PULM/CRIT-CARE Flashcards

1
Q

When should you prone pts?

A

Prone positioning for 12 hours daily in pts with ARDS and arterial PO2/FIO2 <150 mm Hg, FIO2 ≥0.60 on PEEP>5 cm H2O, who have been intubated for less than 48 hours.

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2
Q

Tx for hospitalized patients suspected of having obesity hypoventilation syndrome?

A

Noninvasive ventilation with either bilevel positive airway pressure or volume-targeted pressure support.

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3
Q

Indication for Roflumilast?

A

Selective phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor reduces symptoms & exacerbations in patients with severe COPD who have a chronic bronchitis phenotype or frequent exacerbations.

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4
Q

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)?

A

After attempts in hemostasis via pharmacologic and endoscopic, helps in managing acute variceal bleeding and preventing recurrent variceal hemorrhage.

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5
Q

Why to avoid over transfusing pt Hgb > 10 in portal hypertension and acute gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Rapidly increases portal pressure, putting the patient at significant risk for rebleeding.

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6
Q

What is recurrence prevention?

A

Catheter thoracostomy followed by pleurodesis in the second episode of pneumothorax on the same side in primary spontaneous pneumothorax and after the first occurrence in secondary spontaneous pneumothorax.

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7
Q

Treatment of nonexertional heat stroke?

A

Evaporative cooling (with water mist and fans) with or without ice packs to lower the core temperature to a safe temperature, usually 38.5 °C (101.3 °F).

Don’t use ice water immersions.

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8
Q

Low risk for malignancy nodule?

A

Smaller than 6 mm in size requires no further follow-up.

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9
Q

Tx of COPD?

A

Regardless of COPD severity, β2-agonists and anticholinergic/antimuscarinic agents are the mainstay of therapy.

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10
Q

Initial management of COPD?

A

SABA, but a LABA or LAMA should be added if symptoms remain poorly controlled.

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11
Q

How to tx pts with smoke inhalation?

A

Bronchoscopy, and chest physiotherapy are frequently necessary to facilitate continued airway clearance.

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12
Q

Workup if V/Q scan abnormal in suspicion of chronic thromboembolism pulmonary HTN?

A

Right heart catheterization and pulmonary angiography.

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13
Q

Inadequately controlled mild persistent asthma on an inhaled glucocorticoid?

A

Start combined therapy with a low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and LABA in a single inhaler.

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14
Q

Azithromycin & COPD?

A

Long-term macrolide therapy reduces the frequency of exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and a history of frequent exacerbations.

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15
Q

Tx of malignant pleural effusion in patients with expandable lung ?

A

Indwelling pulmonary catheter or chemical pleurodesis with talc.

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16
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Fever, AMS, muscle rigidity, and dysautonomia and is seen with both first-generation antipsychotics and newer atypical antipsychotics and antiemetics.

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17
Q

Tx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Stopping drug, active cooling, and supportive care.

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18
Q

ARDS?

A

1 week of known ARDS insult; bilateral opacities on chest imaging consistent with pulmonary edema; respiratory failure not related to cardiac failure or volume overload; and arterial Po2/FIO2 ratio less than 300 on at least 5 PEEP

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19
Q

Tx of VTE in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

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20
Q

Tx of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Pirfenidone or nintedanib decreases the rate of progression of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis but is not curative. Lung transplantation is a life-prolonging therapy for those without comorbidities that may otherwise limit life expectancy.

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21
Q

Chlyothorax?

A

Triglyceride level greater than 110 mg/dL (1.24 mmol/L), and it is typically a lymphocytic predominant exudative effusion. Usually atraumatic cause is malignancy.

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22
Q

Tx of high-altitude pulmonary edema?

A

Reducing the pulmonary artery pressure; the patient should be given supplemental oxygen and advised to descend to a lower altitude as soon as possible and to limit physical exertion and cold exposure.

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23
Q

Sepsis & fluids?

A

30 mL/kg of intravenous crystalloid fluid be given within the first 3 hours. (LR)

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24
Q

Pulmonary nodule 6 mm or larger?

A

Follow-up chest CT at 6 to 12 months; if it persists but is unchanged in size, CT should be repeated at 2-year intervals for 5 years.

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25
Q

Diagnose a complicated parapneumonic effusion.

