Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

what are necessity beliefs

A

perceptions of personal need for treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is patient compliance

A

extent to which patient behaviour coincides with medical health or advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is adherence

A

extent to which patients actions match agreed recommendations = acknowledges importance of patients beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does the health act 2006 say

A

infection control is every health workers responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is an endogenous infection

A

infection of patient by their own flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a notifiable infectious disease

A

legal obligation to inform authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why is a notifiable disease notifiable

A

very dangerous
vaccine preventable
disease that needs specific control measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the steps of a notifiable disease

A

notification
contact tracing
prophylaxis = advice, antibiotics, immunisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is antigenic drift

A

minor antigenic variation causes seasonal epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is antigenic shift

A

major antigenic variation causes pandemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is obesity

A

abnormal/excessive fat accumulation resulting from chronic imbalance between energy intake and energy expenditure = presents a risk to health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the BMI values

A 
25-29.9 = overweight
30-34.9 = obese class 1
35-39.9 = obese class 2
40-49.9 = morbidly obese class 3
50+ = super obese class 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the obesogenic environment

A 
physical = using cars, lifts = more weight harder to exercise
economic = cheap food = low self-esteem = comfort eating
sociocultural = family eating patterns = reduced opportunities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what aspects of employment increase risks of obesity

A

shift work
lack of sleep
upset circadian rhythm
reduced physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is my role in infection control (4)

A

follow policies/procedure
communicate with infection control team for questions
set good example
dont follow bad examples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to reduce endogenous HAI (5)

A
  1. good nutrition/hydration
  2. asepsis/skin prep
  3. control of underlying disease
  4. remove lined/catheters as soon as
  5. reduce antibiotic use to remove selection pressures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is patient to patient transmission prevented

A

identification of patient A = screening, diagnosis

isolation of infected patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is patient to staff transmission prevented

A

hand washing
barrier precautions
PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is environmental transmission prevented

A

isolation
cleaning
ward design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are carbapenemase producing enterobacteriacease CPEs

A

bacteria with carbapenemase resistance (broad spec beta lactams)
bacteria colonise large bowel/skin/moist sites
cause most UTIs and intra-abdominal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when is it ok to break confidentiality of HIV according to the GMC

A

can disclose to a known sexual partner identified at risk who is unaware of risk and patient cannot be persuaded to inform partner BUT must inform patient you will be doing this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what developmental aspects increase risk of obesity

A

rapid infant weight gain = increase
breast feeding = protective
early intro to solid foods = increases
childhood obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what features help identify those at risk of diabetes

A

sedentary job
high calorie diet
obesogenic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name risk factors of diabetes

A

unmodifiable = age/sex/ethnicity/genetics
modifiable = weight/BMI/waist circumference
hypertension
impaired glucose tolerance test/impaired fasting glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how can we diagnose diabetes earlier

A

raise awareness of symptoms
screening
diagnosing pre-diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what groups are most at risk of communicable diseases

A
  1. poor hygiene groups
  2. children attending preschool/nursery
  3. workers involved in preparing or serving unwrapped/uncooked food
  4. HCW working with vulnerable people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the 4 main diorrhoeal diseases

A

dysentery
typhoid
hepatitis
cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the mental capacity act 2005

A

presumed to have capacity unless established dont

decision made for person without capacity must be in their best interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when is someone said to not have capacity

A

if unable to:

  • undertsand relevant info
  • retain info
  • use or weigh info to make decision
  • communicate decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

who decides for children under 16

A

if child understands consequences of decision they decide

if child does not understand consequences = parents decide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

consent must be (3)

A

voluntary
informed
made with capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what you need to inform about treatment

A

what it is
significant risks
benefits
alternatives - risk/benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does SBARR stand for

A 
situation
background
assessment
request
recommendation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is candour

A

openness and honesty, disclosure of error

= correct error, offer apology, explain effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is deontology

A

belief that we owe duty of care to eachother
religious
immanuel kant
features of the act determine goodness of that act
involves being motivated by duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is consequentalism

A

the means are unimportant if the consequences are good

= utilitarianism = greatest good for greatest number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is virtue ethics

