GI Flashcards

1
Q

Gastric angiodysplasia

A

gastrointestinal angiodysplasia with advanced chronic kidney disease, von Willebrand disease, and aortic stenosis have been reported.

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1
Q

Patients with persistent symptoms of peptic ulcer disease, evidence of Helicobacter pylori-associated ulcers, or H pylori-associated malignancy should undergo an evaluation to determine bacterial eradication.

A

The preferred options include urea breath testing and fecal antigen testing.

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2
Q

Patients with Helicobacter pylori-associated peptic ulcer disease should receive treatment based on local antibiotic susceptibility.

A

Acceptable first-line regimens include triple drug therapy with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin, or quadruple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor, bismuth, and 2 antibiotics (or a PPI and 3 antibiotics).

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3
Q

Porcelain gallbladder is often found incidentally on imaging and is associated with an increased risk of gallbladder cancer. x

A

Patients with punctate calcifications or symptoms of biliary colic are usually referred for prophylactic cholecystectomy to reduce cancer risk.

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4
Q

Choledocholithiasis (common bile duct stones) causes prolonged biliary colic symptoms and cholestatic liver function test abnormalities.

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is indicated for patients with visualized choledocholithiasis, high-risk features (eg, dilated common bile duct, elevated serum bilirubin), or evidence of acute cholangitis.

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5
Q

Management of gallstones is guided by the patient’s symptoms, imaging findings, and presence of complications.

A

Patients with typical biliary colic symptoms and confirmed gallstones should undergo elective cholecystectomy to prevent recurrent symptoms and complications.

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6
Q

Biliary colic presents with episodes of intense, dull, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain that can radiate to the back and right shoulder with associated nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis.

A

Abdominal examination is usually benign. Ultrasonography is preferred for initial diagnostic imaging.

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7
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy (HE) is usually triggered by elevated ammonia levels due to an underlying precipitating event. A common trigger of HE is excessive diuresis, which reduces intravascular volume and results in hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

A

Treatment includes volume and electrolyte repletion and using medications (eg, lactulose) to reduce ammonia levels.

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8
Q

Delayed gastric emptying may be due to mechanical obstruction (intrinsic or extrinsic) or impaired motility.

A

Obstruction should first be excluded by esophagogastroduodenoscopy, especially in those at risk for peptic ulcer disease (eg, NSAID use); sometimes CT/MR enterography is also needed if small bowel pathology is of concern. Once excluded, a scintigraphic gastric emptying study can confirm the diagnosis of gastroparesis.

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9
Q

In adition to improving control of hyperglycemia, dietary modification is generally the first step in management of diabetic gastroparesis.

A

Smaller, more frequent meals may help to improve symptoms. A diet low in fat and with only soluble fiber is important. Promotility medications such as metoclopramide can be helpful in those who fail to improve with dietary modification.

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10
Q

Confirmation of H. pylori eradication is recommended for patients with ulcers or ongoing dyspepsia.

A

Either urea breath or fecal antigen testing can be used after 4 weeks to confirm H. pylori eradication. H. pylori serology should not be used since it may remain positive a year or more after eradication.

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11
Q

Chronic cough is a common presenting symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and in some cases may be the only presenting symptom.

A

The initial management of suspected cough-predominate GERD involves lifestyle modification and 8 weeks of proton-pump inhibitor therapy.

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12
Q

Endoscopic ultrasound with aspiration is the best test to evaluate a pancreatic cyst

A

to differentiate malignancy from nonmalignant causes.

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13
Q

Dyspepsia is characterized by epigastric pain/burning and postprandial fullness for ≥1 months. Management of dyspepsia is largely determined by malignancy risk.

A

Patients at low risk (eg, age <60 without alarm symptoms) should first undergo noninvasive H pylori testing.

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14
Q

In patients with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease, hepatic fibrosis is associated with increased risk of progression to cirrhosis.

A

It is the primary prognostic factor for liver-related death.

