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Medicine Phase 2A (OWN) > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

Define risk

A

Probability of harm

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2
Q

Define hazard

A

Something potentially harmful

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3
Q

Define absolute risk

A

Risk of developing a disease over a time period

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4
Q

Define relative risk

A

Risk of getting a disease in an exposed group compared to an unexposed group

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5
Q

Attributable risk

A

Rate of a disease in an exposed group that may be attributable to exposure

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6
Q

Ecological studies

A

Uses population level data
Cheap and easy, info already there
Studies relationships not causes and subject to bias

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7
Q

Cross sectional studies

A

Prevalence study
Chick, cheap, rapid feedback
No time difference, could be medical oddity, prone to bias

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8
Q

Case control

A

Case with disease, control without disease
Look at cases and see if they were exposed to agent
Cheap data collected quickly
Retrospective so can’t be causal, prone to its and hard to chose controls

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9
Q

Cohort

A

Incidence study, followup over time, see if exposed to agent and whether disease develops
Can do causation, can calculate risk and can study more than one outcome in same exposure
Expensive, long time, follow up problem

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10
Q

Intervention study

A

RCT, do something, compare to non-intervention
Less likely to be bias and confounding variable
Expensive, volunteer bias, ethical issues

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11
Q

Define patient compliance

A

The extend to which the patient’s behaviour coincides with medical/ health advice

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12
Q

Give 5 factors affecting compliance

A

Socioeconomic, health system, condition, therapy related, Pt related

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13
Q

How can factors affecting compliance be categorised?

A

Unintentional (practical barriers) and intentional (motivational barriers)

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14
Q

Give 4 examples of ethical considerations with patient compliance

A

Mental capacity
Decisions detrimental to patient’s wellbeing
Potential threat to the health of others
Patient is a child

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15
Q

Define occupational health

A

The branch of medicine concerned with the interaction between work and health

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16
Q

Which study is best for calculating attributable risk and why?

A

Cohort studies (looks at incidence)

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17
Q

How might work hazards be classified?

A

Mechanical, physical, psychosocial, chemical, biological

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18
Q

Give 3 positive effects of occupation on health

A

Unemployment to reemployment, school leavers finding a 1st job, work to retirement if voluntary

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19
Q

Give the Marmot 10 key components for good work

A

Precariousness, individual control, work demands, fair employment, opportunities, prevent social isolation, discrimination and violence, share information, work-life balance, reintegrates sick/ disabled where possible, promotes health and wellbeing

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20
Q

Define endemic

A

Disease which is permanently present within a population within a geographical area

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21
Q

Define outbreak

A

2 or more linked cases

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22
Q

Define epidemic

A

Increase in the prevalence of disease above the number usually observed in a particular area

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23
Q

Define pandemic

A

Epidemic across several countries or continents

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24
Q

Give the 2 influenza A antigens

A

Haemaggluttinin

Neuraminidase

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25
Q

Describe influenza B

A

Tend to cause sporadic outbreaks i.e. schools

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26
Q

Describe what happens in pandemic flu

A

Antigenic shift (birds to humans)

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27
Q

How is the UK prepared for a flu pandemic?

A

30 million courses of antiviral drugs: tamiflu (within 24-48hrs contact) + relenza

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28
Q

Roughly how long after a pandemic outbreak would a vaccine become available?

A

4-6 months

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29
Q

Define palliative care

A

Improves the quality of life of patients and families who face life threatening illness by providing pain and symptom relief, spiritual and psychosocial support from diagnosis to end of life and bereavement

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30
Q

Give the 4 points of philosophy of palliative care

A

Holistic/ humanistic
Individualised
Pt carer/ family are clients
Multidisciplinary approach

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31
Q

Compare the % of COPD and lung cancer patients with depression and compare their palliative care

A

92% of COPD have depression (0% PC) 52% lung cancer have depression (30% palliative care)

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32
Q

Give 4 key issues with providing palliative care for a patient with COPD

A

Unpredictable trajectory
Difficulties with illness prognostication
Poor pt understanding
Limited access to speciality care

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33
Q

Give a study supporting the link between smoking and mortality

A

Doll and Bradford Hill study (1951-2001) found smokers die 10 years earlier in a dose-response manner
Also found an increase in COPD mortality in smokers

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34
Q

Give 5 reasons for geographical variations of COPD

A 
Socioeconomic differences 
Socioeconomic deprivation
Historic industry
Developing world- biomass for cooking fuel
Passive smoking
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35
Q

What is the ratio of male to female lung cancer cases?

A

7:5

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36
Q

Describe a study that investigated coronary prone behaviour pattern

A

Friedman and Rosenman (1959)- competitive, hostile and impatient behaviour is more likely to result in CHD

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37
Q

Give the questionnaire used to assess type A behaviour

A

Minnesota multiphase personality index

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38
Q

What evidence is there to support the link between psychosocial work characteristics and CHD?