A

the character of the person doing act is essential

we become virtuous by doing virtuous things - virtues are subjective in cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is sensitivity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those WITH disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is specificity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those WITHOUT disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is PPV

A

proportion of positive results that are true positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is NPV

A

proportion o negative results that are true negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is screening

A

process which identifies apparently well individuals who may be at increased risk of developing a condition in the early stage of a condition so that intervention can alter the course of disease = reduce mortality/morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a disability according to the equality act 2010

A

physical or mental impairment which has substantial long-term adverse effect of a persons ability to carry out normal activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the incidence

A

rate at which new cases occur in population during a specified time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is prevalence

A

proportion of population that have disease at point in time - incidence x average duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is mortality

A

incidence of death from a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the 3 goals of HIV testing services

A
  1. provide high quality service to identify
  2. link individuals to treatment, care, support
  3. prevent transmission (circumcision, prophylaxis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what was made a criminal offence in November 2016

A

if patient knows have HIV and pass it on = criminally liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

name 9 ways to prevent HIV

A
  1. circumcision
  2. post exposure prophylaxis PEP
  3. preexposure prophylaxis PreP
  4. STI control
  5. HAART
  6. education
  7. condom use
  8. needle exchange
  9. early diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the principles of IPC (infection/prevention/control)

A

ID risks
routes/modes transmission
virulence of organisms
remedial factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how is norovirus so effective

A

low infecting dose
able to persist in environments
relatively resistant to conventional cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what did the black report 1980 say

A

4 mechanisms to explain widening health inequality:
material = enviro cause
artefact = product of how inequality measured
cultural = poor people do unhealthy things
selection = ill sink in society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what did the whitehall study of british civil servants show

A

inequalities and mortality between employment

risk factors only cover 1/3rd of the variation by employment grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what did the acheson report 1988 show

A

mortality decreased but inequalities remain/widened

prioritise families with children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what proportion of adults in England are overweight or obese (2017)

A

64.3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what proportion of year 6 children were overweight/obese (2017)

A

34%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

name 5 focal virtues

A 
trustworthiness
compassion
conscientiousness
integrity
discernment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are the positives of virtue ethics

A

centres ethics on person

includes persons whole life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the negatives of virtue ethics

A

no clear guidance for moral dilemmas

no gen agreement on what virtues are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the 4 principles of medical ethics

A

autonomy
beneficence
non-maleficence
justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the doctors obligations (4)

A

duty to patient
accountable to employer
responsible to eachother, professional, public health
moral obligations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is hippocrates paternalism

A

medicine offers hope, bad news destroys hope so should conceal news in patients best interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the 4 quadrants approach

A
  1. medical indications
  2. patient preferences
  3. quality of life
  4. contextual features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is distributive justice

A

fair distrobution of scarce resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is right based justice

A

respect for peoples rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is legal justice

A

respect for the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the doctrine of double effect

A

if doing something morally good has a morally bad side-effect it’s ethically OK to do it providing the bad side-effect wasn’t intended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the population attributed fraction

A

proportion of incidence of disease in exposed and non-exposed population that is due to exposure
exposure eliminated = disease incidence eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what has driven the CHD mortality decline in england and wales

A

reduction in smoking
population blood pressure fall
hypertension therapies
secondary prevention measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the significance of social inequality in smoking

A

accounts for 59% difference between male mortality between high and low socioeconomic groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is an absolutist explanation of social inequality

A

its about poverty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

whats a relativist explanation of social inequality

A

inequality in society

greater = bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the NNT

A

measurement of impact of medicine or therapy by estimating the number of patients needed to treat over given time in order to have an impact on 1 person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the NNT calculation

A

1/ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

describe a coronary prone behaviour pattern

A

competitive
hostile
impatient
type A

76
Q

what was the recurrent coronary prevention project

A

included cardiac counselling and type A behaviour modification
achieved fewer cardiac events

77
Q

what is the association between depression and CHD

A

higher depression = higher CHD and associated mortality

78
Q

what did the whitehall study conclude about CHD

A

men in lowest grade has higher CHD mortality rate than men in highest grade of work

