Pulm & Heme Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Albuterol Class

A

SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Terbutaline Class

A

SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Salmeterol Class

A

LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chromolyn sodium Class

A

mast cell stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Omalizumab Class

A

immunodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Zafirlukast Class

A

leukotriene modifier (LTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Montelukast Class

A

leukotriene modifier (LTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Zileuton Class

A

leukotriene modifier (LTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prednisone Class

A

oral glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Beclomethasone Class

A

inhaled glucocorticoid (ICS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Budesonide Class

A

inhaled glucocorticoid (ICS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fluticasone Class

A

inhaled glucocorticoid (ICS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ipratropium Class

A

Short-acting anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tiotropium Class

A

Long-acting anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nicotine patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, spray Class

A

nicotine replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Varenicline Class

A

nicotine partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Buproprion Class

A

antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diltiazem Class

A

calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Verapamil Class

A

calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Epoprostenol Class

A

prostacyclin analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bosentan Class

A

endothelin receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sildenafil Class

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Roflumilast Class

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) Class

A

antithrombin agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) Class

A

antithrombin agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fondaparinux Class

A

antithrombin agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Warfarin Class

A

oral anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pirfenidone Class

A

drugs in IPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Nintenadib Class

A

drugs in IPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Albuterol, terbutaline, Salmeterol mechanism

A

bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chromolyn sodium mechanism

A

prevents the release of histamine, etc, from mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Omalizumab mechanism

A

IgE binding in circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Zafirlukast, Montelukast mechanism

A

leukotreine D4 (LTD4) receptor antangonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Zileuton mechanism

A

inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prednisone, Beclomethasone, Busesonide, Fluticasone mechanism

A

upregulate expression of anti-inflammatory genes & genes that increase gluconeogenesis, downregulates proinflammatory genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ipratropium, Tiotropium mechanism

A

blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in lung smooth muscle, allowing bronchi to stay open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Nicotine patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, spray mechanism

A

delivers nicotine so pt. does not have to smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Varenicline mechanism

A

oral partial agonist of alpha4beta2 subunit of nicotinic ACh receptor, stimulates receptor (decreases withdrawal), and blocks nicotine from binding (reduces reward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Buproprion mechanism

A

non-competitive nicotinic antagonist, increased dopamine transmission in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Diltiazem, Verapamil mechanism

A

block L-type calcium channel receptors in smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Epoprostenol mechanism

A

mimics prostacylin in the prostacyclin pathway, stimulares adenylate cyclase, causing increased cAMP and vasodilation, antiproliferation, and antiplatelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bosentan mechanism

A

blocks endothelin A & B receptors on smooth muscles, cardiac myocytes, and endothelial cells (B only), preventing sustained vasoconstriction and proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sildenafil mechanism

A

Inhibits PDE-5, thus inhibiting deactivation of cGMP in NO pathway, causes vasodilation and antiproliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Roflumilast mechanism

A

oral PDE-4 inhibitor, decreases airway inflammation and promotes airway smooth muscle relaxation

45
Q

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) mechanism

A

complexes with antithrombin to inactivate thrombin

46
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), Fondaparinux mechanism

A

complexes with antithrombin to inactivate factor Xa

47
Q

Warfarin mechanism

A

inhibits vit. K dependent gamma-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX, and X

48
Q

Pirfenidone mechanism

A

inhibits release of proinflammatory cytokines, attentuates fibroblast proliferation, inhibits release of TGF-beta, and inhibits collagen synthesis

49
Q

Nintenadib mechanism

A

growth factor/angiokinase inhibitor at the vascular endothelial growth factor, fibroblast growth factor, and platelet derived growth factor receptors

50
Q

Albuterol, Terbutaline indications

A

Step 1 asthma (intermittent); used in emergency situations to reduce/eliminate SOB, coughing, and wheezing, Symptom relief and increase FEV1 for COPD, acute COPD exacerbation

51
Q

Salmeterol indications

A

Used in combination with ICS in persistent asthma, steps 3-6, Controller medication for COPD (decreases symptoms and acute exacerbation rate, increases FEV1)

52
Q

Chromolyn sodium indications

A

Used to prevent wheezing, SOB, and trouble breathing caused by asthma

53
Q

Omalizumab indications

A

Used in cases of allergic asthma triggers, particularly in steps 5 & 6 persistent asthma

54
Q

Zafirlukast, Montelukast, Zileuton indications

A

Alternate treatment in cases of persistent asthma, steps 2 and in combination with ICS in steps 3 & 4

55
Q

Prednisone indications

A

Used as both emergency and long-term controller situations for asthma

56
Q

Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Flucasone indications

A

Used in combination with LABA, LTRA, or theophylline for persistent asthma, steps 2-6; Controller medication for COPD (decreases symptoms and acute exacerbation rate, increases FEV1)

57
Q

Ipratropium indications

A

Symptom relief and increases FEV1 for COPD (slower than SABA), acute COPD exacerbation

58
Q

Tiotropium indications

A

Controller medication for COPD (decreases symptoms and acute exacerbation rate, increases FEV1)

59
Q

Nicotine patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, spray indications

A

Smoking cessation

60
Q

Varenicline indications

A

Smoking cessation – can quit smoking 1 week after initiating therapy

61
Q

Buproprion indications

A

Smoking cessation – reduces severity of nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms

62
Q

Diltiazem, verapamil indications

A

PAH for patients who are highly vasoreactive (robust acute responder)

63
Q

Epoprostenol indications

A

Improves hemodynamics, functional capacity, and survival in patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, high and lower risk patients

64
Q

Bosentan indications

A

Improve hemodynamics and functional capacity in PAH patients

65
Q

Sildenafil indications

A

Improves hemodynamics and functional capacity in patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, high and lower risk patients

66
Q

Roflumilast indications

A

Improves FEV1 and decreases exacerbation rate in COPD

67
Q

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) indications

A

Initial therapy for DVT

68
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) indications

A

Initial therapy for DVT, but reduces VTE and bleeding compared to UFH, for PE in unstable pts. and those w/high bleeding risk, VTE prevention (also Heparin)

69
Q

Fondaparinux indications

A

initial therapy for DVT, equal to LMWH, PE in hemodynamically stable pts

70
Q

Warfarin indications

A

prevention of recurrent DVT and PE

71
Q

Pirfenidone indications

A

slows the course of disease progression in IPF

72
Q

Nintenadib indications

A

may have efficacy in IPF

73
Q

Albuterol, terbutaline side effects

A

Tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, hypokalemia

74
Q

Salmeterol side effects

A

Tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, hypokalemia, increased risk of COPD exasperation, asthma death?

75
Q

Chromolyn sodium side effects

A

Sore throat, bad taste, stomach pain, cough, stuffy nose, itching or burning in nasal passages, sneezing, headache

76
Q

Omalizumab side effects

A

possible anaphylaxis (rare)

77
Q

Zafirlukast side effects

A

Cough or hoarseness, fever, chills, lower back or side pain, pain, pain or difficult urination

78
Q

Montelukast side effects

A

GI disturbances, headaches, hypersensitivity reactions, sleep disorders, bleeding tendency

79
Q

Zileuton side effects

A

Sinusitis, nausea, pharyngolaryngeal pain

80
Q

Prednisone side effects

A

Adrenal suppression, growth suppression, osteoporosis, muscle weakness, hypertension, weight gain, diabetes, cataracts, Cushing’s syndrome, dermal thinning

81
Q

Beclomethasone, budesonide, Fluticasone side effects

A

Oropharyngeal thrush, cataracts, osteoporosis, increased risk of pneumonia in COPD patients?

82
Q

Ipratropium, tiotropium side effects

A

dry mouth

83
Q

Nicotine patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, spray side effects

A

Headache, nausea and GI problems, difficulty getting to sleep (with patch especially), may not be safe in pregnancy

84
Q

Varenicline side effects

A

nausea, headache, insomnia, abnormal dreams; depression, suicidal thoughts and actions; small increased risk of adverse events in pts with cardiovascular disease

85
Q

Buproprion side effects

A

insomnia, headache, changes in behavior: hostility, agitation, depressed mood and suicidal thought

86
Q

Diltiazem side effects

A

Dizziness, headache, flushing, weakness, bradycardia, GI sx, coughing

87
Q

Verapamil side effects

A

Don’t take verapamil with beta blockers due to risk of severe bradycardia

88
Q

Epoprostenol, Sildenafil side effects

A

Headache, dizziness, flushing, nasal congestion; jaw pain, delivery system problems; cautious use in hypotensive pts, intrinsic lung disease, elevated LA pressure. ALWAYS WEAN to avoid withdrawal

89
Q

Bosentan side effects

A

Teratogenic, peripheral edema, anemia

90
Q

Roflumilast side effects

A

diarrhea, weightloss

91
Q

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) side effects

A

bleeding

92
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), Fondaparinux side effects

A

Caution in specific populations, such as pregnant women, elderly, obese, renal disease

93
Q

Warfarin side effects

A

interaction with diet, genetics, multiple drugs. Teratogenic

94
Q

Albuterol, Terbutaline notes

A

Oral has more side effects than inhaled. For COPD, albuterol is used with ipratropium

95
Q

Salmeterol used with what in COPD?

A

used with a steroid for COPD, use only with another controller (such as ICS)

96
Q

Chromolyn sodium no longer available as?

A

no longer available as inhalation (replaced by LTRAs)

97
Q

Omalizumab, Montelukast associated with

A

possibly associated with Churg-Strauss (allergic granulomatosis)

98
Q

Prednisone oral unless

A

oral preferred to IV for pts w/o altered mental status

99
Q

Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Flucasone not used where?

Used with what for COPD?

A

not used in ED, sometimes used with LABA from COPD

100
Q

Ipratropium used with what for COPD

A

for COPD, sometimes used with albuterol

101
Q

Nicotine patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, spray quit rate

A

6mo quit rate: 25%

102
Q

Varenicline quit rate

A

6mo quit rate: 24%

103
Q

Buproprion quit rate

A

6mo quit rate: 33%

104
Q

Epoprostenol administered

A

IV only

105
Q

Bosentan is old or new?

A

newer drug

106
Q

Sildenafil administered

A

Oral, IV

roflumilast is oral

107
Q

Roflumilast has not been studied in combination with

A

ICS

108
Q

Unfractionated heparin (UFH):
administeration and window?
reverses with?
crosses the placenta?

A

IV, narrow therapeutic window, reversible with protamine, does not cross placenta

109
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):

administration

A

subcutaneous injection