Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

Describe 3 coronial legislations

A

Coroners Act 1988:
- Allow coroner to order an autopsy where death is likely due to natural causes. No power for coroner to authorise further investigations.
- Allow coroner to order an autopsy where death is clearly unnatural. Can authorise special investigations

Amendment Rules 2005:
- Pathologist must tell coroner what materials have been retained.
- Family has choice to decide whether materials are returned or retained for research/disposed respectfully
- Coroner authorises retention and sets disposal date.
- Autopsy report must declare retention and disposal.

Coroners and Justice Act, 2009
- Coroner can now defer opening the inquest and instead launch an investigation.
- Inquests now have conclusions, not verdicts.

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2
Q

What is the Human Tissue Act 2004?

A
  • Autopsies are only to be performed on licensed premises
  • Consent from relatives for ANY use of tissue retained at autopsy if not subject to coronial legislation or retained for criminal justice purposes
  • Public display requires consent from the diseased
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3
Q

Give 2 disadvantages of patient compliance?

A
  1. It is passive, the patient MUST follow the doctor’s orders.
  2. It is professionally focused and assumes the doctor knows best.
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4
Q

Define patient adherence.

A

The extent to which the patient’s actions match agreed recommendations. It is more patient centred.

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5
Q

What is the difference between patient compliance and adherence?

A

Patient adherence is more patient centred, it empowers patients and considers them as equals in care. Patient compliance is often viewed as uncaring, condescending and passive.

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6
Q

Give examples of non-adherence

A
  • Not taking prescribed medication
  • Taking bigger/smaller doses than prescribed
  • Taking medication more/less often than prescribed
  • Stopping the medicine without finishing the course
  • Modifying treatment to accommodate other activities (work, social)
  • Continuing with behaviours that go against medical advice (smoking, drinking)
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7
Q

Reasons for non adherence

A

Unintentional:
- difficulty understanding instructions
- poor dexterity
- inability to pay
- forgetting
Intentional:
- patient’s beliefs about their health/condition
- beliefs about treatments
- personal preferences

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8
Q

Describe the necessity-concerns framework.

A

The necessity-concerns framework looks at what influences adherence. Adherence increases when necessity beliefs are high and concerns are low.

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9
Q

Give 2 factors that patient centred care encourages?

A
  1. Focus on the patient as a whole person; holistic.
  2. Shared control of the consultation, decisions are made by the patient and doctor together.
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10
Q

Give 4 advantages of doctor-patient communication.

A
  1. Better health outcomes.
  2. Higher compliance to therapeutic regimens.
  3. Higher patient and clinician satisfaction.
  4. Decrease in malpractice risk.
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11
Q

What is concordance?

A

An extension of principles of Patient Centred Medicine. Concordance is the expectation that patients will take part in treatment decisions and have a say in the consultation; it is a negotiation between equals.

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12
Q

Barriers to patient centred communication.

A

For Patients:
- Patients might not want to engage in discussion with their doctor.
- Research indicated that in some cases it might increase worry.
- Patients may simply want the doctor to tell them what to do, where medical decisions were complex or based on complicated statistical risks

Health Professional:
- Relevant communication skills
- Time/resources/organisational constraints
- Challenging – patient choice V Evidence

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13
Q

Ethical considerations: in which patient groups may there be ethical considerations when taking a patient centred approach and shared decision making approach?

A
  1. Mental Capacity - Mental Capacity Act (2005) e.g. dementia, severe learning disability, brain injury, mental health condition
  2. Decision that may be detrimental to a patient’s wellbeing
  3. Potential threat to the health of others (e.g. infections diseases)
  4. When the patient is a child:
    3rd party (parents/guardians)
    - When can children take responsibility for their treatment?
    - Should more weight be given to the parents’ wishes or the child’s?
    - What if the parent, child, and doctor all disagree?
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14
Q

What is the Public Health Act?

A

The Public Health Act (Health Protection Regulations 2010) provides a legal basis to detain and isolate an infectious individual. It allows for persons who have category 4 or 5 infections diseases to be brought to a specified place for isolation if they pose a serious public health risk to others and if all other reasonable efforts to support treatment have failed.