79
Q

how is depression/anxiety measured

A

beck depression inventory
general health questionnaire
spielberger’s state anxiety inventory

80
Q

what work characteristics are risk factors for CHD

A

high demand low control

11+ hours = 67% more likely to have a heart attack

81
Q

what is the doctors role in preventing CHD

A
  1. observe behaviour patterns
  2. identify signs of depression/anxiety
  3. ask about occupation
  4. ask about support available
82
Q

name the cardiac disease risk calculator

A

QRISK2

83
Q

what percentage of 16-24 year olds have used drugs in the past year

A

19%

84
Q

what are the gender proportions of people in treatment for drug abuse

A

70% men

30% women

85
Q

define substance abuse

A

ingestion of a substance affecting the central nervous system which leads to behavioural and psychological changes

86
Q

what are new psychoactive substances

A

mimic the effects of other substances but less predictably

e.g. synthetic cannabinoids, stimulant-type drugs

87
Q

what is prevention theory

A

prevent substance abuse by reducing the risk factors and increasing protective factors throughout life

88
Q

what are the risk factors fro substance abuse

A

family
school/community
individual/peer

89
Q

describe physical dependence

A

body adapts to presence of substance

removal of substance causes physical withdrawal symptoms

90
Q

describe psychological dependence

A

feeling that life is impossible without the drug

emotional effect = pain, fear, loneliness

91
Q

what are the diagnostic codes for substance abuse

A 
0 = acute intoxication = disturbances in level of consciousness/cognition
1 = harmful use = pattern of use damaging to health
2 = dependence = strong desire to take drug, difficult controlling use
92
Q

diagnostic model 1-3

A
  1. consuming more than originally planned
  2. worrying about stopping/consistently failed efforts to control use
  3. spending large amount of time using/obtaining substance
93
Q

diagnostic model 4-7

A
  1. use results in failure to fulfil major role obligations
  2. craving
  3. continued use despite health problem caused/worsened
  4. continued use despite negative relationship effects
94
Q

diagnostic model 8-11

A
  1. repeated use in a dangerous situation e.g. driving
  2. giving up or reducing activities
  3. building up a tolerance to the alcohol or drug = more for same effect
  4. withdrawal symptoms
95
Q

what is the significance of the diagnostic model in the past 12 months

A 
2-3 = mild
4-5 = moderate
6+ = severe
96
Q

what are the 6 components of dependence syndrome

A
  1. desire to use
  2. difficulties controlling use
  3. physiological withdrawal state when reduced use
  4. tolerance
  5. increased time spent using
  6. use despite evidence of harmful consequences§
97
Q

what is residential rehabilitation

A

3-12 months
address underlying issues and learn coping mechanism
solve social/financial issues

98
Q

what are the guidelines for safe alcohol consumption

A

14 units per week over more than 3 days

99
Q

how to calculate number of units in a drink

A

strength of the drink (%) x Volume (ml) / 100

100
Q

what is the alcohol harm paradox

A

low socioeconomic groups consume less alcohol than higher socioeconomic groups
but experience greater alcohol related harm

101
Q

what are the 5 most common alcohol related deaths

A
  1. alcoholic liver disease
  2. cirrhosis and fibrosis of lver
  3. mental / behavioural disorders
  4. accidental poisoning
  5. other
102
Q

what are the consequences of foetal alcohol syndrome

A

growth retardation
CNS abnormalities - mental retardation
craniofacial abnormalities