A

Pleural fluid pH level of less than 7.2 (or glucose <40 mg/dL) is the best indicator of a complicated pleural effusion that requires drainage.

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26
Q

Tx of exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?

A

Daily inhaled glucocorticoid plus a SABA or low-dose budesonide-formoterol before exercise.

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27
Q

Ideal patients for lung volume reduction therapy?

A

Upper-lobe-predominant emphysema, FEV1 and DLCO of 20% of predicted or higher, and low exercise tolerance after completion of pulmonary rehabilitation.

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28
Q

Indications for hemodialysis in the setting of ethylene glycol or methanol toxicity?

A

Severe anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ involvement (kidney impairment, visual changes).

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29
Q

Scoring system for ICU care?

A

National Early Warning Score (NEWS), systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and Modified Early Warning Score (MEWS)

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30
Q

Pulmonary embolism EKG?

A

S1Q3invertedT3 pattern, right ventricular strain, and new incomplete right bundle branch block.

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31
Q

Test for cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat chloride testing, with genetic testing confirming the diagnosis

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32
Q

Hydrocortisone in septic shock?

A

Dosage for refractory septic shock varies from a maximum of 200 mg to 400 mg daily.

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33
Q

Montelukast side effect?

A

Discontinued in patients with symptoms suggestive of depression. Anaphylaxis, angioedema, dizziness, dyspepsia, muscle weakness, and elevated transaminases

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34
Q

Lines in hemorrhagic shock?

A

2 peripheral IV lines: 18 gauge. Rapid and large-volume fluid administration = short and has a wide-diameter lumen will maximize flow rates.

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35
Q

Cholangitis?

A

Fever, jaundice, and right-upper-quadrant abdominal pain. Tx: Common bile duct stones should be removed urgently with ERCP and then elective cholecystectomy

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36
Q

Pancreatitis?

A

2/3 Criteria: (1) acute-onset abdominal pain characteristic of pancreatitis (severe, persistent for hours to days, and epigastric in location, often radiating to the back); (2) serum lipase or amylase levels elevated to three to five times the upper limit of normal; and (3) characteristic radiographic findings on contrast-enhanced CT.

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37
Q

Serotonin syndrome?

A

AMS, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, tremor, autonomic instability, muscle, and ocular clonus, and hyperreflexia. Tx: agitation with lorazepam IV&raquo_space;> cyproheptadine

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38
Q

FEV1/FVC normal?

A

> 70%

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39
Q

FEV1 normal?

A

> 80%

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40
Q

DLCO normal?

A

> 75%

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41
Q

Why steroids in COPD exacerbations?

A

Improve FEV1 and hypoxia; decrease the need for hospitalization when used early; and decrease the frequency of treatment failures, length of stay, and time to subsequent exacerbations.

Tx: prednisone 40 mg/d for 5 days

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42
Q

Malignant hyperthermia?

A

Response to inhaled anesthetic agents or depolarizing paralytic agents such as succinylcholine, resulting in muscle rigidity, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac arrhythmias, and significant core body temperature elevation.

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43
Q

Tx of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Discontinuing the triggering agent, active cooling, and administration of the muscle relaxant dantrolene.

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44
Q

Rhabdomyolysis?

A

Elevated serum creatine kinase, potassium, and phosphorus levels and myoglobinuria

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45
Q

Central sleep apnea?

A

Pauses in breathing due to a loss of output from the central respiratory generators in the brainstem to the muscles that make up the respiratory pump. Associated with heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and opioid use.

Sleep test: crescendo-decrescendo pattern of airflow

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46
Q

Criteria for intubation?

A

Is patency or protection of the airway at risk?
Is oxygenation or ventilation failing?
Is a need for intubation anticipated (ie, what is the expected clinical course)?

Indications: significant hypoxia, inability to ventilate properly, and airway compromise.

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47
Q

COPD pts failing adequate oxygen?

A

Try BIPAP for 2 hours if still not improving then intubate.

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48
Q

Annual lose dose CT?

A

Age 50 through 80 years who have no symptoms of lung cancer, have at least a 20-pack-year smoking history, and are current smokers or have quit within the last 15 years.

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49
Q

Radiation pneumonitis?

A

Cough, shortness of breath, and radiographic infiltrates 4 to 12 weeks after radiation exposure.

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50
Q

When to start parenteral nutrition in critically ill pts?

A

After 7 to 10 days of inability to achieve more than 60% of energy and protein requirements by the enteral route alone.

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51
Q

CO poisioning?

A

Confusion, headache, and nausea/vomiting; more severe poisoning may result in seizures, coma, and death.

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52
Q

CO poisioning Tx?

A

Remove the patient from the source as quickly as possible and to administer high-flow oxygen regardless of pulse oximetry or arterial PO2 level.

53
Q

Tx for eosinophilic asthma?

A

Add-on therapy with the anti-interleukin (IL)-5 antibodies mepolizumab or reslizumab, the anti–IL-5 receptor antibody benralizumab, or the IL-4 and IL-13 inhibitor dupilumab is indicated to reduce exacerbations, hospitalizations, emergency department visits, and the need for oral glucocorticoids.

54
Q

COPD spirometry?

A

Postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70.

55
Q

COPD air-travel safety?

A

Patients not using baseline oxygen and with a resting SpO2 less than 92% should be prescribed supplemental oxygen during air travel without additional testing.

56
Q

Light’s criteria for exudate?

A

Ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein >0.5, ratio of pleural-fluid lactate dehydrogenase [LDH] to serum LDH greater than 0.6, and pleural-fluid LDH greater than two thirds of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH

57
Q

Exudative pleural effusion meets one of the light’s critieria?

A

Malignancy & Infection

58
Q

Transudative pleural effusion?

A

Heart Failure, Nephrotic, Hepatic hydrothorax Etc

59
Q

Tube feeding in critically ill pts?

A

Gradually increased to their goal over the course of 3 to 7 days, or else risk for refeeding syndrome

60
Q

Diagnose glucocorticoid-responsive asthma with fractional exhaled nitric oxide testing.

A

Fractional exhaled nitric oxide levels above 50 ppb correlate with eosinophilic airway inflammation and predict response to inhaled glucocorticoids.

61
Q

Worsening COPD/Asthma?

A

Unable to speak in full sentences; use of accessory muscles of respiration; RR > 30/min, HR >120/min; SpO2 < 90% on RA and agitation, confusion, or drowsiness.

62
Q

Fat embolism other associations?

A

Pancreatitis, osteomyelitis, and lipid infusion.

63
Q

Tx of CTEPH if not surgical candidates or don’t want surgery?

A

Riociguat -> stimulator of soluble guanylate cyclase, the primary receptor for nitric oxide or Balloon pulmonary angioplasty

64
Q

BIPAP in Asthma?

A

Intubate do not put on BIPAP

65
Q

Treat neuromuscular disease with what oxygen setting?

A

BIPAP if awake and alert and able to communicate

66
Q

Tx declining oxygen in pneumonia?

A

Intubation not BiPAP

67
Q

Tall peaked p waves on leads 2,3,aVF?

A

Right atrial enlargement

68
Q

Exudative pleural fluid?

A

Low pH & low glucose levels

69
Q

Silicosis?

A

CXR: upper lobe nodules and lower lobe emphysema

70
Q

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

B symptoms: hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, cytopenias

71
Q

Chylothorax?

A

Triglyceride in pleural effusion > 110

72
Q

Tx of malignant mesothelioma?

A

Largely palliative as cure rates are low.

73
Q

Focal vs diffuse bronchiectasis?

A

Focal = upper airway obstruction due to tumor/foreign body vs diffuse = cystic fibrosis

74
Q

Laryngeal edema?

A

Usually post-extubation stridor -> respiratory failure

75
Q

Why hypoxemia in chronic COPD?

A

V/Q mismatch, supplemental O2 delivers higher FIO2 to alveoli with low V/Q ratio

76
Q

Elevated ADA in pleural fluid?

A

TB. Do pleural biopsy.

77
Q

Tx of ABPA?

A

Steriods + Itraconazole&raquo_space;> Omalizumab

78
Q

ABPA?

A

Associated with asthma + CF, CXR: infiltrates, CT: central bronchiectasis. Eosinophils > 500, IgE > 400.

79
Q

Most reliable confirmation of ET tube placement in trachea vs esophagus?