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15
Q

What does Section 1 of the Children Act 1989 state?

A
  • Where a child is of sufficient understanding, medical treatment (including examination) may only be given with the child’s consent.
  • It is for the Doctor to decide whether the child can give consent. Where the child is not of sufficient understanding a parent, or person with parental responsibility, may consent.
  • Children capable of providing consent cannot be examined if they refuse that consent.
  • If there is a dispute the matter should be put before a Court.
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16
Q

A 50 year old patient found to be at increased risk of cardiovascular disease mentions at a routine GP check-up that they have not been taking the statin prescribed at their last visit. The patient comments that they are “not anti-medication” but “feel fine without it”.
What seems to be the most pertinent reason for this non adherence?

A

Necessity beliefs about medication

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17
Q

Mortality difference between sex.

A

In the UK women generally live longer than men.

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18
Q

What kind of implications does masculinity have in health?

A
  • Different risk behaviours
  • Reluctance to seek help when ill
  • Employment conditions more likely to be dangerous
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19
Q

What kind of implications does femininity have in health?

A
  • women’s social responsibility is for ‘care’ and includes maintaining the family’s health
  • Social status and access to material resources
  • Feminization of poverty
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20
Q

What should doctors do if there is a suspected case of meningitis?

A

ALL CASES OF SUSPECTED MENINGITIS ARE NOTIFIABLE AND MUST BE NOTIFIED WITHOUT DELAY
Notifiable disease (Public Health Act, 1984)

Notify your regional UKHSA health protection team of
Meningitis (any cause)
Meningococcal septicaemia

Notify on suspicion – don’t wait for laboratory confirmation as public health action needed ASAP to prevent further cases!

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21
Q

When seeing adverse drug reactions, how should you respond?

A

Report to MRHA using the yellow card system

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22
Q

Which of the following ADRs should be reported via the Yellow Card reporting scheme?

a) Mild leg swelling caused by amlodipine
b) Dry mouth with Anoro inhaler - Black triangle
c) Suicide attempt by patient newly started on sertraline
d) Haemorrhagic stroke in patient taking warfarin
e) Nausea with ferrous sulphate

A

b) Dry mouth with Anoro inhaler - Black triangle
c) Suicide attempt by patient newly started on sertraline
d) Haemorrhagic stroke in patient taking warfarin

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23
Q

What four pieces of information is needed to fill in a Yellow Card?

A

Suspected drug(s)
Suspected reaction(s)
Patient details (initials, Hosp/NHS number)
Reporter details

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24
Q

When there is a confirmed or probable case of meningitis what is the first thing we should identify?

A

Identify close contacts
* People living in the same household as the case
* Anyone who slept overnight in the same household as the case in previous 7 days
* Other household members if case stayed overnight elsewhere in previous 7 days
* Intimate kissing contacts in last 7 days

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25
Q

If meningitis is suspected what should be given to close contacts?

A

Chemoprophylaxis
Antibiotics given to eradicate throat carriage

Ciprofloxacin (recommended for all age groups and in pregnancy)
single dose
doesn’t interact with oral contraceptives
readily available

Rifampicin (alternative)

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26
Q

In the case of delayed reporting of meningitis, how long before you stop offering treatment to close contacts?

A

Offer prophylaxis to household contacts up to 4 weeks after case became ill

Offer appropriate vaccine to unvaccinated close contacts (within a week)

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27
Q

What further public health action should be given when there is a case of meningitis?

A

Contact school/nursery/university etc
Standard letter to warn and inform
Customised letter if unusual circumstances e.g. death
Offer leaflets e.g. Meningitis Trust
https://meningitis-trust.org.uk/
Offer information/support/helpline
Media handling

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28
Q

What is WHO’s strategy to resolve meningitis by 2030?

A
  1. Elimination of bacterial meningitis epidemics
  2. Reduction of cases of vaccine-preventable bacterial meningitis by 50% and deaths by 70%
  3. Reduction of disability and improvement of quality of life after meningitis due to any cause

WHO strategy is to mass vaccinate in the event of an epidemic

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29
Q

What are the three types of meningitis vaccines?