103
Q

describe alcohol withdrawal

A

occurs 6-24hrs after last drink
lasts up to 1 week
tremor, seizures, insomnia

104
Q

what is delirium tremens

A 
most severe form of alcohol poisoning 
occurs 24-72 hrs after stopping
hyper-adrenergic state 
disorientation
diaphoresis
tremors
impaired attention
hallucinations
105
Q

name 4 primary prevention health promotions for alcohol misuse

A
  1. know your limits
  2. drinkaware
  3. THINK - drink driving
  4. minimum pricing
106
Q

describe some forms of secondary prevention for alcohol misuse

A 
detect patients at risk
screenign questions/tools:
FAST = fats alcohol screening test
AUDIT = alcohol use disorders identification test
CAGE questions
107
Q

what are the cage questions

A
  1. have you ever felt you should CUT down your drinking
  2. have people ANNOYED you by criticising your drinking
  3. have you ever felt GUILTY about your drinking
  4. have you ever taken a drink first thing in the morning to settle nerves/sort out hangover = EYE opener
    2+ = problem!!
108
Q

what treatment is there for alcohol misuse

A

= psychosocial
therapy - CBT
social support

109
Q

what are the 4 tiers of alcohol intervention

A
  1. non substance misuse specific services
  2. open access drug/alc services
  3. specialist community based clinics
  4. specialist inpatient services
110
Q

prevention schemes for alcohol abuse

A 
price
marketing
availability
school partnerships
licensing
111
Q

what is dependence

A

state in which an organism functions normally only in the presence of a drug

112
Q

explain how alcohol dependency occurs

A

alcohol is a depressant
inhibits presynaptic Ca2+ entry and transmitter release
= causes increase in a Ca2+ channel

113
Q

what is the severity of dependence questionnaire

A

SADQ
physical withdrawal symptoms
affective withdrawal symptoms
speed of onset of withdrawal symptoms

relief drinking
frequency of alcohol consumption

31+ = severe alcohol dependency
under 16 = mild physical dependency

114
Q

what is tolerance

A

state in which an organism no longer responds to a drug

higher dose is required to achieve same effect

115
Q

what interventions are available for alcohol dependency

A

community based assisted withdrawal
in-patient based assisted withdrawal
benzodiazepines
chlorodiazepines

116
Q

what is wernicke’s encephalopathy WE

A

caused by thiamine deficiency
metabolism of alcohol depends on thiamine
common in dependent drinkers
poor diet/intake of vitamins

117
Q

what are the symptoms of wernicke’s encephalopathy WE

A

ataxia = lack of voluntary coord
confusion
nystagmus = eyes make repetitive uncontrolled movement

118
Q

how is wernicke’s encephalopathy treated

A

pabrinex

vitamin B/thiamine

119
Q

what is korsakoff syndrome

A

85% untreated WE leads to kosakoff
memory impairment
chronic and irreversible

120
Q

what drugs can be used to prevent relapse of alcohol dependency

A
  1. acamprostate (campral) = acts on neural pathways
  2. DISULFIRAM (antabuse) = disrupts oxidative alcohol metabolsim = build up of acetaldehyde = increase hangover length - nausea/vomiting/SOB
  3. NALMEFENE (selnicro) = opioid receptor antagonist
    reduces feeling of reward/pleasure
121
Q

what are the psychosocial effects of excessive alcohol

A
  1. interpersonal relationship problems
  2. criminality/violence
  3. problems at work/unemployment
  4. social disintegration = poverty
  5. driving offences
122
Q

what does FRAMES stand for

A 
= motivational interviewing
feedback
responsibility
advice
menu of options
empathetic
self-efficacy
123
Q

what is malnutrition

A

state of nutrition in which deficiency or excess of energy/protein/other nutrients cause measurable adverse effects on tissues/body function and clinical outcome

124
Q

what does telling the truth require

A

right amount
right person
right time

125
Q

what is the role of environmental health officers

A
  • inspect businesses for health and safety, food hygiene, food standards
  • investigate outbreaks of food poisoning and infectious disease
  • collect lab samples for testing
126
Q

what can the infective causes of diorrhoea be divided into

A

non-bloody

bloody = dysentery

127
Q

what are the non-infective causes of diorrhoea

A 
1. neoplasm
inflammatory
irritable bowel
anatomical
2. hormonal
radiation
chemical
128
Q

name 7 causative organisms of diarrhoea

A
  1. rotavirus
  2. shigella
  3. salmonella typhi
  4. salmonella paratyphi
  5. ecoli 0157
  6. vibrio cholerae
  7. hep A+E
129
Q