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15
Q

Hepatic adenoma is most commonly seen in young women on oral contraceptive therapy. Most cases are asymptomatic and are found incidentally on imaging for another condition.

A

CT scan of the abdomen with contrast typically reveals a well-demarcated liver lesion with peripheral enhancement (early phase). Asymptomatic lesions <5 cm are usually managed with discontinuation of oral contraception. Symptomatic patients and patients with larger lesions should undergo surgical resection.

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16
Q

Nonselective beta blockers (eg, nadolol, propranolol) can be used in the primary and secondary prevention of esophageal variceal hemorrhage,

A

particularly in combination with endoscopic surveillance and band ligation.

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17
Q

The typical symptoms of diabetic gastroparesis include early satiety and postprandial fullness. It is often accompanied by other autonomic symptoms and labile glucose control.

A

Mechanical obstruction should be excluded. A nuclear gastric emptying study is the procedure of choice to confirm the diagnosis.

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18
Q

(Choice B) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) can be used to correct coagulopathies due to vitamin K deficiency and is typically administered when the INR is >2; this patient’s INR is 1.5.

A

FFP administration is associated with a risk of volume overload in patients with cirrhosis. In addition, variceal bleeding is due primarily to increased portal venous pressure and vascular changes rather than to coagulopathy, making FFP less beneficial.

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19
Q

Patients with an isolated elevation of anti-HBc should have hepatitis B serologies repeated to rule out a false positive result, followed by measurement of IgM anti-HBc and liver function tests to determine the acuity of infection.

A

IgM anti-HBc may be the only diagnostic marker for acute HBV infection during the “window period.”

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20
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease, characterized by substernal burning and regurgitation, is treated with proton pump inhibitor therapy in cases where symptoms are frequent (eg, >2 times per week).

A

Evaluation with upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not needed in the absence of alarm symptoms. Helicobacter pylori testing is also unnecessary.

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21
Q

Celiac disease is a chronic malabsorptive disorder caused by immune-mediated hypersensitivity to gluten.

A

The most common cause of continued or recurrent symptoms is gluten intake from inadvertent ingestion or poor compliance. A detailed dietary review can help identify the source of gluten.

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22
Q

A serum-ascites albumin gradient value of >1.1 g/dL indicates the presence of portal hypertension, while a value of <1.1 g/dL

A

indicates the absence of portal hypertension.

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23
Q

Patients with adenomatous polyps found on screening sigmoidoscopy should undergo colonoscopy for visualization of the entire colon and

A

detection of synchronous adenomas and advanced neoplasia.

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24
Q

Although hematochezia is most commonly associated with lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, large-volume, upper GI bleeding can also present with hematochezia.

A

Patients with hematochezia and hemodynamic instability (eg, orthostatic hypotension) should generally be assumed to have an upper GI source of bleeding. Following initial volume resuscitation, they should undergo initial evaluation with esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

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25
Q

Alcohol and tobacco cessation, along with dietary modifications, is the first-line treatment of chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatic enzyme replacement and analgesics should be considered if conservative measures are unsuccessful.

A

A variety of minimally invasive and surgical interventions is available for patients with refractory disease.

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26
Q

Toxic megacolon should be suspected in patients who have a history of severe colitis, particularly secondary to inflammatory bowel disease, who develop toxic signs and have a distended, tympanitic abdomen.

A

Abdominal plain films are helpful for making the diagnosis. CT scan is best utilized for early detection of complications.

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27
Q

Abdominal pain accompanied by fat malabsorption should raise suspicion of chronic pancreatitis, particularly in patients with a history of heavy alcohol intake.

A

The diagnosis can be confirmed with magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography or an abdominal CT scan, which can identify pathognomonic findings (eg, pancreatic calcifications).

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28
Q

The first-line treatment for toxic megacolon is medical management to lessen the degree of colitis, with glucocorticoids used for patients with underlying inflammatory bowel disease and appropriate antibiotics used for patients with infectious colitis.

A

5-ASA compounds and opioids should be avoided in patients with toxic megacolon.

