pulm infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

inflammation that causes a cough

A

bronchitis

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2
Q
  • Cough
  • lower respiratory tract infection involving the bronchi without evidence of pneumonia that occurs in the absence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • symptoms result from inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and are
    most frequently due to viral infection
  • lasts for at least five days ***
  • typically self-limited, resolving within one to three week
A

acute bronchitis

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3
Q

The incidence of acute bronchitis is highest in _____ when
transmission of respiratory viruses peaks
* Influenza A and B
* Parainfluenza
* Coronavirus types 1 to 3
* Rhinoviruses
* Respiratory syncytial virus
* Human metapneumovirus

A

late fall and winter

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4
Q

what bacteria most likely causes prolonged cough (acute bronchitis)

(whooping cough, characteristic postussive vomiting, prolonged cough–up to 12 weeks)

A

B. pertussis

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5
Q

first choice to treat acute bronchitis caused by pertussis

A

azithromycin

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6
Q

what usually precedes bronchitis

A

URI

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7
Q

what is the cardinal symptom of acute bronchitis

A

cough (lasting at least 5 days)

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8
Q
  • Cough
  • Wheezing
  • Mild dyspnea
  • Rhonchi
  • With prolonged coughing, chest wall or substernal musculoskeletal pain can occur
A

signs and symptoms of acute bronchitis

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9
Q

diagnostics for acute bronchitis

A

clinical

make sure they don’t have any other concerning symptoms –> parenchymal consolidation, high fever, possessive emesis, inspiratory whoop

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10
Q

when do you do testing for acute bronchitis

A
  • Suspected pneumonia
  • clinical diagnosis is uncertain-suspect flu, pertussis, Covid-19
  • results would change management
  • a positive influenza test result in a patient who meets criteria for antiviral therapy
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11
Q

acute bronchitis treatment

A
  • mostly supportive
  • throat lozenges
  • hot tea, honey
  • stop smoking
  • OTC cough med
  • hydration
  • humidity
  • expectorants
  • dextromethorphan
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12
Q

develops outside of hospital

A

community acquired pneumonia

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13
Q
  • hospital acquired pneumonia
  • ventilator acquired pneumonia
A

nosocomial pneumonia

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14
Q

an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs.
* The air sacs may fill with fluid or purulent material
* cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing
* caused by variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses and fungi

fluid in the alveoli

A

pneumonia

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15
Q

Pulmonary defense mechanisms normally prevent the development
of lower respiratory tract infections following aspiration of
oropharyngeal secretions containing bacteria or inhalation of infected
aerosols causing pneumonia

A
  • cough reflex
  • mucociliary clearance system
  • immune responses
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16
Q

when does CAP occur

A

when there is a defect in one or more of these:
* cough reflex
* mucociliary clearance system
* immune responses
or when a large infectious inoculation or a virulent pathogen overwhelms the immune response

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17
Q

what is the most common pathogen in CAP

A

strep pneumoniae

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18
Q

pneumonia classifications

A
  1. where you got the infection (CAP or HAP)
  2. types of pathogens (bacterial, viral,fungal)
  3. clinical presentation (typical/atypical)
  4. extent of involvement and CXR findings (lobar, interstitial, cavitary)
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19
Q
  • Fever or hypothermia
  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Sweats/chills
  • Chest discomfort, pleuritic chest pain
  • Tachypnea, tachycardia
  • Hypoxia
  • May appear acutely ill
  • Inspiratory crackles, bronchial breath sounds***
  • Dullness to percussion if lobar consolidation or pleural
    effusion
A

signs and symptoms of pneumonia

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20
Q
  • Diagnosed outside the hospital in ambulatory patients who are not
    residents of nursing homes or other long-term care facilities
  • May also be diagnosed in a previously ambulatory patient within 48 hours after admission to the hospital
  • Risk factors include: advanced age, alcoholism, tobacco use, comorbid
    medical conditions especially asthma or COPD, and immunosuppression
A

community acquired pneumonia

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21
Q

immunocompromised patients with pneumonia are at risk for

A
  • gram-negative empiric bacteria
  • mycobacterium avium complex
  • Fungi: aspergillosis
  • Viruses: CMV
  • pneumocystis jiroveci carinii
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22
Q

Patients with cystic fibrosis at risk for

A
  • Staph aureus in infancy
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Burkholderia cepacia in older children
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23
Q

how to diagnose pneumonia (outpatient)

A

CXR- preferable to confirm diagnosis

(do not have to have definitive pathogen)

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24
Q

pneumonia diagnostics

what does bacterial, viral, and atypical show?