A

Whitehall studies: British civil service- men in lower grade had higher CHD
Working >11 hours days makes you 67% more likely to have a heart attack than those working 7-8 hour days

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39
Q

Describe the association between social support and CHD

A

Attachment and social integration is lower in men with CHD

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40
Q

Define psychosocial factors

A

Factors influencing psychological responses to the social environment and pathophysiological changes

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41
Q

How common is diarrhoea as a cause of death in children under 5

A

2nd leading cause of death (from significant fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance)

42
Q

Give the 5 factors of the WHO prevention package (diarrhoea)

A

Rotavirus and measles vaccination
Promote early and exclusive breast feeding (+ vitA supplementation)
Promote hand washing with soap
Improve water supply and tx/ safe storage of household water
Community wide sanitation

43
Q

Describe the WHO treatment package (diarrhoea)

A

Fluid replacement

Zinc

44
Q

How would you manage a c.diff infection? (SIGHT)

A 
Suspect
Isolate
Gloves and aprons
Hand wash with soap
Test too for toxin
45
Q

Give 4 ‘at risk’ groups of infective diarrhoea

A

Persons of doubtful personal hygiene
Children attending nursery
People who work with unwrapped/ uncooked food
Health care workers/ social care staff working with vulnerable people

46
Q

Give the proportion of binge eating cases and anorexia cases that are male

A

1/4 binge

1/10 anorexia

47
Q

Define anorexia nervosa

A

Restriction of energy intake relative to the requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory and physical health

48
Q

Give 3 key features of anorexia nervosa

A

Intense fear of gaining weight
Disturbance in way in which ones body weight is experienced
Denial of seriousness of low body weight

49
Q

Define bulimia nervosa

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating characterised by both of the following:
Eat in a discrete amount of time large amounts of food
During the episode you have a sense of lack of control
+ includes recurrent compensatory procedure to prevent weight gain

50
Q

Define binge eating disorder

A 
(Same as bulimia) but no purging 
\+ 3/5:
Eating more rapidly
Eating until uncomfortably full
Eating large amounts of food when not physically hungry
Eating along due to embarrassment
Feeling disgusted, depressed/ guilty
51
Q

What is OSFED and what percentage of eating disorders does it make up?

A

Other specified feeding and eating disorders

40-50% do not meet full criteria for diagnosis

52
Q

Describe the factors contributing to the onset of an eating disorder and the motivation to maintain it

A 
CORE model (Slade): Perfectionism, need for control, low self-esteem
Maintenance: Initial positive reinforcement then becomes terror at losing control
53
Q

Give the key motivations for change with eating disorders

A

BN, binge- CBT

AN- family therapy

54
Q

What is the weekly recommended units of alcohol?

A

14

55
Q

Define one unit of alcohol

A

10ml of pure alcohol/ 8g

56
Q

How are units calculated?

A

Strength of drink (%) x liquid in ml / 1000

57
Q

How is binge drinking defined for men and women?

A

Men >8 units

Women >6 units in one sitting

58
Q

Describe the alcohol harm paradox

A

Lower socioeconomic groups drink less alcohol but experience more harm because they drink at more extreme levels

59
Q

Give 5 effects of drinking >35 units per week

A 
HTN
Stroke
Pancreatitis
CHD
Liver disease
60
Q

Describe foetal alcohol syndrome

A

Pre and post-natal slow growth development, crania-facial abnormalities, CNS abnormalities, congenital defects

61
Q

Give 10 effects of alcohol consumption

A

Blackouts, delusions, headaches, peptic ulcers, inflammation of intestines, fatty liver/ cirrhosis, early DM, bone degeneration, pins and needles in hand, weakened heart muscle, degeneration of skeletal muscles

62
Q

Describe the effects of alcohol withdrawal

A 
Tremulousness
Seizures
Hallucinations
Activation syndrome
Delirium tremens
63
Q

Give examples of primary prevention

A 
THINK
Drink aware (labels)
Binge drinking campaign 18-24 know your limits
Restriction on alcohol advertising
Minimum pricing
64
Q

Give examples of secondary prevention

A

Explore alcohol consumption with patients
Use screenings Qs
Explanation to lifestyle change
Detect problem e.g. liver test, feedback to patient if problem

65
Q

Give 3 examples of screening tools for alcohol consumption

A

FAST (fast alcohol screening tes)
AUDIT (alcohol use disorder identification test)
CAGE

66
Q

How would you treat alcohol dependence?