what are the 3 types of transmission

A

direct
indirect
airborne

130
Q

name 5 methods of diarrhoea prevention in children

A
  1. rotoavirus and measles vaccinations
  2. promote early and exclusive breastfeeding + vit A supplementation
  3. promote handwashing with soap
  4. improve water supply quantity and quality
  5. community wide sanitation promotion
131
Q

what is the treatment for diarrhoea in children

A

fluid replacement

zinc replacement

132
Q

name the 4 at-risk groups for diarrhoea

A
  1. poor hygiene groups
  2. children at pre-school/nursery
  3. workers involved in preparing and serving unwrapped/uncooked food
  4. HCW working with vulnerable people
133
Q

what are c.diff spores resistant to

A

heat
drying
chemicals

134
Q

what is c.diff associated with

A

antibiotic use, especially broad spec

135
Q

what does c.diff cause in hospitalised patients

A

antibiotic associated diarrhoea
antibiotic associated colitis
pseudomembranous colitis
36% of hospitalised patients = asymptomatic carriers

136
Q

what causes 80% of antibiotic related diorrhoea

A

clostridium difficile

137
Q

what does SIGHT stand for

A 
S-suspect C diff as cause of diarrhoea
I-isolate the case
G-gloves and apron must be worn
H-hand washing with soap and water
T-test stool for toxin
138
Q

what is used to treat c.diff

A

vancomycin
metranidazole
control Ab use
infection control

139
Q

how is C.diff investigated

A

test stool samples
tissue samples
culture
no need to screen/treat asymptomatic carriers

140
Q

what action is taken when a notifiable infectious disease is found

A
  1. investigate
  2. identify and protect vulnerable individuals
  3. remove from high risk settings
  4. health promotion
  5. coordinate multi-agency response
141
Q

what are the types of immunisation

A
  1. active = cell mediated/Ab mediated

2. passive = placental/transfusion of Ig

142
Q

what is active immunisation made from

A 
inactivated
attenuated live organisms
secreted products
constituents of cell walls
recombinant components
143
Q

what is passive immunisation made from

A

human normal immunoglobulin HNIG
= plasma from donors
= contains antibodies to infectious disease currently prevalent

144
Q

what is primary vaccine failure

A

person doesnt develop immunity from vaccine

145
Q

what is secondary vaccine failure

A

initially responds but protection reduces over time

146
Q

describe a passive immunity vaccine

A

passive immmuntiy provided by injection of human immunoglobulin containing antibodies to target infection
temporarily increases antibody level for that specific infection

147
Q

what specific immunoglobulins are available for passive immunisation

A

tetanus
rabies
hep B
varicella zoster (chicken pox)

148
Q

what is a meningococcal infection

A

present as meningitis or septicaemia
caused by neisseria meningitidis
can cause very bad things in children (gangrene, brain abcess)
treated with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

149
Q

name the phases of managing infectious threat

A
  1. identification of new threat
  2. containment phase
  3. management phase
150
Q

name 5 benefits of work

A
  1. lower mortality
  2. social relationships
  3. structure to life
  4. improved fitness and mental health
  5. reduced state benefits
151
Q

when is an illness due to work

A

symptoms improve away from work
characteristics distribution of rash e.g. contact dermatitis
cluster of cases at workplace
exposure to hazard linked to disease

152
Q

work related neck conditions

A

tension neck
thoracic outlet syndrome
cervical spondylosis

153
Q

work related shoulder conditions

A

rotator cuff tendonitis
shoulder tendinitis
bicipital tendinitis
shoulder capsulitis

154
Q

work related elbow conditions

A

lateral and medial epicodylitis

155
Q

work related arm conditions

A

carpal tunnel syndrome
tenosynovitis of the wrist
De Quervain’s disease of the wrist

156
Q

what are the red flags for serious spinal pathology

A 
age of onset between 20 and 55
violent trauma
systemically unwell
persisting severe restriction of lumbar flexion
widespread neurology
157
Q

what are the top 3 causes of injury at work

A
  1. single excessive force
  2. static loading
  3. repetitive wear and tear
158
Q

what is the rapid upper limb assessment

A

series of tasks performed and scored

provides information on the level of intervention required to reduce the risk of injury