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29
Q

he evaluation and management of chronic diarrhea involves a comprehensive history (eg, clear description of stool characteristics, duration and timing of symptoms),

A

basic serum analysis, and, importantly, stool analysis.

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30
Q

Celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy) is characterized by large-volume, foul-smelling stools; excessive flatulence; weight loss; and microcytic anemia. Evaluation involves both serologic studies and small-bowel biopsy.

A

Common histologic findings include villous atrophy, loss of the normal villus architecture, intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltrates, and crypt hyperplasia.

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31
Q

In patients with cirrhosis in whom there is concern for variceal hemorrhage, intravenous octreotide should be initiated after stabilization and while awaiting endoscopic therapy.

A

Octreotide is thought to decrease the elevated portal venous pressure that causes variceal formation and may stop the hemorrhage.

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32
Q

Patients at average risk for colon cancer should start colon cancer screening at age 45.

A

For those with a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma, screening colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 40 or 10 years before the relative’s age at diagnosis, whichever comes first.

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33
Q

Pancreatic inflammatory fluid collections (eg, pancreatic pseudocysts) occur in approximately 10% of patients after an episode of acute pancreatitis.

A

Symptoms are largely determined by the mass effects and location of these collections and can include abdominal pain, biliary and pancreatic duct obstruction, fistulization into adjacent organs, and gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

34
Q

Hepatic hydrothorax usually presents as a right-sided transudative pleural effusion in patients with decompensated cirrhosis and ascites.

A

The initial treatment is with sodium restriction and diuretics; transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt placement may be pursued in refractory cases.

35
Q

Manometry may be helpful if an esophageal motility disorder is suspected.

A

A mechanical obstruction is suggested due to this patient’s pattern of dysphagia (initially beginning with solids and progressing to involve liquids).

36
Q

Videofluoroscopic barium swallow is a functional test providing visualization of the pharynx and upper esophagus as the patient swallows.

A

This test assesses neuromuscular disorders but is less useful for identifying structural lesions than the direct visualization that laryngoscopy offers.

37
Q

Acute diarrhea with blood or mucus (dysentery, inflammatory diarrhea) is most commonly due to bacterial infection (eg, Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli, Shigella).

A

Initial evaluation should include stool culture and evaluation for Shiga toxin (eg, multiplex PCR testing, direct immunoassay).

38
Q

Diffuse esophageal spasm is a motility disorder characterized by disordered and premature simultaneous contractions of the distal esophagus with normal distal esophageal sphincter relaxation as demonstrated by manometry.

A

Patients may present with chest pain and dysphagia. First-line treatment is with calcium channel blockers.

39
Q

Acute mesenteric ischemia is typically due to sudden occlusive or nonocclusive obstruction of intestinal blood flow (arterial or venous).

A

Risk factors include older age, atrial fibrillation, congestive heart failure, and peripheral vascular disease. Sudden onset of periumbilical abdominal pain (out of proportion to examination), normal abdominal examination without peritoneal signs, and metabolic acidosis are early clues.

40
Q

Exposure of the esophagus to acidic gastric contents can lead to reflux esophagitis, which presents like GERD does.

A

Because endoscopy is not required for diagnosis or screening, reflux esophagitis is typically noted incidentally when patients undergo the procedure for another indication (eg, screening for BE).

41
Q

Barrett esophagus can develop due to chronic gastric acid exposure, predisposing to esophageal adenocarcinoma.

A

Additional risk factors include older age (eg, age >50), central obesity, tobacco use, and family history. Patients with multiple risk factors should be screened endoscopically. Those with Barrett esophagus require proton pump inhibitor therapy.

42
Q

Acute cholangitis typically results from biliary obstruction and is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice.

A

Severe acute illness with hypotension and altered mental status can occur. The diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and imaging demonstrating biliary duct dilation.

43
Q

Acute cholangitis may complicate gallstone pancreatitis and is characterized by fever, abdominal pain, jaundice, and evidence of biliary obstruction.