A

Capnography (measurement of CO2 on exhaled breath)/ or colorimetric CO2 detector: litmus paper changes color from purple to yellow when exposed to CO2.

80
Q

Risk for parenteral nutrition?

A

Hypophosphatemia

81
Q

Do not use SCD?

A

In acute DVT, increases risk for clot dislodgement

82
Q

Indications of OSA?

A

BMI > 35, Age > 50, & Neck circumference > 43 cm (17 inches), HTN

83
Q

Signs of airway obstruction?

A

Hoarseness & Tracheal Deviation. Think intubation.

84
Q

How frequent to give epi in ACLS?

A

Every 3-5 min (4 min). No shock in PEA & Asystole. Only shock in pulseless VT/Vfib.

85
Q

Fiberoptic bronchoscopy?

A

Obtain tissue diagnosis prior to surgery for central located nodules not peripheral.

86
Q

When to give Abx in COPD?

A

Increased sputum volume or purulence and SOB, and if needs BIPAP.

87
Q

In what situation to avoid intubation?

A

Right ventricular failure and obstructive shock b/c introduced positive airway pressure -> decreases venous return and therefore decreased right ventricle afterload -> decreased cardiac output -> cardiac arrest

88
Q

Acute bronchitis?

A

Cough > 5 days but less than 3 weeks. Tx is supportive.

89
Q

Goal in brain dead pt donating organs?

A

Maintain euvolemic, normothermic or slightly hypothermic, normotensive states. Give fluids, desmopressin and vasopressors.

90
Q

Asthma symptoms?

A

Cough at night, exercise & allergen exposure & during forced expiration

91
Q

Pulse ox in CO?

A

Normal in patients with carbon monoxide and cyanide poisoning & Pulse oximetry may be falsely low in patients with shock.

92
Q

DLCO?

A

Gas transport across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

93
Q

Persistent airway secretions in cystic fibrosis tx?

A

Serosolized recombinant human DNase (dornase alfa) or hypertonic saline.

94
Q

IPF & intubation?

A

Do not intubate and mechanically ventilate patients with respiratory failure caused by IPF. Steriods ineffective as well.

95
Q

First-line therapy for PH?

A

Combination therapy with ambrisentan (prostacyclin analogue) and tadalafil (PDE-5 inhibitor) is the recommended.

Calcium channel blockers are used for patients demonstrating a vasodilator response on right heart catheterization.

96
Q

Tx when medications fail in PH?

A

Lung or heart-lung transplantation should be considered for patients in whom drug treatment is unsuccessful.

97
Q

Optimal MV associated with the prevention of ventilator-associated lung injury includes?

A

Plateau (end-inspiratory) pressure <30 cm H2O (even if this results in “permissive” hypercapnia and acidosis).

Lung-protective ventilation using volume-controlled ventilation with a tidal volume of 4 to 8 mL/kg of ideal body weight (low tidal volume)

98
Q

Extubation?

A

When a patient can maintain an arterial O2 saturation >90% breathing FIO2 ≤0.5, PEEP <5 cm H2O, and pH >7.30.

99
Q

ARDS pH toleration?

A

If the patient has ARDS, respiratory acidosis (pH ~7.2) should generally be tolerated rather than raising the tidal volume >4-8 mL/kg

100
Q

Increasing PEEP?

A

Lower cardiac output by reducing preload; this can worsen oxygen delivery to tissues. If no contraindications, attempt to increase preload with IV fluids.

101
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Manifests as asthma with eosinophilia, markedly high serum IgE levels, and intermittent pulmonary infiltrates

Diagnose with positive skin test for Aspergillus and IgG and IgE antibodies to Aspergillus, characteristic radiographic opacities in the upper lobes.

102
Q

Bronchiectasis causes?

A

Cystic fibrosis, aspiration, immunodeficiencies, and connective tissue diseases

Irreversible enlargement of the airways due to destruction of airway architecture.

An injury to the lung typically results in prolonged airway inflammation, which leads to localized injury with subsequent mucus stasis, which can lead to further airway obstruction, chronic infection, and inflammation with worsening bronchiectasis.

103
Q

Bronchiectasis symptoms?

A

Chronic cough, especially if the patient has a history of frequent respiratory infections or if the cough is productive.

Other possible symptoms include hemoptysis, wheezing, and chest pain.

