PUD Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following characteristics differentiates gastric ulcers (GUs) from duodenal ulcers (DUs)?
A. GUs are more commonly benign and do not require biopsy.
B. GUs are associated with NSAID use and often lack H. pylori infection.
C. DUs are more commonly associated with malignancy than GUs.
D. DUs are more likely to show evidence of chemical gastropathy than GUs.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gastric ulcers (GUs) related to NSAIDs are not typically accompanied by H. pylori-associated chronic active gastritis but may instead exhibit chemical gastropathy with features like foveolar hyperplasia and lamina propria edema. GUs require biopsy upon discovery to rule out malignancy (A is incorrect). Malignant transformation is much more common in GUs than in DUs (C is incorrect). DUs are not typically associated with chemical gastropathy (D is incorrect).

In contrast to DUs, GUs can represent a malignancy and should be biopsied upon discovery.

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes the typical location of benign gastric ulcers?
A. Gastric fundus
B. Within 3 cm of the pylorus
C. Distal to the junction between the antrum and acid secretory mucosa
D. Duodenal bulb

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benign gastric ulcers are most commonly found distal to the junction between the antrum and the acid secretory mucosa. They are rare in the gastric fundus (A is incorrect). While duodenal ulcers are often located near the pylorus (B is incorrect), the duodenal bulb is the typical location for DUs, not GUs (D is incorrect).

Benign GUs are most often found distal to the junction between the antrum and the acid secretory mucosa. Benign GUs are quite rare in the gastric fundus and are histologically similar to DUs.

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3
Q

Which of the following factors contributes to the pathogenesis of duodenal ulcers (DUs)?
A. Increased bicarbonate secretion in the duodenal bulb
B. Decreased nocturnal gastric acid secretion
C. H. pylori infection and NSAID-induced injuries
D. Increased mucosal defense mechanisms

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The majority of duodenal ulcers are caused by H. pylori infection and NSAID-induced injuries. Bicarbonate secretion is decreased in the duodenal bulb of patients with active DUs (A is incorrect). Nocturnal gastric acid secretion is increased, not decreased, in DU patients (B is incorrect). Impaired, not enhanced, mucosal defense mechanisms contribute to DU formation (D is incorrect).

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4
Q

Which type of gastric ulcer (GU) is most commonly associated with duodenal ulcers (DUs)?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type III gastric ulcers are located within 3 cm of the pylorus and are commonly associated with duodenal ulcers and normal or high gastric acid production. Type I ulcers occur in the gastric body and are associated with low gastric acid production (A is incorrect). Type II ulcers occur in the antrum and are associated with variable acid levels (B is incorrect). Type IV ulcers occur in the cardia and are associated with low acid production (D is incorrect).

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5
Q

What distinguishes the pathogenesis of gastric ulcers (GUs) from duodenal ulcers (DUs)?
A. GUs are exclusively caused by H. pylori infection.
B. GUs tend to have normal or decreased gastric acid output.
C. GUs are primarily caused by increased bicarbonate secretion.
D. GUs are less likely to be associated with NSAID use.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gastric ulcers tend to have normal or decreased gastric acid output, whereas duodenal ulcers are associated with increased gastric acid secretion. Both GUs and DUs can be caused by H. pylori infection and NSAID use (A and D are incorrect). Bicarbonate secretion is decreased in DUs, not increased in GUs (C is incorrect).

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6
Q

What is the primary significance of eradicating H. pylori in patients with acid peptic disorders?
A. It prevents all forms of gastric metaplasia.
B. It eliminates the need for NSAID cessation.
C. It reduces the risk of gastric cancer and MALT lymphoma.
D. It increases basal gastric acid production.

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eradicating H. pylori reduces the risk of gastric cancer, particularly in high-risk populations, and decreases the risk of gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma. While it improves ulcer healing, it does not prevent all forms of gastric metaplasia (A is incorrect), eliminate the risks of NSAID use (B is incorrect), or increase gastric acid production (D is incorrect).

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7
Q

Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with higher rates of H. pylori infection?
A. Race
B. Socioeconomic status
C. Age alone
D. Dietary habits

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Higher colonization rates of H. pylori are associated with poor socioeconomic status and less education, not race. Although age and dietary habits can influence infection risk, they are not as significant as socioeconomic factors (A, C, and D are incorrect).