A

Urgent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is the test of choice both for diagnostic confirmation and therapeutic biliary drainage.

44
Q

Bile salt-induced diarrhe occurs in 5%-10% of patients following cholecystectomy and in patients with short bowel syndrome.

A

The treatment of choice is bile salt-binding resins such as cholestyramine.

45
Q

In patients with suspected nonanoholic fatty liver disease,

A

a liver ultrasonography is needed to confirm the diagnosis.

46
Q

An isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase can be seen in infiltrative liver diseases (eg, granulomatous disease, infection, certain medications).

A

Additional evidence of granulomatous disease, such as bilateral hilar adenopathy in sarcoidosis, may be helpful in making the diagnosis.

47
Q

Lactose intolerance is characterized by chronic watery diarrhea, bloating, and flatulence after lactose-containing meals.

A

It is a common cause of diarrhea due to malabsorption and is due to insufficient lactase enzyme on the small intestine brush border.

48
Q

Chronic abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form, symptom improvement following defecation, and lack of evidence of an organic cause on laboratory testing and historical work-up suggest irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).

A

IBS is a functional bowel disorder often characterized by a normal-appearing colonic mucosa.

49
Q

The threshold for blood transfusion in most stable patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a hemoglobin level <7 g/dL as this is associated with fewer complications and reduced mortality.

A

Patients with stable cardiovascular disease may benefit from maintaining a hemoglobin level 8 g/dL, and patients with acute coronary syndrome or malignancies with risk of bleeding may require higher transfusion thresholds.

50
Q

Dumping syndrome is a common complication of gastrectomy. x

A

Dumping syndrome is a common complication of gastrectomy. Treatment is aimed at decreasing the speed of the passage of fluids and food into the small gut. A high-protein and low carbohydrate diet is advised, as well as smaller but more frequent meals throughout the day.

51
Q

Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection may experience rapid hepatic
decompensation and liver failure if they develop acute hepatitis A virus (HAV) or
hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection.

A

Consequently, in addition to alcool avoidance,
patients should be vaccinated against HAV and HBV if they do not have
preexisting immunity.

52
Q

Splenic vein thrombosis, which commonly occurs in association with pancreatitis, may be asymptomatic or present with variceal bleeding due to isolated gastric varices, the disease’s hallmark.

A

Varices develop due to redirection of blood flow to the collateral gastroepiploic system and short lgastric veins.

53
Q

Internal hemorrhoids are located above the dentate line, vitterally innervated, and typically painless, they may be associated with prolapse (eg, protruding past the anal verge with straining).

A

First-line management includes lifestyle measures to reduce constipation and straining (eg, bulk-forming laxative).

54
Q

When acute diverticulitis does not improve after 2-3 days of appropriate therapy, abdominopelvic CT scan should be repeated to evaluate for complications (eg, abscess, perforation, obstruction).

A

Colonoscopy is contraindicated in patients with acute diverticulitis.

55
Q

Dyspepsia is characterized by epigastric pain that is often associated with post prandial fullness and/or nausea.

A

Patients age > 60 with new dyspepsia should undergo upper endoscopy to rule out malignancy. Endoscopy is also recommended for patients age <60 with significant weight loss, overt gastrointestinal bleeding, or > 1 alarm feature (persistent vomiting, progressive dysphagia or odynophagia, palpable mass or lymphadenopathy, unexplained iron deficiency anemia, family history of gastrointestinal malignancy).

56
Q

The best initial therapy for oral candidiasis (thrush) is a topical antifungal (e.g., nystatin suspension or clotrimazole troches), with an oral antifungal such as fluconazole used for resistant cases.

A

In patients where thrush is secondary to inhaled corticosteroids, proper technique should be assessed by watching the patient use the inhaler.

57
Q

Patients with untreated celiac disease are at risk of developing enteropathy-
associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL).

A

Manifestations typically include abdomina
pain, B symptoms, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bowel obstruction or perforation may also occur. Patients with celiac disease who adhere to a strict gluten-free diet have minimal risk of EATL.