Features that should alert the clinician to consider bronchiectasis, especially without significant smoking history, include clubbing and previous sputum cultures growing uncommon pathogens such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Aspergillus, or nontuberculous mycobacteria.

104
Q

Bronchiectasis dx?

A

Bronchiectasis is diagnosed by high-resolution chest CT; diagnostic criteria include airway diameter greater than that of its accompanying vessel and lack of distal airway tapering.

105
Q

Critical illness myopathy

A

Caused by channelopathy (a disease involving dysfunction of a cellular ion channel) triggered by sepsis and systemic disease.

No definitive treatment is available, but appropriate glycemic control, early mobilization and therapy, and minimizing glucocorticoid use improve prognosis.

106
Q

Cyanide poisoning

A

Cyanide is one of the most lethal poisons known. It inhibits cellular respiration by binding to cytochrome oxidase a3 in the mitochondria, blocking the cells’ ability to use oxygen for aerobic metabolism. This results in clinical signs of hypoxia, despite normal oxyhemoglobin saturation.

Symptoms often include headache, anxiety, nausea, and either a metallic or bitter almond odor and taste. More severe or prolonged exposure can lead to coma, seizures, liver or kidney injury, vomiting, ischemic pain, rhabdomyolysis, and death.

A normal lactate concentration effectively rules out significant cyanide exposure.

107
Q

CYANIDE POISONING TX

A

Inhalation exposure is common in house fires, where cyanide is produced and aerosolized when vinyl burns. Cyanide is a common coexposure with CO. Prolonged nitroprusside infusion may also result in cyanide toxicity.

Hydroxocobalamin avidly binds to cyanide to produce cyanocobalamin, which is soluble, nontoxic, and readily excreted. The usual dose is 5 g for an adult. Other antidotes include nitrites (amyl nitrite and sodium nitrite) to induce methemoglobin, which in turn binds cyanide, as well as sodium thiosulfate, which donates sulfur to combine with cyanide, producing harmless thiocyanate.

108
Q

Fat embolism?

A

Fat embolism is the entrance of fat globules in the systemic circulation. Common occurrence after trauma involving long bone fractures.

Fat embolism syndrome, however, is a rare but potentially lethal complication resulting from systemic manifestations of fat emboli when they lodge in capillaries and arterioles. It is a clinical diagnosis centered on the presence of a triad of respiratory insufficiency, neurologic dysfunction, and petechial rash in the appropriate clinical setting.

High-resolution CT findings are nonspecific, and imaging may be normal. There is no definitive therapy for established fat embolism syndrome.

Treatment is supportive, and most patients recover spontaneously and completely, although mortality can be as high as 5% to 20%.

109
Q

High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema?

A

The pulmonary vasculature constricts in response to hypoxia, resulting in increases in pulmonary vascular resistance.

An exaggerated increase in pulmonary artery pressure is associated with high-altitude pulmonary edema.

High-altitude pulmonary edema is uncommon but can be life-threatening.

Patients are often tachypneic and tachycardic, and crackles or wheezing can be heard on chest examination.

Pink, frothy sputum or frank hemoptysis may occur, which heralds worsening gas exchange and respiratory failure.

The treatment of choice is supplemental oxygen along with rest, both of which will acutely reduce pulmonary artery pressures.

Descent from altitude should be considered.

110
Q

Obesity Hypoventilation?

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS) results from a combination of the mechanical load on the respiratory pump and blunting of the ventilatory response to carbon dioxide.

Daytime hypercapnia, defined as a PCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg (5.9 kPa).

OSA is usually but not always superimposed. Biventricular heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, and volume overload are common.

Weight loss is essential and consideration can be given to bariatric surgery. Positive airway pressure therapy is indicated. (Outpt cpap, inpt bipap)

111
Q

Pulmonary HTN?

A

Patients with a resting mPAP of 20 mm Hg or greater measured by right heart catheterization.

A normal resting mPAP is around 14 mm Hg and is rarely above 20 mm Hg.

112
Q

Pulm HTN symptoms?

A

Symptoms include exertional dyspnea or lightheadedness, lower extremity edema, chest pain, palpitations, and in some cases syncope.

113
Q

Serotonin syndrome?

A

Mental status changes, dysautonomia, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, and other muscle abnormalities.