159
Q

what is the definition of good MSK health

A

healthy/disease free muscles bones and joints

ability to carry out wide range of physical activities/functions effectively and symptom free

160
Q

what are 4 factors that are effective MSK risk managements

A
  1. vit D/calcium intake increase
  2. weight management
  3. physical activity to increase strength and mobility
  4. injury prevention in all areas of life
161
Q

describe the screening of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

screening at physical examination at 6-8 weeks old

early detection and diagnosis = reduce need for surgery

162
Q

is there screening for osteoporosis

A

no
uncertainty about who would be included and effect on treatment
evidence has shown that screening all women does NOT reduce fractures

163
Q

is there screening for vit D deficiency

A

not unless patient has symptoms or risk factors of deficiency

164
Q

what conditions should you think of is there is discharge

A

gonorrhoea

chlamydia

165
Q

how is the male presentation of chlamydia/gonorrhoea different from female

A

pain
puss in urine
longer incubation period
more asymptomatic

166
Q

what are the complications for males with chlamydia or gonorrhoea

A

epididymo-orchitis

reactive arthritis

167
Q

what are the complications for females with chlamydia/gonorrhoea

A

pelvic inflammatory disease = ectopic pregnancy
neonatal transmission during birth
fitz hugh curtis syndrome

168
Q

what is the most common STI

A

chlamydia

169
Q

what test is used to diagnose chlamydia

A

nucleic acid amplification test NAAT

170
Q

what test is used to diagnose gonorrhoea

A

near patient test

= swab

171
Q

what STI causes genital ulcers

A

syphilis

172
Q

what is the STI transmission model

A 
R = B x C x D
R = reproductive rate (aim for lower than 1)
B = infectivity rate
C = partners over time
D = duration of infection
AIM to effect 1 of these variables
173
Q

describe some primary prevention methods for STIs

A 
= reduce risk of acquiring
awareness campaign
face to face reduction discussion
vaccination = HepB/HPV
Anti-retroviral = PEP, PrEP
174
Q

describe some secondary prevention methods for STIs

A

= case finding
access to STI tests/treatment
partner notification
targeted screening - antenatal for HIV/syph, chlamydia, HIV home testing

175
Q

describe tertiary prevention for STIs

A

anti-retrovirals for HIV

acyclovir to suppress genital herpes

176
Q

what are the aims for partner notification

A

break chain of transmission
prevent re-infection
prevent complication of untreated infection

177
Q

what are some contraindications for use of benzodiazepines to treat alcohol dependence

A 
hypersensitivity
severe pulmonary insufficiency
sever hepatic insufficiency
chronic psychosis
pregnancy
DONT USE AS STAND ALONE TREATMENT
178
Q

what is the risk of using benzos to treat alcohol dependency

A

risk of dependency in increased doses especially over longer period of time

179
Q

what are the withdrawal effects of benzodiazepines

A 
headache
muscular pain
anxiety
hallucinations
seizures
180
Q

what are some drug interactions of benzos

A

alcohol = enhanced sedatives
central NS acting drugs = enhanced depressive effects
compounds affecting P450 = reduce clearance

181
Q

who can make decisions for someone without capacity

A

lasting power of attorney
make advanced decision
healthcare professional act on behalf (section 5 of mental capacity act)

182
Q

what does best interest need to consider

A
  1. whether patient have capacity and if wont have in future
  2. patients past/present/future wishes
  3. patients beliefs and values
  4. other factors
  5. consult with anyone named as needing to be consulted
183
Q

definition of mental health

A

state of well-being in which every individual

  • realises their own potential
  • can cope with normal stresses of life
  • can work predominately and fruitfully
  • is able to make a contribution to his/her community
184
Q

ABC of self care

A

awareness
balance
connection

185
Q

what are the 8 primary emotions

A

joy, anger, fear, sadness, disgust

anticipation
surprise
trust

186
Q

what factors verify a death

A

no heart sound/carotid pulse for 1 minute
no breath sounds or respiratory effort for 1 minute
no response to painful stimuli
pupils fixed and dilated

Phase 2a (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions