after 3-4 hours of observation.

56
Q

What is the most important risk factor for Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Antibiotic use, especially aminopenicillins, clindamycin, cephalosporins, and fluoroquinolones.

57
Q

What are other risk factors for Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease, immunosuppression, advanced age, and gastrointestinal surgery.

58
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Clostridium difficile?

A

Enzyme immunoassay for toxins in stool or DNA-based tests for toxin genes.

59
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Oral vancomycin or metronidazole.

60
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for diarrhea in pregnancy?

A

IV hydration with normal saline or lactated Ringer’s with potassium supplementation.

61
Q

When is empirical antibiotic treatment recommended for diarrhea?

A

For moderately severe diarrhea with fecal leukocytes or gross blood.

62
Q

What antibiotics are used for Salmonella spp.?

A

Ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

63
Q

What antibiotic is used for Campylobacter spp.?

A

Azithromycin.

64
Q

What antibiotics are used for Clostridium difficile?

A

Oral metronidazole or vancomycin.

65
Q

What antibiotics are used for Giardia spp. and Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Metronidazole.

66
Q

When can loperamide be used for diarrhea?

A

For non-febrile, non-bloody diarrhea.

67
Q

What is the role of Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) in diarrhea?

A

It may alleviate symptoms.

68
Q

What are the two main forms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)?

A

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

69
Q

What is the presumed cause of inflammation in IBD?

A

Dysregulated mucosal immune function in response to commensal microbiota, with or without an autoimmune component.

70
Q

What layer of the colon does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

The mucosal (superficial) layer.

71
Q

In what percentage of ulcerative colitis cases is the disease confined to the rectum and rectosigmoid?

72
Q

What are the major symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A

Diarrhea, rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and abdominal cramps.

73
Q

What are two dangerous complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

Toxic megacolon and catastrophic hemorrhage.

74
Q

What extraintestinal manifestations are associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Arthritis, uveitis, and erythema nodosum.

75
Q

What is the annual risk of colon cancer in ulcerative colitis?

A

1% per year.

76
Q

What is another name for Crohn’s disease?

A

Regional enteritis, Crohn ileitis, or granulomatous colitis.

77
Q

How does Crohn’s disease differ from ulcerative colitis in terms of bowel involvement?

A

Crohn’s disease affects the entire GI tract (mouth to anus) and involves deeper layers, often transmural.

78
Q

What are common symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A

Right lower quadrant cramping abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, low-grade fever, and obstructive symptoms.

79
Q

What are two common complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Perianal fistulas and abscesses.

80
Q

Which form of IBD has a greater risk of gastrointestinal cancer?

A

Ulcerative colitis.

81
Q

What is the first-line drug for the treatment of ulcerative colitis?

A

5-Aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) or mesalamine.

82
Q

Which drug inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the colonic mucosa?

A

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine).

83
Q

What class of drugs is used for moderate to severe ulcerative colitis unresponsive to 5-ASA?

A

Glucocorticoids (orally, parenterally, or by enema).

84
Q

What immunomodulating drugs are used for ulcerative colitis?

A

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, and cyclosporine.

85
Q

What are examples of TNF-alpha inhibitors used in IBD?

A

Infliximab (Remicade), Adalimumab (Humira), and Golimumab (Simponi).

86
Q

Why is folic acid supplementation recommended in ulcerative colitis treatment?

A

To counteract the antifolate effects of sulfasalazine and prevent neural tube defects.

87
Q

Does ulcerative colitis significantly alter pregnancy outcomes?

A

No, but disease activity at conception influences the course during pregnancy.

88
Q

How is intestinal obstruction diagnosed during pregnancy?

A

It is difficult to diagnose, but suspicion arises with a history of prior surgery, abdominal pain, and imaging.

89
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in pregnancy?

A

Compression of adhesions by the growing uterus.

90
Q

What is Ogilvie syndrome?

A

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction causing massive abdominal distension.

91
Q

When does Ogilvie syndrome most commonly develop?

A

Postpartum, especially after cesarean delivery.

92
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Ogilvie syndrome?

A

Intravenous neostigmine (2 mg) for colonic decompression.

93
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for appendicitis diagnosis in pregnancy?

A

MRI (if available) due to high diagnostic accuracy and ability to rule out other conditions.

94
Q

What is the first-line surgical approach for appendicitis in early pregnancy?

A

Laparoscopy (in the first two trimesters).

95
Q

What antibiotic prophylaxis is given before appendectomy in pregnancy?

A

Second-generation cephalosporin or third-generation penicillin.

96
Q

How does appendicitis impact pregnancy outcomes?

A

Increases the risk of abortion or preterm labor, especially if peritonitis develops.