A

Polysaccharide vaccines
Conjugate vaccines
Meningitis B vaccine

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30
Q

What is the routine meningococcal vaccine schedule for UK children?

A

8 weeks - Primary
16 weeks - Primary
One year - Primary (MenC) & Booster (Hib)
14 years - Primary (MenAWY) & Booster (MenC)

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31
Q

What is primary and secondary vaccine failure?

A

Primary vaccine failure – person doesn’t develop immunity from vaccine.
Secondary vaccine failure – initially responds but protection wanes over time.

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32
Q

What diseases are not infectious but notifiable?

A

STIs
- HIV
- Hepatitis B

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33
Q

Why is diabetes a key health issue?

A
  • Mortality
  • Disability
  • Co-morbidity
  • Reduced quality of life
  • Preventable but increasing in prevelance
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34
Q

List 4 things we can do to reduce the impact of type 2 diabetes?

A
  1. Identifying people at risk of diabetes
  2. Preventing diabetes (“Primary” prevention)
  3. Diagnosing diabetes earlier (“Secondary” prevention)
  4. Effective management and supporting self-management (“Tertiary” prevention)
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35
Q

Examples of the obesogenic Environment?

A

Physical environment: eg TV remote controls, lifts, “car culture”

Economic environment: eg cheap TV watching, expensive fruit and veg

Sociocultural environment: eg safety fears, family eating patterns

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36
Q

Mechanisms that maintain overweight

A

Physical/physiological - more weight = more difficult to exercise (arthritis, stress incontinence) and dieting -> metabolic response

Psychological - low self-esteem and guilt, comfort eating

Socioeconomic - reduced opportunities employment, relationships, social mobility

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37
Q

Name 2 approaches to ethical analysis.

A
  1. Seedhouse’s ethical grid.| 2. The four quadrants approach.
38
Q

Seedhouse’s ethical grid: describe the inner layer.

A

The inner layer asks the question of whether the intervention is going to create autonomy, respect autonomy and respect persons equally and serve needs first.

39
Q

Seedhouse’s ethical grid: describe the second layer.

A

Duties and motives. Is the intervention consistent with moral duties; keeping promises, telling the truth, minimising harm and maximising benefit?

40
Q

Seedhouse’s ethical grid: describe the third layer.

A

Consequentialist layer. Is the intervention going to provide the greatest benefit for the greatest number? Who will benefit, society, individuals, a group?

41
Q

Seedhouse’s ethical grid: describe the outer layer.

A

Is the intervention likely to be affected by external considerations e.g. risks, law, use of resources, codes of practices.

42
Q

What are the advantages of Seedhouse’s ethical grid?

A

It provides structure and function for analysing ethical problems. It is based on moral theory.

43
Q

What are the headings which make up the four quadrants approach to clinical ethical analysis?

A
  1. Medical indications: beneficence and nonmaleficence
  2. Patient preferences: respect for autonomy.
  3. Quality of life: beneficence and nonmaleficence
  4. Contextual features: loyalty and fairness
44
Q

What did Friedman and Rosenman (1959) describe?

A

Coronary prone behaviour; competitive, hostile, impatient, type A behaviour.

45
Q

What tool can be used to assess type A behaviour?

A

Clinical interviews or questionnaires (ie. MMPI.)

46
Q

Give three psychosocial factors that could increase someone’s risk of MI.

A
  1. Depression/anxiety.
  2. High demand and low control at work, working more than 11 hours a day.
  3. Loneliness and social isolation.
47
Q

What is overweight/obesity?

A

Abnormal or excessive fat accumulation that presents a risk to health

48
Q

Causes and risk factors of obesity?

A
  • Genetic factors
  • Health connections
  • Environmental factors
  • Behavioural factors
49
Q

What government policies have been instituted to help decrease obesity

A
  1. Sugar Drink Industry Levy
    * Tax on sugar drinks
    * Implemented in April 2018
  2. Aim to tackle promotion of foods high in fat, salt or sugar (HFSS)
    * restrict volume promotions such as buy one get one free (delayed 2025)
    * restrict placement HFSS food locations intended to encourage purchasing, both online and in physical stores in England (enacted 2022)
  3. Calorie labelling in large out-of-home food businesses (enacted 2022)
  4. Adverting Restrictions on HFSS (delayed 2025)
    * 9pm watershed for advertisements of HFSS foods, applicable to television and K on-demand programmes
    *Prohibition on paid for advertising of unhealthy food and drink products online
50
Q

How would you calculate the number of units in a drink?

A

Strength of the drink (% ABV)
x
Amount of liquid (Litres)

51
Q

What is a UK unit?

A

8 grams or 10 ml of pure alcohol

52
Q

What is the maximum units of alcohol that men and women can consume within a week?

A

No more than 14 units per week (for men + women)
Spread drinking over 3 days or more

53
Q

List 3 acute effects of excessive alcohol consumption

A
  1. Accidents and injury
  2. Coma and death from respiratory depression
  3. Aspiration pneumonia
54
Q

Most common cause of alcohol-specific deaths

A

Alcoholic liver disease

55
Q

List 5 clinical alcohol withdrawal syndromes

A
  1. Tremulousness - “the shakes”
  2. Activation syndrome - characterized by tremulousness, agitation, rapid heartbeat and high blood pressure
  3. Seizures - acute grand mal seizures can occur in alcohol withdrawal in patients who have no history of seizure or any structural brain disease
  4. Hallucinations - usually visual or tactile in alcohol dependence
  5. Delirium tremens - can be severe/fatal
    Tremors, agitation, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, sensitivity to light and sound, and seizures [medical emergency]
56
Q

What is foetal alcohol spectrum disorder caused by?

A

Pre natal exposure to alcohol

57
Q

List 5 abnormalities associated with foetal alcohol spectrum disorder

A
  1. learning disabilities,
  2. irritability,
  3. incoordination,
  4. hyperactivity
  5. craniofacial abnormalities
58
Q

What kind of craniofacial would someone with foetal alcohol syndrome have?

A

Associated abnormalities including:
1. congenital defects of eyes, ears, mouth, cardiovascular system, genitourinary tract and skeleton,

  1. increase in the incidence of birthmarks and hernias
59
Q

Give 3 government strategies that prevent harmful drinking.

A

Recommendations for Policy

1: Price - Make alcohol less affordable
2: Availability - licensing & import allowances
3: Marketing - limit exposure, esp.to children and young people

60
Q

Name 3 recommendations in practice to prevent harmful drinking

A
  1. Licensing
  2. Screening & brief interventions
  3. Supporting children & young people aged 10-15 yrs
  4. Referral - consider referral for specialist treatment
61
Q

Alcohol harm prevention strategies in the UK

A

Restrict choice
* Minimum Unit Pricing
* Restriction on alcohol advertising

Enable choice
* Dry January
* Encourage use of alcohol-free low alcohol alternatives

Provide information
* Alcohol labelling
* Drinking guidelines
* Media campaigns

62
Q

Give a public health campaign associated with reducing alcohol intake

A

Dry January
‘Know your limits’ - binge drinking campaign.
THINK! - drink drive campaign.

63
Q

What is the Minimum Unit Pricing (MUP)?

A

Minimum Unit Pricing ( MUP ) is a guideline which set the minimum price of alcohol at 50 pence per unit (ppu)

64
Q

What benefits did the MUP aim to achieve?

A
  1. Decrease in alcohol related deaths
  2. Decrease in hospital admissions
  3. Decrease in crime
65
Q

Health improvements after 1 month abstinence among weekly drinkers

A

Improvements in:
Insulin resistance
Blood pressure
Cancer-related growth factors

66
Q

Benefits of temporary abstinence initiatives (e.g., Dry January)

A

Reduced drinking at 6 months follow-up
Increased ability to refuse drinks
Improved self-rated health
Improved self-rated wellbeing

67
Q

Secondary prevention for alcohol related issues

A

Screening and intervention

This might involve:
1. exploring alcohol consumption
2. asking routinely
3. using screening questions/tools

68
Q

What is the difference between at risk drinking and harmful drinking?

A

At Risk Drinking (Hazardous):
A pattern of drinking which brings about the risk of physical or psychological harm – Screening tools

Harmful drinking:
a pattern of drinking which is likely to cause physical or psychological harm.

69
Q

What screening questions and tools are available for alcohol consumption?

A

A Clinical Interview – a single question about heavy drinking days
FAST - Fast Alcohol Screening Test
AUDIT - Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test
CAGE Questions

70
Q

Define alcohol dependence.

A

A set of behavioural, cognitive and physiological responses that can develop after repeated substance use.

71
Q

Treatments for AUD or alcohol dependence

A

70% of people with AUD recover without formal treatment

Treatments can involve:
1. Psychosocial
- Therapy cognitive and behaviour
- social support

  1. Medical
    - Campral
    - Antabuse
    - Selincro
72
Q

What is substance misuse?

A

Relates to the harmful use of any substance for non-medical purposes or effect.

73
Q

Give an example of an opioid

A

Heroin
Codeine
Tramadol

74
Q

Give an example of a CNS depressant

A

Alcohol

75
Q

Give an example of a stimulant drug

A

Ecstasy/MDMA
Cocaine
Methamphetamine

76
Q

Give an example of a hallucinagen

A

LSD
Magic mushrooms

77
Q

What is the Misuse of Drug Act 1971?

A

The Act prevents the misuse of controlled drugs and achieves this by imposing a complete ban on the possession, supply, manufacture, import and export of controlled drugs.

78
Q

Name a class A drug

A

Heroin
Methamphetamine
Ecstasy/MDMA
Cocaine
LSD
Magic mushrooms

79
Q

Name a class B drug

A

Codeine
Cannabis

80
Q

Name a class C drug

A

Tramadol
Diazepam temazepam
Gabpentin

81
Q

List 3 effects associated with drug misuse

A

Mortality
Morbidity (physical and psychological impact on quality of life)
Social (criminal justice involvement, crime, violence, acceptability)
Economic (productivity, tax)
Personal (identity, stigma, relationships)

82
Q

“Addiction is a disease. No-one would expect a diabetic to give up insulin, so we should treat heroin with methadone, a prescription drug that helps normal function and explore possible vaccinations”

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Disease model

83
Q

“If we increased punishments people would not use drugs”

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Behavioural model

84
Q

“Addiction is caused by a lack of values and interests. Children should be brought up with moral standards and diverse interests.”
Which theoretical model might this relate to?

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Moral model

85
Q

“If an addict hits rock-bottom, he will eventually get fed up with using and stop”

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Volitional model

86
Q

“Addiction is caused or at least strongly influenced by genetic factors. Hence we need to concentrate effort at gene therapies.”

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Disease model

87
Q

“If there was not so much social injustice, we would not have addicts everywhere”.

Which theoretical model might this relate to?

A

Socio-cultural model

88
Q

List 3 risk factors for increased chance of someone misusing substances

A
  1. Family
    - family history
    - family conflict
  2. Community
    - availability of drugs
    - community disorganisation
  3. School
    - academic failure
    - low school commitment
  4. Individual & Peer
    - Smoking and alcohol use
    - sensation seeking
    - rebellious and alienation
89
Q

Protective factors against chance of someone misusing substances (list 3)

A
  1. Often the reverse of risk e.g. family attachment, academic achievement
  2. Opportunities / recognition / reward for positive involvement
  3. Opportunities to develop self-confidence, feelings of self-worth, resilience
90
Q

List 4 treatments for drug misuse

A
  • GPs
  • Harm reduction services e.g. needle exchange, advice re reducing risks of use
  • Open access service
  • Structured psychosocial interventions
  • Prescribing services
  • Detox (community or inpatient)
  • Access to residential rehab
  • Recovery support / mutual aid
91
Q
A