58
Q

Diagnose pharyngoesophageal (Zenker) diverticulum.

A

Symptoms of halitosis, dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and a gurgling noise in the throat

59
Q

Evaluate refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease.

A

In patients prescribed an empiric trial of a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux disease without alarm symptoms, therapy should be discontinued after an 8-week trial.
If symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) do not respond to proton pump inhibitor treatment or if symptoms recur, upper endoscopy is indicated to evaluate for signs of GERD and to rule out other abnormalities.

60
Q

Treat gastroparesis.

A

Metoclopramide is considered first-line pharmacologic treatment of gastroparesis; the lowest effective dosage should be prescribed to mitigate potential neurologic adverse effects, such as tardive dyskinesia.

Erythromycin is second line.

61
Q

Test for eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection.

A

Testing to confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori should be performed no sooner than 4 weeks after completion of antibiotics and no sooner than 1 to 2 weeks after discontinuation of proton pump inhibitor therapy.
Recommended tests for active infection with Helicobacter pylori include the fecal antigen test, 13C urea breath test, and gastric biopsy performed during upper endoscopy.

62
Q

Treat mild Crohn disease with controlled-release budesonide.

A

Controlled-release budesonide is an effective short-term therapy and can be used in patients with mild to moderate ileocecal Crohn disease for induction of remission.
Budesonide should not be used to maintain remission of Crohn disease beyond 4 months.

63
Q

Manage resumption of aspirin therapy for secondary cardiovascular prevention after bleeding peptic ulcer disease.

A

For bleeding peptic ulcer disease related to aspirin use for secondary cardiovascular prevention, aspirin should ideally be restarted within 24 hours (and no later than 1 to 7 days) after initiation of proton pump inhibitors and cessation of bleeding.

64
Q

Manage upper endoscopy screening for varices in a patient with compensated cirrhosis.

A

A patient with compensated cirrhosis without varices on screening endoscopy and quiescent liver injury should have upper endoscopy every 3 years unless symptoms change.

65
Q

Treat symptomatic hemorrhoids with increased dietary fiber.

A

Symptomatic grade 1 and 2 internal hemorrhoids should initially be treated with conservative measures, such as increasing dietary fiber intake to 20 to 30 g/d.
Patients with hemorrhoids that do not respond to conservative measures can be treated with options such as rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, or hemorrhoidectomy.

66
Q

Treat irritable bowel syndrome with predominant constipation in patients who do not respond to first-line treatment with osmotic laxatives.

A

Irritable bowel syndrome with predominant constipation that does not respond to lifestyle measures and over-the-counter medications can be treated with linaclotide or other intestinal secretagogues.

67
Q

Manage lactase deficiency.

A

The most common cause of osmotic diarrhea is lactase deficiency that results in lactose malabsorption.
Lactase deficiency can be diagnosed on the basis of improvement after exclusion of dietary lactose or administration of lactase enzymes with meals.

68
Q

Manage renal dysfunction in a patient with cirrhosis.

A

The initial management of acute kidney injury in patients with cirrhosis is to stop diuretic therapy.
In patients with hepatorenal syndrome, β-blocker therapy should be discontinued.

69
Q

Treat spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed by an ascitic fluid neutrophil count of 250/μL (0.25 × 109/L) or higher. Treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis includes a third-generation cephalosporin; albumin is infused in the presence of hepatic (bilirubin level >4 mg/dL [68.4 μmol/L]) or kidney dysfunction.

70
Q

Diagnose achalasia.

A

Achalasia is associated with dysphagia with both solids and liquids, along with nonacidic regurgitation of undigested food.
Achalasia treatment includes botulinum toxin injection, pneumatic balloon dilation, peroral endoscopic myotomy, or laparoscopic myotomy.

71
Q

Treat dumping syndrome.