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8
Q

How is H. pylori most commonly transmitted?
A. Bloodborne transmission
B. Airborne droplets
C. Oral-oral or fecal-oral route
D. Skin-to-skin contact

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: H. pylori is transmitted from person to person via oral-oral or fecal-oral routes. Bloodborne transmission, airborne droplets, and skin-to-skin contact are not mechanisms of transmission for this bacterium (A, B, and D are incorrect).

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9
Q

Which of the following is a major risk factor for H. pylori infection?
A. Daily use of NSAIDs
B. Birth or residence in a developed country
C. Domestic crowding
D. High gastric acid output

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Domestic crowding increases the likelihood of person-to-person transmission of H. pylori. Birth or residence in a developing country, unsanitary living conditions, and exposure to gastric contents of an infected person are also risk factors. Daily NSAID use and high gastric acid output are not direct risk factors for H. pylori infection (A, B, and D are incorrect).

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes the typical pain pattern of duodenal ulcers (DUs)?
A. Pain occurs immediately after a meal and is worsened by food.
B. Pain occurs 90 minutes to 3 hours after a meal and is relieved by food or antacids.
C. Pain is constant and unrelated to meals or time of day.
D. Pain occurs only in the early morning and is unaffected by food or antacids.

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The classic pain pattern of duodenal ulcers is pain that occurs 90 minutes to 3 hours after a meal and is often relieved by food or antacids. This pattern differentiates DUs from other types of dyspepsia. Pain that worsens immediately after eating is more characteristic of gastric ulcers (A is incorrect). Constant pain unrelated to meals or time (C) or pain limited to the early morning (D) does not describe typical DU pain.

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11
Q

Which symptom is considered the most discriminating feature of duodenal ulcers?
A. Pain that occurs immediately after eating
B. Pain that is relieved by lying flat
C. Pain that awakens the patient from sleep between midnight and 3 a.m.
D. Pain that radiates to the back and is unaffected by antacids

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pain that awakens the patient from sleep between midnight and 3 a.m. is the most discriminating symptom of duodenal ulcers, with two-thirds of patients reporting this complaint. Pain occurring immediately after eating (A) is more typical of gastric ulcers. Pain relieved by lying flat (B) or radiating to the back (D) is not specific to duodenal ulcers and may suggest other conditions.

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12
Q

What symptom is more characteristic of a gastric ulcer than a duodenal ulcer?
A. Pain relieved by food
B. Pain worsened by food
C. Pain awakening the patient at night
D. Pain occurring 2–3 hours after a meal

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pain that worsens immediately after eating is characteristic of gastric ulcers due to increased acid secretion in direct contact with the ulcer. Duodenal ulcers are typically associated with pain relief after eating (A) and pain that occurs 2–3 hours after a meal or awakens the patient at night (C and D).

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13
Q

What is the most common complication observed in patients with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
A. Perforation
B. Gastric outlet obstruction
C. GI bleeding
D. Fistula formation

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: GI bleeding is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease, occurring in 19.4–57 per 100,000 individuals in the general population and in approximately 15% of PUD patients. Perforation and gastric outlet obstruction are less common complications (A and B). Fistula formation is rare (D).

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14
Q

What is the second most common complication of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
A. GI bleeding
B. Perforation
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Fistula formation

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perforation is the second most common complication of PUD, occurring in 6–7% of patients. GI bleeding is the most common complication (A), while gastric outlet obstruction (C) and fistula formation (D) are less common.

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15
Q

Which of the following is the classic clinical triad associated with perforation in PUD?
A. Fever, tachycardia, and abdominal distension
B. Acute abdominal pain, tachycardia, and abdominal rigidity
C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D. Abdominal rigidity, melena, and vomiting

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The classic triad of perforation in PUD includes acute abdominal pain, tachycardia, and abdominal rigidity. These findings indicate peritoneal irritation. Fever and distension (A), nausea and diarrhea (C), or melena (D) are not the hallmark features of perforation.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a form of perforation where the ulcer tunnels into an adjacent organ?
A. Fistula formation
B. Penetration
C. Mechanical obstruction
D. Peritoneal adhesion

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penetration is a form of perforation where the ulcer bed tunnels into an adjacent organ. Duodenal ulcers typically penetrate posteriorly into the pancreas, while gastric ulcers often penetrate into the left hepatic lobe.

17
Q

What is the least common complication of peptic ulcer disease?
A. GI bleeding
B. Perforation
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Penetration

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gastric outlet obstruction is the least common complication of PUD, occurring in only 1–2% of patients. GI bleeding is the most common, and perforation is the second most common.

18
Q

Which of the following Helicobacter pylori diagnostic tests is considered invasive?
A. Serology
B. Urea breath test
C. Stool antigen test
D. Rapid urease test

A

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The rapid urease test is invasive as it requires endoscopy and a biopsy. Serology (A), urea breath test (B), and stool antigen test (C) are noninvasive diagnostic methods.

19
Q

What is a significant limitation of the rapid urease test in detecting H. pylori infection?
A. Low sensitivity in untreated patients
B. False negatives with recent use of PPIs, antibiotics, or bismuth compounds
C. Expensive and time-consuming
D. Inability to provide histologic information

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The rapid urease test can yield false-negative results if the patient has recently used proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), antibiotics, or bismuth compounds.

20
Q

Which H. pylori detection test has the highest sensitivity and specificity for noninvasive follow-up after eradication therapy?
A. Serology
B. Urea breath test
C. Rapid urease test
D. Histology

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The urea breath test has a sensitivity and specificity of >90%, making it highly reliable for early follow-up after eradication therapy. Serology (A) is not suitable for early follow-up as it detects antibodies that persist after eradication.

21
Q

What is a primary advantage of the stool antigen test for detecting H. pylori?
A. Requires endoscopy
B. Provides histologic information
C. Inexpensive and convenient
D. Allows determination of antibiotic susceptibility

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The stool antigen test is noninvasive, inexpensive, and convenient for detecting H. pylori. It does not require endoscopy (A) or provide histologic information (B) or antibiotic susceptibility (D).

22
Q

Which of the following H. pylori tests allows determination of antibiotic susceptibility?
A. Culture
B. Rapid urease test
C. Urea breath test
D. Stool antigen test

A

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Culture is the only test that allows determination of antibiotic susceptibility but is time-consuming, expensive, and requires expertise.

23
Q

When should clarithromycin-based triple therapy for H. pylori be avoided?
A. When the patient’s symptoms are mild
B. When the resistance to clarithromycin exceeds 15%
C. When resistance to amoxicillin exceeds 15%
D. When the patient is allergic to NSAIDs

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clarithromycin-based triple therapy should not be used in areas where H. pylori resistance to clarithromycin is greater than 15% due to reduced treatment efficacy. Resistance to amoxicillin (C) is rare, and NSAID allergy (D) is unrelated to this therapy.

24
Q

What is the primary cause of gastric acid hypersecretion in Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (ZES)?
A. Hypersecretion of histamine by enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells
B. Overactivation of parietal cells by gastrin from a neuroendocrine tumor
C. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid by gastric epithelial cells
D. Chronic infection with H. pylori

A

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ZES is caused by unregulated gastrin secretion from a neuroendocrine tumor (gastrinoma), which overstimulates parietal cells and leads to gastric acid hypersecretion.

25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical situation that should raise suspicion for ZES?
A. Peptic ulcers located in the second part of the duodenum or beyond
B. Ulcers refractory to standard medical therapy
C. Peptic ulcers in a patient with a history of NSAID use
D. Recurrent ulcers after acid-reducing surgery

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peptic ulcers in patients with a history of NSAID use are more likely related to NSAID-induced mucosal damage rather than ZES. The other situations (A, B, D) are consistent with ZES suspicion.

26
Q

Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?
A. Diarrhea
B. Erosive esophagitis
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Abdominal distension

A

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peptic ulcer is the most common clinical manifestation of ZES, occurring in >90% of gastrinoma patients.

27
Q

What is the preferred treatment for stress ulcer prophylaxis in critically ill patients?

A) H2 blockers
B) Oral proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
C) Intravenous pantoprazole
D) Antacids

A

Correct Answer: B) Oral proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

Rationale: Meta-analysis data suggests that PPIs are superior to H2 blockers for preventing stress-associated GI bleeding, without increasing the risk of nosocomial infections or mortality. Oral PPIs are the preferred option when the patient can tolerate enteral administration.

28
Q

Which of the following interventions is indicated for the management of stress-associated GI bleeding that persists despite appropriate prophylaxis?

A) Oral H2 blockers
B) Endoscopy, intra-arterial vasopressin, or embolization
C) Initiating total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
D) Administering high-dose corticosteroids

A

Correct Answer: B) Endoscopy, intra-arterial vasopressin, or embolization

Rationale: If bleeding occurs despite prophylactic measures, endoscopy is the first-line intervention. If endoscopy is unsuccessful, intra-arterial vasopressin and embolization can be considered. Surgery is a last resort.

29
Q

Which type of chronic gastritis is associated with an autoimmune etiology and predominantly affects the body of the stomach?

A) Type A gastritis
B) Type B gastritis
C) AB gastritis
D) Type C gastritis

A

Correct Answer: A) Type A gastritis

Rationale: Type A gastritis is the autoimmune form that primarily affects the body of the stomach. It is characterized by the loss of parietal cells, leading to a reduction in gastric acid secretion.

30
Q

Which type of chronic gastritis is most commonly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection and predominantly affects the antrum?

A) Type A gastritis
B) Type B gastritis
C) AB gastritis
D) Type C gastritis

A

Correct Answer: B) Type B gastritis

Rationale: Type B gastritis is the antral-predominant form of chronic gastritis, which is strongly linked to Helicobacter pylori infection. It typically affects the antrum of the stomach and can lead to chronic inflammation and potential peptic ulcers.

31
Q

Which part of the stomach is predominantly affected in Type A (autoimmune) gastritis?

A) Antrum
B) Body and fundus
C) Pylorus
D) Duodenum

A

Correct Answer: B) Body and fundus

Rationale: Type A (autoimmune) gastritis primarily affects the body and fundus of the stomach, with sparing of the antrum. This form is often associated with autoimmune mechanisms that damage the parietal cells in these areas.

32
Q

Which condition is commonly associated with Type A gastritis due to the presence of circulating antibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor (IF)?

A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

Correct Answer: B) Pernicious anemia

Rationale: Type A (autoimmune) gastritis is commonly associated with pernicious anemia, which occurs due to the loss of intrinsic factor (IF) production. The presence of antibodies against parietal cells and IF can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency and subsequent anemia.

33
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of Type B (antral-predominant) gastritis?

A) Autoimmune processes
B) Helicobacter pylori infection
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Alcohol consumption

A

Correct Answer: B) Helicobacter pylori infection

Rationale: Type B (antral-predominant) gastritis is primarily caused by Helicobacter pylori infection. This form of gastritis is the most common type of chronic gastritis and can progress over time.

34
Q

Which of the following histological findings is most characteristic of early Type B (antral-predominant) gastritis?

A) Dense chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria with epithelial cell infiltration by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
B) Gastric atrophy with loss of parietal cells
C) Presence of parietal cell antibodies
D) Presence of lymphocytic infiltration in the fundus

A

Correct Answer: A) Dense chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria with epithelial cell infiltration by polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Rationale: Early Type B gastritis shows a dense chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria, with a significant number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes infiltrating the epithelial cells, which is characteristic of the response to H. pylori infection.

35
Q

Which type of lymphoma is most commonly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

A) T-cell lymphoma
B) B-cell lymphoma
C) Hodgkin lymphoma
D) Burkitt lymphoma

A

Correct Answer: B) B-cell lymphoma

Rationale: H. pylori infection is most commonly associated with the development of low-grade B-cell lymphoma, specifically gastric MALT lymphoma (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma).

36
Q

What is the initial imaging technique used to stage gastric MALT lymphoma in patients with H. pylori infection?

A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
B) Computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)
C) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
D) X-ray of the stomach

A

Correct Answer: B) Computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)

Rationale: The initial staging of gastric MALT lymphoma should involve a CT scan of the abdomen to assess for spread and an endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) to evaluate the depth of the tumor and its relationship with surrounding tissues.

37
Q

What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

A) Chemotherapy
B) Surgical resection
C) H. pylori eradication
D) Radiation therapy

A

Correct Answer: C) H. pylori eradication

Rationale: The primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma associated with H. pylori infection is the eradication of the bacteria. Successful eradication often leads to the complete regression of the tumor.