Management includes removing the offending agent and supportive care. Cyproheptadine is sometimes used off-label if benzodiazepines fail to control symptoms.

114
Q

Thoracic cage deformity (kyphoscoliosis)

A

Restrictive Lung Dx = Decreased VT or Increased VD/VT = Sleep-Related Hypoventilation Syndromes

115
Q

Small pneumothorax?

A

<2 cm on chest radiograph, minimal symptoms

Needle aspiration or admit to hospital for observation and supplemental oxygen (PSP may be managed as an outpatient if good access to medical care)

116
Q

Large pneumothorax?

A

> 2 cm on chest radiograph, breathlessness, and chest pain

Insertion of a small-bore (<14 Fr) thoracostomy tube with connection to a high-volume low-pressure suction system

117
Q

Tension pneumothorax?

A

Cardiovascular compromise (hypotension, increasing breathlessness) regardless of size

Emergent needle decompression followed by thoracostomy tube insertion

Note: If persistent air leak (>48 hours), refer to an interventional pulmonologist or thoracic surgeon.

118
Q

CAP Tx?

A

Outpatient empiric therapy for community-acquired pneumonia in otherwise healthy patients includes monotherapy with doxycycline/amoxicillin.

Recommended empiric regimens for hospitalized non-ICU patients include a parenteral β-lactam agent (a third-generation cephalosporin or ampicillin-sulbactam) plus a macrolide or monotherapy with a respiratory fluoroquinolone.

119
Q

Auto-PEEP?

A

Watch for auto-PEEP at high respiratory rates, which can cause hypotension by reducing preload

Don’t be tricked: If the patient has ARDS, respiratory acidosis (pH ~7.2) should generally be tolerated rather than raising the tidal volume >4-8 mL/kg

Auto-PEEP occurs when air flow does not return to zero at end-exhalation. It can occur in patients with COPD during spontaneous breathing. Dynamic lung hyperinflation caused by auto-PEEP worsens their inspiratory capacity because inhalation cannot be initiated from relaxation volume.

120
Q

Malignant hyperthermia?

A

Malignant hyperthermia occurs in people with a rare, autosomal dominant derangement in intracellular calcium metabolism that causes severe hyperthermia in response to inhaled anesthetic agents (such as halothane and isoflurane) or the depolarizing paralytic succinylcholine.

121
Q

Malignant hyperthermia tx?

A

Exposure to one of these agents may result in muscle rigidity, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac arrhythmias, and core body temperature elevation to 45 °C (113 °F) or greater. Mortality can reach 10%.

Treatment consists of discontinuing the triggering agent, active cooling, and administration of the muscle relaxant dantrolene every 5 to 10 minutes until muscle rigidity and hyperthermia resolve.

122
Q

Weaning

A

SBT from 30 minutes to 2 hours using low levels of pressure support (8 cm H2O or less) can identify patients who may be evaluated for extubation.

The use of NPPV immediately after extubation can prevent extubation failure in patients at high risk, such as those with heart failure, COPD, or hypercapnia.

123
Q

GCS?

A

GCS = 15
EYE RESPONSE MIN = 1, MAX = 4
VERBAL MIN = 1 , MAX = 5
MTOR MIN = 1, MAC = 6

124
Q

PFTs?

A

The four PFTs commonly used to measure static lung function are spirometry, flow-volume loops, lung volumes, and DLCO.

125
Q

Spirometry?

A

Spirometry is used to diagnose airflow obstruction such as asthma, COPD, and bronchiectasis.

FEV1/FVC <0.7 (or below the LLN) indicates airflow obstruction.

Equal reductions in FEV1 and FVC suggest restrictive lung disease.

126
Q

Asthma?

A

The cardinal features of asthma are reversible airway obstruction, inflammation, and airway hyperreactivity.

An increase from baseline of ≥10% in FEV1, FVC, or both with bronchodilator therapy relative to the predicted value indicates reversible airway obstruction.

Bronchial challenge testing is indicated for patients with a suggestive clinical history for asthma but normal spirometry.

127
Q

Asthma C/I?

A

Do not use LABAs as single agents in asthma (increased mortality rate).

128
Q

Asthma Worrisome?

A

A normal arterial PCO2 in a patient with severe symptomatic asthma indicates impending respiratory failure.