A
  • Bacterial pneumonia shows lobar infiltrates/consolidation, or a round
    pneumonia with pleural effusion
  • Viral pneumonia shows diffuse, streaky infiltrates in the bronchi and
    hyperinflation
  • Atypical pneumonia shows increased interstitial markings or
    bronchopneumonia
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25
Q

pneumonia inpatient testing

A
  • Hospitalized patients should have CBC, CMP
  • ABG
  • CXR: pulmonary opacity is required for diagnosis
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26
Q

classic sign of typical pneumonia

A

(one lobe affected)
- lobar infiltrates/consolodation

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27
Q

classic sign of atypical pneumonia

A

increased interstitial markings

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28
Q

classic sign of viral pneumonia

A

both sides affected
diffuse, streaky inflitrates

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29
Q

pneumonia inpatient testing to identify the pathogen

A

sputum culture/ gram stain before starting Abx

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30
Q

pneumonia treatment without complications (CAP outpatient empiric Abx)

A

make sure they are healthy persons who have not taken antibiotics within the past 3 months and not in an area of high macrolide resistant S. Pneumo

azithromycin (at least 5 days), doxy, or amoxicillin

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31
Q

pneumonia treatment if
* infants under 6 months of age with bacterial pneumonia
* concern for a pathogen with increased virulence (MRSA)
* concerns about the patient’s or caregiver’s ability to follow recommendations and to
assess symptom progression

A

hospitalization

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32
Q

CAP outpatient treatment if they have high risk for drug resistant like
* Abx therapy in last 90 days
* Age > 65
* Comorbidities
* Immunosuppression
* Exposure to a child in day car

A

Macrolide plus beta lactam (high dose amoxicillin or amox-clav are
preferred)
* Or Respiratory fluoroquinolone (levo, moxi, gemi

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33
Q

CAP – Inpatient Treatment not ICU

A

Macrolide + beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftaroline, ampicillin-
sulbactam)
* Or Respiratory Fluoroquinolone

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34
Q

CAP – Inpatient Treatment in ICU

A

Anti-pneumococcal beta-lactam (cefoxatime, ceftriaxone, ceftaroline, or
ampicillin-sulbactam) plus either azithromycin or a respiratory fluoroquinolone
(moxi, gemi, or levofloxacin)

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35
Q

CAP – Inpatient Treatment in ICU
If PCN allergy:

A

Fluoroquinolone + aztreonam

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36
Q

complications of pneumonia

A

empyema
lung abscess
sepsis

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37
Q

how to prevent pneumonia

A

Pneumococcal vaccine for adults age 65 and older and in those who
are immunocompromised or have chronic illnesses
* Annual influenza vaccine
* SARS-CoV-2 vaccine

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38
Q

when to admit for pneumonia

A

CRB-65 scale

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39
Q

When to admit to ICU for pneumonia?
Major Criteria:

1 major or 3 or more minor

A
  • Septic shock w/ need for
    vasopressor support
  • Respiratory failure w/
    need for mechanical
    ventilation
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40
Q

when to admit to ICU for pneumonia
* Minor criteria:

1 major or 3 or more minor

A
  • Respiratory rate 30
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypotension requiring
    aggressive fluid
    resuscitation
  • Confusion/disorientation
  • Multilobar pulmonary
    opacities
  • Leukopenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Uremia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Elevated lactate leve
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41
Q

occurs > 48 hours after admission to
the hospital or other health care facility and excludes any infection
present at the time of admission

A

HAP (nosocomial pneumonia)

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42
Q

develops > 48 hours following
endotracheal intubation

A

VAP (nosocomial pneumonia)

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43
Q

nosocomial risk factors

A
  • Antibiotic therapy in the preceding 90 days
  • Acute care hospitalization for at least 2 days in the preceding 90 days
  • Residence in a nursing home or extended care facility
  • Home infusion therapy, including chemotherapy, within the past 30 days
  • Long-term dialysis within the past 30 days
  • Home wound care
  • Family member with an infection involving a multiple drug-resistant
    pathogen
  • Immunosuppressive disease or immunosuppressive therapy
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44
Q

what is the pathogenesis of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Colonization of the pharynx and possibly the stomach with bacteria