A

Community based/ inpatient assisted withdrawal

Benzodiazepines (depressant): CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE (4 weeks max)

67
Q

Define substance use

A

Ingestion of a substance affecting the CNS which leads to behavioural and psychological changes

68
Q

Give examples of opioids

A

Morphine, diamorphine/ heroin

69
Q

Give examples of depressants

A

Alcohol, benzos (slow down thinking, relaxation and sedation)

70
Q

Give examples of stimulants

A

Nicotine, cocaine, caffeine

71
Q

Give examples of hallucinogens

A

LSD, ecstasy, ketamine, magic mushrooms

72
Q

How can drug abuse be viewed?

A

Disease model (view as a chronic recurrent illness/ genetic disorder), behavioural model (bad habit), volitional (failure of will), sociocultural (social problems)

73
Q

How might you prevent substance misuse?

A

Reducing RF and increasing protective factors (family attachment, academic achievement, opportunities, developing self-confidence, worth and resilience)

74
Q

Describe physical dependence

A

The body adapts to the presence of a substance and overtime needs more for the safe effect, stopping leads to withdrawal

75
Q

Describe psychological dependence

A

Feeling life is impossible/ you can’t face the challenges without the drug

76
Q

Describe dependent syndrome

A

Experience at least 3/6 in 12 months:
Strong desire/ compulsion to use drugs
Difficulties controlling substance taking behaviour
Tolerance
Progressive neglect of pleasures/ interests
Persistent use despite harmful consequences

77
Q

Compare the epidemiology of Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea

A

Chlamydia more common, more common in females

Gonorrhoea more common in men

78
Q

What type of bacteria causes Chlamydia and gonorrhoea?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis ad Neisseria Gonorrhoea

Gram -ve

79
Q

How can Chlamydia/ gonorrhoea cause damage?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease, travels up fallopian tubes and cause tubule factor infertility, ectopic pregnancies, chronic pelvic pain
In men- reactive arthritis

80
Q

How would you diagnose chlamydia?

A

Vaginal swab and first void

Nucleic acid amplifications test (using PCR)

81
Q

How would you treat chlamydia?

A

Partner management, azithromyocin (once EVER), doxycycline (twice a day for a week), erythromycin (twice a day for 2 weeks)

82
Q

How would you diagnose gonorrhoea?

A

NAAT/ near patient test- microscopy gram stain smears of secretions: look for diplocci- culture on selective medium

83
Q

How would you treat gonorrhoea?

A

Partner notified, tx other STIs, ceftriaxone with azithromyocin)

84
Q

What is the bacteria that causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

Gram -ve

85
Q

What is the biggest risk group for syphilis transmission?

A

Male to male

86
Q

How might early infections of syphilis present?

A

Painless ulcer, skin rash, small red circles on hands, soles, stomach

87
Q

How might latent syphilis present?

A

Can involve CNS/ CVD

88
Q

Describe the transmission of syphilis

A

40-60% partners infected, but very high vertical transmission (90%)
50% neonates die

89
Q

How would you diagnose syphilis?

A

Early moist lesions sample, motile spirochetes under microscopy

90
Q

How would you treat syphilis?

A

Penicillin injection

91
Q

Reproductive rate of STIs

A 
R= BCD
R= reproductive rate
B= infectivity rate (chance of infection passing on per exposure)
C= partners over time
D= duration of infection
92
Q

Give examples of primary prevention for STI control

A

STI awareness campaign
1-1 risk reduction discussion
Variations against HepB and HPV
Pre/ post exposure prophylaxis for HIV

93
Q

Give examples of secondary prevention for STI control

A

Identifying and stopping spread, easy access to kits- free, confidential
Short waiting lists
Targeted screening e.g. CHLAM, It starts with me HIV

94
Q

Give examples of tertiary prevention for STI control

A

Reduce complications- HAART, prophylactic abx, acyclovir for suppression of genital herpes

95
Q

Describe the epidemiology of migraines, MS and epilepsy

A

Migraines- F>M, peak 35-40
MS- common in 20-35, prevalence directly proportional to distance from equator
Epilepsy- rapidly increase at 60y/o

96
Q

Describe Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease

A

Neuro-degenerative, rapidly progressive dementia, 55-75 (avg onset)
Abnormal ECG
Varient CJD- same strain as mad cow disease (BSE)

97
Q

Describe passive immunisation

A

The administration of pre-formed ‘immunity’ from one person/ animal to another
Limitations: short lived, possible transfer of pathogens
Adv.: Immediate protection and effective in immunocomprimised

98
Q

Describe active attenuated immunisation

A

Live organism replicate within host and induce immune response (polio and small pox)
Risk that may not be attenuated in immunocompromised hosts)

99
Q

Describe active non-living immunisation

A

Whole killed- not cause infection but Ag induce immune response (diphtheria)
Toxoids- inactivated toxins (tetanus)

100
Q

Describe 5 examines of alternative means of immunisation

A 
Recombinant proteins
Synthetic peptides
Live attenuated vectors
DNA vaccines
Polysaccharide protein conjugates

Medicine Phase 2A (OWN) (10 decks)

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