A

Dumping syndrome results from rapid gastric emptying after gastric surgery; symptoms can include abdominal pain, epigastric fullness, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, borborygmi, and bloating.
First-line treatment of dumping syndrome is smaller, more frequent meals.

72
Q

Treat hepatic adenoma in a man.

A

Factors posing an increased risk for malignant transformation of hepatic adenomas include adenomas greater than 5 cm in diameter, adenomas with β-catenin activation, or adenomas found in men.
Oral contraceptives should be discontinued in women with hepatic adenomas with follow-up CT or MRI at 6-month intervals to confirm stability or regression in the size of the lesion

73
Q

Evaluate recurrent celiac disease symptoms.

A

The most common cause of recurrent celiac disease symptoms is gluten exposure.
For the assessment of recurrent symptoms of celiac disease, a dietitian should evaluate possible sources of gluten exposure.

74
Q

Diagnose anal fissure.

A

Anal fissures are longitudinal mucosal tears in the anal canal characterized by anorectal pain worsened by bowel movements.
Marked anorectal pain with attempted inspection of the perianal area in the context of painful defecatory bleeding is nearly diagnostic of anal fissure.

75
Q

Treat hepatitis B virus infection in the immune-active phase.

A

Treatment of hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection is advised for patients with acute liver failure, chronic infection in the immune-active phase or reactivation phase, or cirrhosis and for selected immunosuppressed patients.
Immune-active chronic HBV infection is defined by presence of hepatitis B core antibody, elevated alanine aminotransferase level, and HBV viral load greater than 2000 U/mL in patients negative for hepatitis B e antigen and greater than 20,000 U/mL in patients positive for hepatitis B e antigen.

76
Q

Treat left-sided ulcerative colitis.

A

5-Aminosalicylate enemas are an appropriate and effective treatment for mild, left-sided ulcerative colitis.
5-Aminosalicylate suppositories are an appropriate and effective treatment for mild to moderate ulcerative proctitis

77
Q

Treat hypomotility disorder.

A

Esophageal hypomotility disorder is associated with poor peristalsis, causing symptoms of dysphagia, and a hypotensive lower esophageal sphincter, causing symptoms of reflux.
Treatment of esophageal hypomotility disorder includes lifestyle changes, such as eating upright and consuming a liquid or semisolid diet rather than solid food, and acid reduction with a proton pump inhibitor.

78
Q

Evaluate rectal bleeding in a young patient.

A

Red-flag symptoms such as rectal bleeding with iron deficiency anemia, abdominal pain, and weight loss should prompt evaluation by colonoscopy for colorectal cancer regardless of the patient’s age or the presence of bleeding hemorrhoids.

79
Q

Diagnose gastroparesis

A

The diagnosis of gastroparesis requires the presence of specific symptoms, absence of mechanical outlet obstruction on upper endoscopy, and objective evidence of delayed gastric emptying.

80
Q

Manage follow-up colonoscopy for hyperplastic polyps.

A

Patients with small (<10 mm) hyperplastic polyps on baseline colonoscopic examination should undergo surveillance colonoscopy in 10 years.

81
Q

Treat functional dyspepsia.

A

First-line treatment for functional dyspepsia is once-daily omeprazole for at least 4 weeks; if symptoms do not respond, a tricyclic antidepressant is the next recommended treatment.

82
Q

Treat pain in chronic pancreatitis.

A

Treatment of chronic pancreatitis–related persistent pain should proceed in a stepwise approach beginning with lifestyle modifications (discontinue alcohol and cigarettes) and the use of simple analgesics (acetaminophen, NSAIDs) before adding trials of nonopioid pain modulators (tricyclic antidepressants, serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, tramadol, gabapentinoids).

83
Q

Diagnose hepatic sarcoidosis.

A

The organ most commonly affected by sarcoidosis is the lung, although the liver is also often affected.
In addition to sarcoidosis, conditions such as tuberculosis, fungal infections, brucellosis, Q fever, Hodgkin lymphoma and drug toxicity can also cause granulomatous lesions in the liver.