Pharyngeal colonization is promoted by exogenous factors:
* instrumentation used during procedures
* contamination by dirty hands
* Equipment
* contaminated aerosols
* treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics that promote the emergence of drug-resistant organisms

  • Patient factors also involved: malnutrition, advanced age, altered
    consciousness, swallowing disorders, underlying pulmonary and systemic diseases
  • Within 48 hours of admission, 75% of seriously ill hospitalized patients
    have their upper airway colonized with organisms from the hospital
    environment
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45
Q

most common organisms in nosocomial pneumonias

A

Gram positive cocci
* Staph aureus (MSSA, MRSA), Streptococcus

Gram negative bacilli
* Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter

  • Anaerobic organisms-often polymicrobial
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46
Q

what may play a protective role against development of pneumonia

A

Gastric acid

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47
Q

why do patients taking antacids, H2 blockers, PPIs, or enteral feeding have a higher risk due to the alteration of the gastric pH

A
  • Change in pH can lead to gastric microbial overgrowth and tracheobronchial colonization
  • This leads to increased risk of esophageal, enteric infections, and lower respiratory tract infections
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48
Q

HAP – signs and symptoms

A

Can be non-specific
* Fever
* Leukocytosis
* Purulent sputum
* Worsening respiratory status

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49
Q

how to make a diagnosis for HAP

A

Two of these non specific symptoms + new or progressive opacity on CXR

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50
Q

labs for HAP

A
  • Blood cultures
51
Q

imaging/ labs for pleural effusion (HAP)

A

thoracentesis with pleural fluid analysis

52
Q

nosocomial pneumonia empiric treatment. ??

A

treatment based on risk factors:
* MRSA
* Multiple drug resistant pathogens
* Local antibiograms
* Mortality risk
* Duration is based on severity, response, comorbid condition
* Usually for 7 days, with some difference base
* HAP at high risk for mortality or VAP:
* Must consider and determine whether to cover:
* risk factors for MRSA
* risk factors for MDR
* Pseudomonas
* other gram-negative bacilli

53
Q
  • Atypical PNA
  • One of most common pathogens associated with CAP
  • mollicute genus of bacteria
  • Free living-can be passed person to person through respiratory
    droplets
  • Can also cause lower respiratory tract infection
  • Considered most common cause of “walking pneumonia”, as it usually causes a mild PNA
A

mycoplasma pneumonia

54
Q
  • Common cause of respiratory infection in children and young adults
  • may worsen asthma symptoms in children, adolescents, and adults and can also produce wheezing in children who do not have asthma
  • rates tend to rise in summer and peak in late fall
A

mycoplasma pneumonia

55
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia symptoms

A

often asymptomatic

56
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia treatment

A

URI and Acute bronchitis from Mycoplasma are usually self-limiting and don’t require treatment

57
Q

Gradual onset: may be heralded by headache, malaise, low-grade
fever, and sometimes sore throat
* Cough (either productive or nonproductive) typically follows and may be accompanied by pleuritic chest pain or shortness of breath.
* Chest soreness from persistent coughing is a common complaint

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

58
Q

what do you see on mycoplasma pneumonia chest x ray (varies a lot)

A

mild patchy hazy opacities

reticular nodular opacities or patchy consolidations

59
Q

What is treatment for CAP in a young healthy person (mycoplasma pneumonia)

A
  • M. pneumoniae infections may resolve spontaneously
  • Doxycycline, Azythromycin, Levofloxacin
60
Q
  • Atypical PNA
  • Outbreaks from contaminated water
  • showerheads, faucets, air conditioning
  • Most common in people who smoke, who have chronic lung disease or are immunocompromised
  • N/V/D are often prominent***
A

legionella pneumonia

61
Q

how to test for legionella pneumonia

A
  • Culture is 80-90% sensitive
  • Sputum PCR is also sensitive
62
Q

legionella pneumonia treatment

A

Azithromycin, Clarithromycin or a Fluoroquinolone (Levo)

