Pulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

MCC atypical Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma

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2
Q

MCC Pneumonia in alcoholics

A

Klebsiella

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3
Q

MCC interstitial Pneumonia in bird handlers

A

Chlamydia pscitissi

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4
Q

MCC Pneumonia in pts exposed to bats

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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5
Q

MCC Pneumonia in pt that has recently traveled to New Mexico /Arizona

A

Coccidiomycosis

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6
Q

What organism is associated with current jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

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7
Q

Organism responsible for Q fever in livestock handlers

A

Coxiella burnetti

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8
Q

Pneumonia associated with air conditioners

A

Legionella

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9
Q

MCC pneumonia in kids

A

RSV

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10
Q

MCC pneumonia in neonates

A

GBS and E. Coli

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11
Q

MCC pneumonia in kids and young adults

A

Mycoplasma

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12
Q

MCC of pneumonia in pts with other health problems

A

Klebsiella

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13
Q

MCC viral Pneumonia

A

RSV and influenza

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14
Q

Organism responsible for wool sorters disease

A

Bacillus anthracis

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15
Q

Common organism responsible for COPD exacerbation

A

H. Influenza

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16
Q

MCC Pneumonia in ventilated pt and in cystic fibrosis

A

Pseudomonas

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17
Q

Organism responsible for Pontiac fever

A

Legionella

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18
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in pairs

A

Strep pneumo

20
Q

Pneumonia with: gram negative rods in 80 year old

21
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in neonates

22
Q

Pneumonia with: gram negative rods in neonates

23
Q

In a patients with pulmonary edema how can a cardiogenic cause be differentiated from ARDS?

A

PCWP measure via Swan-Ganz catheter. Cardiogenic cause with have elevated PCWP , while in ARDS it will be 18 or lower.

24
Q

Diagnostic characteristics of ARDS

25
What should you do if you see bilateral lobar pneumonia ?
Hospitalize because these patients have a high likelihood of de compensating even of they look alright
26
Substances to avoid in central apnea patients
Anything that acts as a sedative or decreases respiratory drive: alcohol, opioids, anti-histamines
27
Shortly after birth a child has stridor, wheezing and shortness of breath despite medical treatment, what is the most likely diagnosis
Vascular ring compressing upper airway and trachea; clue here is that it continues despite medical treatment
28
What is a diagnostic result of pilocarpine sweat chloride tests for cystic fibrosis
A result of >60 mEq
29
MCC of epiglottis and treatment
H. Influenza type b, this is a pediatric emergency. Children should be intubated in OR with anxiety decreased and holding off on examining throat as this can cause spasm. Abx ceftriaxone for 7-10 days
30
MCC croup and treatment
Usually caused by Parainfluenza virus and RSV. Treat with steroids if mild, add racemic epinephrine if severe. Administer humidified oxygen.
31
Causes of transudative pleural effusion
Transudative means low protein, mostly water. Caused by heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome renal failure
32
What is xray finding of steeple sign due to?
Croup
33
What is the chest xray finding of the thumb-print sign?
Epiglottis
34
What is the L:S ratio obtained from amniocentesis that indicates high risk of respiratory distress syndrome and normal fetal lung maturity?
2 means mature fetal lungs
35
Dx and Management of Trauma patient is respiratory distress with pleural effusion on cheat xray
Most likely Dx is hemothorax since trauma, chest tube for drainage is indicated
36
What size pneumothorax requires chest tube placement?
If greater than 15%
37
What medication should be used before intubation of a he injury patient?
Lidocaine
38
What is there treatment for RSV bronchiolitis?
Oxygen, racemic epinephrine and albuterol neb; steroid are not indicated here
39
What is the most common finding of PE on EKG? What is the "classic" finding on EKG?
Most common is sinus tachycardia. | Classic is S1Q3T3; wide s lead I, wide Q and inverted T on lead III
40
MCC Pneumonia in immunocompromised pts
PCP
41
List one toxicity/association for each of the four TB drugs (RIPE)
Rifampin- red body secretions Isoniazid- peripheral neuropathy that can be treated with pyridoxine (B6) Pyrazinamide- hyperurecemia Ethambutol- optic neuritis with color changes
42
What is the treatment protocol for active TB
6 months of treatment total 2 months with full RIPE last 4 months with rifampin and isoniazid
43
Cases in which TB treatment protocol is extended to 9 months
Bone involvement (osteomyelitis) Military TB meningitis Pregnancy
44
What is the diagnostic criteria doe ARDS?
pO2/FIO2 ratio of
45
What is the best support/treatment of ARDS?
Low tidal volume mechanical ventilation to allow lungs to recover - 6mL per kg of tidal volume - PEEP is used to try to decrease FIO2