63
Q
  • Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions can lead to pneumonia caused by anaerobic bacteria
  • typically happens in people with altered consciousness
  • Periodontal disease and poor dental hygiene are risk factors
  • Pneumonia usually starts in dependent lung zones
  • Onset of symptoms is insidious: often by the time the patient seeks
    treatment, necrotizing pneumonia, lung abscess or empyema is present
  • Multiple species of anaerobic bacteria are common
A

anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscess

64
Q
  • alcoholic
  • aspirates
  • poor hygiene
A

anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscess

65
Q
  • Fever
  • Weight loss**
  • Malaise
  • Cough with expectoration of foul-smelling purulent sputum is common**
  • Often have poor dentition
A

signs and symptoms of anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscess

66
Q

labs and imaging for anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscess

A
  • Culture can only be done via transthoracic aspiration, thoracentesis, or bronchoscopy-can’t use sputum
  • lung abscess CXR – thick-walled solitary cavity surrounded by
    consolidation; air fluid level is usually present
  • necrotizing pneumonia CXR – multiple areas of cavitation within an
    area of consolidation
  • Empyema CXR or US – purulent pleural fluid and may have pleural
    loculations
67
Q

thick- walled cavity (white arrow) with a smooth inner margin (red
arrow), located in the right lung.
An air-fluid level is present
(black arrow)

A

lung abscess

68
Q

infected effusion and
pleural adhesions frequently
associated with anaerobic
organisms introduced into lung
by aspiration

69
Q

Anaerobic PNA/Lung abscess Treatment

A
  • 1st line: β-lactam-β-lactamase inhibitor (BLBLI) combination antibiotics
  • such as piperacillin-tazobactam or amoxicillin- clavulanate
  • Or a Carbapenem
70
Q

empyema treatment

A

Tube thoracostomy or open pleural drainage

71
Q

most common cause in infants

72
Q

most common in children older than age 5

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

73
Q

risk factors for pneumonia in children

A
  • GERD (can occur in infants and children)
  • Neurologic impairment: aspiration
  • immunocompromised status
  • anatomic abnormalities of the respiratory tract: severe
    tracheomalacia
  • hospitalization especially if in an ICU
  • common when objects are inhaled
74
Q
  • Neonates – fever, hypoxia, subtle or absent physical exam findings
  • Young infant – apnea may be the only sign; +/- fever
  • Older infant and young children – fever, chills, tachypnea, cough,
    malaise, pleuritic chest pain, retractions, apprehension, difficulty
    breathing, shortness of breath
  • Older children present similarly to adults – fever, cough with or
    without sputum production, dyspnea
  • May also experience sweats, chills, rigors, chest discomfort, pleurisy,
    hemoptysis, fatigue, myalgias, anorexia, headache and abdominal pain
A

pneumonia in children signs and symptoms

75
Q
  • Causes annual outbreaks during winter –peak in Jan, Feb
  • Most significant LRI cause in young children worldwide
  • Leading cause of hospitalization in children in the US
76
Q

RSV prophylaxis

A
  • RSV antibody immunization is recommended for all infants who are
    younger than 8 months, born during or entering their first RSV season
  • IF birth parent did not receive RSV vaccine
  • or IF birth is within 14 days of vaccine administration
  • Additionally, a dose of RSV antibody (nirsevimab) is also recommended for children between the ages of 8 – 19 months entering their second RSV
    season who are in at least one of these groups:
  • Children who have chronic lung disease from being born premature and are requiring medical therapy for their lung disease
  • Children who are severely immunocompromised
  • Children with cystic fibrosis who have severe disease
  • American Indian and Alaska Native children
77
Q

major risk factor for RSV

A

prematurity

78
Q

what is RSV associated with later in life

A

airway reactivity (asthma)

79
Q

Proliferation and necrosis of
bronchiolar epithelium
produces obstruction and
increased mucus secretion

A

RSV pathophysiology

80
Q
  • Low grade fever

Bronchiolitis:***
* Wheezing
* Cough
* Tachypnea
* Difficulty feeding
* cyanosis

  • Grunting in an infant (characteristic)*****
  • Crackles**
  • Prolonged expiration
  • Retractions
  • Liver and spleen may be palpable because they are pushed down, but not actually enlarged
  • Apnea
  • Lethargy
A

RSV signs and symptoms

81
Q

how to diagnose RSV

A
  • Clinical diagnosis of bronchiolitis is made in infant or child with
    prodrome of upper respiratory infection lasting 1-3 days followed by
    persistent cough
  • plus tachypnea and/or chest retractions
  • plus wheeze and/or crackles on auscultation
82
Q

do you do RSV testing for a healthy kid

A

no (not routine)

83
Q

if you have RSV in a patient needing to be hospitalized what testing do you do to identify the pathogen

A

RT-PCR: reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction with
nasopharyngeal swab

84
Q

chest xray: hyperinflation and slightly flattened diaphragms**

A

bronchiolitis (RSV)

85
Q

RSV treatment

A
  • Time
  • Hospitalize if hypoxic or unable to feed
  • Respiratory isolation
  • Supportive care
  • Hydration**
  • Humidifier or humidified oxygen
  • Nasal suction
  • Respiratory support as needed, rarely ventilation
86
Q
  • caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • Slow growing bacteria
  • It can present as a pulmonary illness or have extrapulmonary
    involvement.
  • It is treatable
  • Higher rates among
  • Malnourished
    *Houseless/overcrowding/substandard housing
  • HIV-positive pts
  • IVDU
A

tuberculosis

87
Q

how is TB spread

A

aerosolized droplets
– then alveolar macrophages ingest TB

88
Q
  • TB spread by aerosolized droplets
  • Alveolar macrophages ingest TB
  • If macrophage microbicidal activity fails, infection follows
  • Lymph and hematogenous spread occurs, causing:
A

primary TB

89
Q

T cells and macrophages in health people surround the organisms and
contain them in granulomas, which prevents spread, and the disease
can remain dormant which is not infectious and not active

90
Q

reactivation of TB

91
Q

TB screening for health care workers

A

tuberculin skin test (TST) and interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs)

92
Q
  • Slowly progressive constitutional Sx
  • Malaise, anorexia, weight loss, fever, night sweats
  • Chronic cough-starts dry them changes to productive
  • most common symptom is productive cough for > 2 weeks
  • Blood-streaked sputum

PE:
* Chronically ill
* Malnourished
* No specific pulm findings

A

signs and symptoms of TB

93
Q

standard testing screening test for TB

A

Mantoux PPD test

  • 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD) containing 5 tuberculin
    units is injected intradermally on the volar surface of the forearm
    using a 27-gauge needle on a tuberculin syringe.
  • The transverse width in millimeters of induration at the skin test site
    is measured after 48–72 hours**
  • To optimize test performance, criteria for determining a positive
    reaction vary depending on the likelihood of infection
94
Q

size on induration of PPD
less than 5mm results

A

negative for TB

95
Q

size on induration of PPD
at least 5mm results positive if:

A
  • you’ve had recent contact with someone with TB
  • you are HIV positive
  • had an organ transplant
  • taking immunosuppressants
  • previously had TB
96
Q

size on induration of PPD
at least 10mm results positive if:

A
  • recently immigrated from a country with high incidence of TB
  • live in high risk environment
  • work in hospital, medical lab, or other high risk setting
  • child under age of 4
  • used injected drugs
97
Q

size on induration of PPD
at least 15mm results:

98
Q
  • Previous TB vaccination with the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)
    vaccine
  • Infection with nontuberculosis mycobacteria (mycobacteria other
    than M. tuberculosis)
  • Incorrect measurement or interpretation of reaction
  • Incorrect antigen used
  • TB blood tests–interferon-gamma release assays or IGRAs are
    preferred method for people who have received the vaccin
A

TB false positives for TST

99
Q

who should be tested for TB

A
  • People who have spent time with someone who has TB disease
  • People from a country where TB disease is common
  • People who live or work in high-risk settings (for example:
    correctional facilities, long-term care facilities or nursing homes, and
    homeless shelters)
  • Health-care workers who care for patients at increased risk for TB
    disease
  • Infants, children and adolescents exposed to adults who are at
    increased risk for latent tuberculosis infection or TB disease
100
Q

what do you do after positive screening TB test

A
  • Chest XR and Physical exam
  • May do other testing depending on suspicion
101
Q

latent TB treatment

A

Isoniazid plus rifapentine once weekly for 3 months recommended for adults and children aged ≥ 2 years, including persons with HIV if drug interactions allow.
* Rifampicin monotherapy daily for 4 months recommended for adults and
children without HIV.
* Isoniazid plus rifampicin daily for 3 months in adults and children without HIV and persons with HIV if drug interactions allow

102
Q

gold standard for suspected TB infection to identify pathogen

A

sputum culture-6-8 week return

103
Q

active TB treatment 6 month regimen

A
  • Directly observed therapy (DOT): requires that a health care worker
    physically observe the patient ingest antituberculous medications in
    the home, clinic, hospital, or elsewhere, also improves adherence to treatment.

6 month regimen:
* The initial phase of a 6-month regimen consists of 2 months of daily isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
* Once the isolate is determined to be isoniazid-sensitive, ethambutol may be discontinued.

  • If the M tuberculosis isolate is susceptible to isoniazid and rifampin, the second phase of therapy consists of isoniazid and rifampin for a minimum of 4 additional
    months
  • treatment extends at least 3 months beyond documentation of conversion of sputum cultures to negative for M tuberculosis
104
Q

active TB treatment 9 month regimen

A

9 month regimen for those who cannot take pyrazinamide:
* daily isoniazid and rifampin along with ethambutol for 4–8 weeks
* If susceptibility to isoniazid and rifampin is demonstrated or drug
resistance is unlikely, ethambutol can be discontinued, and isoniazid
and rifampin may be given for a total of 9 months of therapy

105
Q

drug resistant TB is resistant to either

A

isoniazid or rifampin

106
Q

multidrug resistant TB is resistant to

A

both isoniazid or rifampin and possible others

107
Q

active TB precautions

A

Hospitalized patients with active disease require a private room with appropriate
environmental controls, including negative-pressure ventilation where available, until tubercle bacilli are no longer found in their sputum (“smear-negative”) on three
consecutive smears taken on separate days

108
Q
  • occurs due to lymphohematogenous spread and commonly involves
    multiple organs
  • millet seed-sized (1 to 2 mm) tuberculous foci—disseminated disease
  • accounts for 1%-2% of TB cases
  • typically presents 2-6 months after initial infection
A

miliary TB

109
Q

miliary TB treatment

A

same as pulmonary TB

110
Q

rifampin side effects

A

red-orange secretions and urine

111
Q
  • Disseminated:
  • at least two non-contiguous organ sites of the body
  • or infection of the blood, bone marrow or liver.
  • Miliary mottling on a chest radiograph is the classical hallmark
  • classified as both pulmonary and extrapulmonary tuberculosis
A

miliary TB

112
Q

ethambutol side effects

A

visual problems

113
Q

isoniazid side effects

A

peripheral neuritis

114
Q

pyrazinamide side effects

A

increased uric acid

115
Q

streptomycin side effects

116
Q

causes acute respiratory disease
* Transmitted primarily through respiratory droplets within close
contact
* Aerosol, fomites
* Dysregulated inflammatory response and a hypercoagulable state
* Viral protein binds the ACE2 receptors
* Causes dysregulation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

117
Q
  • Symptoms arise 2-14 days after exposure, mean incubation of 5 days
  • Fever or chills
  • Cough, SHOB
  • HA, muscle aches, dizziness, fatigue
  • Sore throat, congestion, runny nose
  • Loss of smell or taste***
  • N/V/D, abdominal pain, anorexia
  • Confusion, impaired consciousness
  • Rash
  • Asymptomatic in up to 30% of patients
118
Q

current preferred
method of confirmation for covid 19

A

SARS-CoV-2 nucleic acid amplification test is current preferred
method of confirmation-usually done by nasal swab

119
Q
  • Infection from Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Lungs, sinuses and brain are most frequently involved organs
  • 3 clinical syndromes: Allergic, chronic, invasive
  • Invasive: disease of the immunocompromised or critically ill
  • At risk with COVID-19
  • Severe necrotizing PNA
  • Invasive sinus disease
  • Possible CNS or other organ involvement
A

aspergillosis

120
Q

covid 19 treatment

A
  • Hospitalization on a case-by-base basis

For non-hospitalized patients:
* Supportive care and try to reduce transmission

Consider for pts at high-risk for disease progression:
* Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid)

121
Q

how to get a definitive diagnosis for invasive aspergillosis

A

tissue or culture

122
Q

what should you do if you have a clinical suspicion of invasive aspergillosis

A

chest CT: nodules, wedge shaped infarcts, halo sign

123
Q

Invasive Aspergillosis
* Prophylaxis for high risk Pts:

A
  • Posaconazole or voriconazole
124
Q

invasive aspergillosis treatment

A
  • 1st choice: IV voriconazole